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Moons Science Test 1

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are examples of a prokaryote? (can be more than one answer)

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Bacteria

d)

Archaea

2.

Which of the following are examples of a eukaryote? (can be more than one answer)

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Bacteria

d)

Archaea

3.

What houses the deoxyribonucleic acid?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Golgi apparatus

4.

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

a)

double helix

b)

double cuboid

c)

bilateral cone

d)

bilateral spiral

5.

Within a cell nucleus, DNA is carefully packaged via proteins known as?

a)

Histones

b)

Chromatin

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Actin

6.

Which phase in the cell cycle does DNA duplicate itself?

a)

synthesis phase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

7.

In which phase do chromatin condense into chromosomes?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

prometaphase

d)

telophase

8.

In which phase does the nuclear membrane break down?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

prometaphase

d)

telophase

9.

In which phase do chromosomes break at centromeres and sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell?

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prometaphase

d)

telophase

10.

In which phase do chromosomes line up along an imaginary plane?

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prometaphase

d)

telophase

11.

In which phase does the nuclear membrane reform, nucleoli reappear, and chromosomes unwind into chromatin?

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prometaphase

d)

telophase

12.

What is translated to make proteins used by the cell?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

13.

<BLANK> is used to carry the genetic information outside of the nucleus to the ribosome where protein synthesis is completed.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

14.

The process of making mRNA or any RNA is called?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

mitosis

d)

cytokinesis

15.

The conversion from RNA to amino acid is known as?

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

transfusion

d)

transition

16.

A codon is made up of how many nucleotides?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

17.

The <BLANK> is a membrane-bound organelle made up of folded sacs?

a)

endoplasmic reticulum

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

microtubule

d)

nucleolus

18.

What is used to move materials from one oragnelle to the next?

a)

vesicles

b)

lysosomes

c)

peroxisomes

d)

microtubules

19.

What organelle carries out digestion of materials that need to be broken down?

a)

vesicles

b)

lysosomes

c)

peroxisomes

d)

microtubules

20.

What organelle helps with the neutralization of toxic free radicals through oxidation and reduction chemical reactions?

a)

vesicles

b)

lysosomes

c)

peroxisomes

d)

microtubules

21.

<BLANK> carry out cellular respiration and produce large amounts of ATP using glucose, amino acids and lipid components?

a)

mitochondria

b)

organelle

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

golgi apparatus

22.

The <BLANK> takes proteins and other products from the endoplasmic reticulum and modifies and packages them for shipment to other parts of the cell or sends them outside the cell.

a)

mitochondria

b)

organelle

c)

lysosomes

d)

golgi apparatus

23.

Transporting materials into a cell is called?

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

mitosis

d)

ATP

24.

Transporting materials out of a cell is called?

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

mitosis

d)

ATP

25.

<BLANK> help the animal cell complete cytokinesis by creating the cleavage furrow?

a)

actin filaments

b)

lysososmes

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

organelles

26.

Microtubules for the <BLANK> that facilitates the separation of chromosomes during mitosis.

a)

spindle apparatus

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

vesicles

27.

The intermediate filament protein <BLANK> gives hair and nails its strength.

a)

keratin

b)

flagella

c)

glycolipid

d)

glycoprotein

28.

Breaking down larger macromolecules into smaller usable molecules, or monomer units is called?

a)

catabolism

b)

anabolism

c)

metabolism

d)

cytokinesis

29.

Covalently linking monomers and making the larger molecules needed is called?

a)

catabolism

b)

anabolism

c)

metabolism

d)

cytokinesis

30.

The totality of an organism's chemical reactions is called?

a)

catabolism

b)

anabolism

c)

metabolism

d)

cytokinesis

31.

The breaking down of lactose is what type of process?

a)

catabolism

b)

anabolism

c)

metabolism

d)

cytokinesis

32.

<BLANK> reduce(s) the activation energy required for a reaction or process to get started?

a)

enzymes

b)

cytoplasm

c)

diffusion

d)

filaments

33.

<BLANK> involves the pitting in of the membrane to create a vesicle on the inside for bringing components into the cell.

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

diffusion

d)

endometriosis

34.

Molecules moving from an area of higher concentration into an area of lower concentration until they are evenly distributed, and dynamic equilibrium is reached is known as?

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

diffusion

d)

endometriosis

35.

Signaling molecules outside the cell bind to <BLANK>.

a)

cell surface receptor proteins

b)

DNA

c)

ATP

d)

cytokinesis

36.

Cells with the suffix blast are considered?

a)

immature cells

b)

mature cells

c)

specialized cells

d)

dead cells

37.

Cells with the suffix cyte are considered?

a)

immature cells

b)

mature cells

c)

specialized cells

d)

dead cells

38.

White blood cells that differentiate into more specialized cells are called?

a)

monoblasts

b)

monocytes

c)

macrophages

d)

microphages

39.

Mature liver cells are called?

a)

erythrocytes

b)

hepatocytes

c)

monocytes

d)

cellulytes

40.

Mature red blood cells are called?

a)

erythrocytes

b)

hepatocytes

c)

monocytes

d)

cellulytes

41.

Cells that are not actively moving through the cell cycle are said to have withdrawn or exited from the cell cycle are in the phase known as?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

42.

The two major phases of the cell cycle are?

a)

Interphase and Mitosis

b)

Cytokinesis and Meosis

c)

Metaphase and Telophase

d)

Anaphase and Prophase

43.

What are the phases in interphase? (choose all that apply)

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

44.

<BLANK> is known as nuclear division.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Diffusion

45.

DNA replication takes part in which phase?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

46.

Which phase checks to see if any errors occurred in DNA replication?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

47.

What phase ensures that the microtubules making up the spindle apparatus are appropriately attached to the centromeres of the sister chromatid?

a)

S

b)

M

c)

G1

d)

G0

48.
When one base replaces another, this is a common type of mutation called what?
a)
Insertion
b)
Substitution
c)
Inversion
d)
Deletion
49.
What is the name given to part of a DNA molecule that codes for a protein?
a)
Glucose
b)
Chromosome
c)
Gene
d)
Phosphate
50.
Are all mutations harmful?
a)
Yes, they are caused by toxic chemicals and radiation
b)
No, all mutations are beneficial
c)
Yes, mutations cause fatal diseases
d)
No, some can be useful in a changing environment
51.
A permanent change in DNA is called what?
a)
Genetic disorders
b)
Mutation
c)
Gene Expression
d)
Mutagen
52.
Metastasis is
a)
the spread of cancer from one part of the body to another.
b)
the growth of tumors in the lungs
c)
cancer of the blood cells
d)
cancer that is found in connective tissues
53.

An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a neoplasm or

a)

tumor

b)

cyst

c)

lesion

d)

polyp

54.
Which type of tumor is dangerous, spreads across bodily systems via blood and lymphatic systems?
a)
benign
b)
malignant
55.
Cancer cells can break away from a malignant tumor and enter the bloodstream or lymphatic system.
a)
True
b)
False
56.

Cancer is

a)

a premature stop in the cell cycle.

b)

uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the body.

c)

programmed cell death.

d)

cells that go through apoptosis

57.

What type of neoplasm is slow growing, remains localized and has cells that are uniform in appearance?

a)

Malignant

b)

Benign

58.
Proto-oncogenes can mutate into...
a)
oncogenes
b)
tumor suppressor genes
c)
DNA repair proteins
59.
Which of the following can lead to uncontrolled cell growth (cancer)? 
a)
Proto-oncogene 
b)
Oncogene
c)
Tumor suppressor gene
d)
DNA repair system 
60.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
Proto-oncogenes cause a loss of control of the cell cycle
b)
the products of oncogenes may inhibit the cell cycle
c)
tumor-suppressor-gene products inhibit the cell cycle
d)
a mutation in a proto-oncogene may convert it into a tumor suppresor gene
61.

________________________ is a process of recognizing defective cells, letting them die, and replacing with normal cells.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Oncogene

d)

Polymerase

62.

Mutations can be caused by all of the following except...

a)

UV radiation

b)

global warming

c)

chemical exposure

d)

genetics

63.

A mutation in this gene is like taking your foot off of the brake.

a)

Oncogene

b)

Tumor suppressor gene

64.

A mutation in this gene is like having your foot stuck on the gas pedal.

a)

Oncogene

b)

Tumor suppressor gene

65.

Genes that stimulate the cell cycle in a carefully controlled way are called:

a)

Metastases

b)

Oncogenes

c)

Tumor suppressor genes

d)

Proto-oncogenes

66.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides and correcting errors in the DNA sequence made during DNA replication?

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

67.

What cancer genes regulate the balance between cell division and cell death?

a)

Cell Growth and Survival genes

b)

Cell Fate genes

c)

Genome Maintenance Genes

68.

Which of the following correctly describes angiogenesis?

a)

Growth of blood vessels that provides the tumor with nutrients and oxygen.

b)

Growth of blood vessels that allows tumor cells to pass certain checkpoints in the cell cycle

c)

Growth of blood vessels to bring in more immune cells to the tumor

d)

Movement of cancer cells through the body inducing the production of more red blood cells.

69.

Which of the following best defines an oncogene?

a)

An oncogene codes for a cell cycle control protein.

b)

An oncogene codes for a protein that prevents the cell from undergoing apoptosis.

c)

An oncogene codes for a mutated form of a protein that forms part of a signal transduction pathway

d)

An oncogene is a dominantly expressed mutated gene that gives a cell a growth or survival advantage

70.

Which of the following is characteristic of a malignant rather than a benign tumour?

a)

Develops a blood supply.

b)

Undergoes metastasis.

c)

Cells divide an unlimited number of times.

d)

Grows without needing a growth signal.

71.

Cancer is caused due to

a)

Controlled mitosis

b)

Uncontrolled mitosis

c)

Controlled meiosis

d)

Uncontrolled meiosis

72.

What is defined as programmed cell death?

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Necrosis

c)

Proliferation

d)

Mutation

73.

What term is used to describe a non-planned death of a cell as a result of an environmental event.

a)

Necrosis

b)

Apoptotic

c)

Proliferation

d)

Mutation

74.

The study of changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration of the genetic code itself.

a)

genetics

b)

epigenetics

c)

germine mutations

d)

cancer

75.

Found in the morula, these cells can develop into any cell type including the placenta.

a)

totipotent

b)

pluripotent

c)

blastocyst

d)

oocyte

76.

This type of cell can develop into any body cell except placenta cells.

a)

totipotent

b)

pluripotent

c)

morula

d)

blastocyte

77.

If the DNA from either of the parents contains mutations and passed on to the offspring, this is called?

a)

morula mutations

b)

germline mutations

c)

epigenetic mutation

d)

oocyte mutations

78.

The best-known gene linked to an increased cancer risk is? (check all that apply)

a)

BRCA-1

b)

BRCA-2

c)

P90X

d)

P53

79.

The most common mutation in all types of cancer is associated with what gene? (check all that apply)

a)

BRCA-1

b)

BRCA-2

c)

P90X

d)

P53

80.

BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 mutations correlate with an increased risk of developing what type of cancer? (check all that apply)

a)

breast

b)

pancreatic

c)

ovarian

d)

prostate

e)

lung

81.

When a germline mutation in p53 is present, the individual has what is known as?

a)

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

b)

Fecal Blood Occult Syndrome

c)

Kaposi Sarcoma

d)

Epstein-Barr Virus

82.

What is the greatest risk factor for cancer?

a)

age

b)

weight

c)

disease

d)

pollution

83.

Only one RNA virus is associated with cancer, what is it?

a)

Human T-cell leukemia virus 1 (HTLV-1)

b)

Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)

c)

Kaposi's Sarcoma-Associated Herpesvirus (KSHV)

d)

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

84.

Which virus is associated with Mono (the kissing disease)?

a)

Human T-cell leukemia virus 1 (HTLV-1)

b)

Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)

c)

Kaposi's Sarcoma-Associated Herpesvirus (KSHV)

d)

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

85.

Which virus forms in the lining of blood and lymph vessels?

a)

Human T-cell leukemia virus 1 (HTLV-1)

b)

Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)

c)

Kaposi's Sarcoma-Associated Herpesvirus (KSHV)

d)

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

86.

Which virus can cause cancer through skin to skin contact through sexual activity?

a)

Human T-cell leukemia virus 1 (HTLV-1)

b)

Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)

c)

Kaposi's Sarcoma-Associated Herpesvirus (KSHV)

d)

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

87.

Human T-lymphocyte Virus-1 is linked to which illness?

a)

non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

b)

HIV

c)

Celiac

d)

Lupus Erythematosus

88.

This disease is an autoimmune disease that is associated with a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

a)

non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

b)

HIV

c)

Celiac

d)

Lupus Erythematosus

89.

How many types of cancer are associated with smoking tobacco?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

90.

What is the second leading cause of lung cancer after tobacco smoking?

a)

radon

b)

pollution

c)

asbestos

d)

alcohol