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Reporting Category 1

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which answer choice best describes a community?

a)

praying mantises caring for their young

b)

three-spined sticklebacks living in estuaries

c)

different species of lizards occupying the same niche in a desert

d)

roosting mother bats recognizing their offspring

2.

The human body is composed of organ systems. Which list represents a system organized from least to most complex?

a)

heart --> cardiac muscle --> muscle tissue --> muscle cell

b)

lung tissue --> trachea --> nostrils --> circulatory system

c)

muscle cell --> muscle tissue --> biceps muscle --> muscular system

d)

integumentary system --> skin cell --> hair --> sweat glands

3.

The diagrams show some of the levels of biological organization. In what order are the levels in the diagrams?

a)

population --> community --> ecosystem

b)

organism --> community --> population

c)

organism --> population --> community

d)

ecosystem --> population --> community

4.

Recent studies in bone research indicate that using ultrasound on a broken bone can decrease the healing time by 25%. Which of these are the most basic levels of organization involved when a bone heals?

a)

cells and tissues

b)

cells and organ system

c)

organ system and organism

d)

tissue and organ system

5.

The table shows some observations made by four students during a field trip to a nature area. Which student made observations of a community of organisms?

a)

student 1

b)

student 2

c)

student 3

d)

student 4

6.

A science class is planning a field trip to a local farm that has a large pond. Which of the following lists the order of biological organization from smallest to largest that the students can expect to find at the pond?

a)

organisms, community, population, ecosystem

b)

organism, population, community, ecosystem

c)

population, organism, community, ecosystem

d)

population, organism, ecosystem, community

7.

Which of the following functions at the same organizational level as the kidney in the human excretory system?

a)

skeleton

b)

epithelial tissue

c)

urinary bladder

d)

a squamous cell

8.

A student is studying the ecology of a playa lake, which forms after a rainfall in a dry lake bed. The table lists the organisms that the student observed. Which level of biological organization has the student described in the table?

a)

biosphere

b)

organelle

c)

ecosystem

d)

community

9.

A table of four types of carbohydrates is shown. Which list correctly matches the functions to the types of carbohydrates?

a)

Energy: glycogen and starch

Structure: cellulose and chitin

b)

Energy: cellulose and chitin

Structure: glycogen and starch

c)

Energy: chitin and glycogen

Structure: cellulose and starch

d)

Energy: cellulose and starch

Structure: chitin and glycogen

10.

Transmembrane proteins span the width of cell membranes. Four types of transmembrane proteins are shown in the section of cell membrane. Although these proteins have different specific functions, they all -

a)

stop chemical reactions within the cell

b)

synthesize molecules that signal other cells

c)

help the cell interact with its external environment

d)

remove large waste particles from the cytosplasm of the cell

11.

An advertisement for a health supplement for dogs claims to build lean muscle and strengthen tendons and ligaments, as well as provide energy. Which two biomolecules must the supplement contain to provide these benefits?

a)

carbohydrates and lipids

b)

proteins and carbohydrates

c)

nucleic acids and carbohydrates

d)

lipids and nucleic acids

12.

Two biomolecules are shown. Which of the following best describes these biomolecules?

a)

molecule X and molecule Y are both carbohydrates

b)

molecule X is a nucleic acid, and molecule Y is a carbohydrate

c)

molecule X and molecule Y are both nucleic acids

d)

molecule X is a carbohydrate, and molecule Y is a nucleic acid

13.

Students were given a list of seven elements and asked to identify the four elements that are most abundant in biomolecules. Which table correctly identifies the four most-abundant elements in biomolecules?

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.

Proteins and carbohydrates have many functions in the body of an organism. Specific proteins and carbohydrates perform specific tasks. Information about a protein and a carbohydrate is given below. How are Ferritin and Glycogen similar in their primary functions for an organism?

a)

both store materials needed by the organism

b)

both store energy used by the organism

c)

both support the structure of the organism

d)

both store information for the organism

15.

Four different nucleotides are used as building blocks of DNA. Which of the following can be used to distinguish one nucleotide from another?

a)

the nitrogenous base

b)

the shape of the deoxyribose sugar

c)

the length of the phosphate group

d)

the type of fatty acid

16.

The complex carbohydrates pictured below are made by linking molecules of glucose. In all three complex carbohydrates, the subunits of glucose are bonded together differently. Because they have different structures, they most likely -

a)

contain different chemical elements

b)

form different proteins

c)

carry different nucleotides

d)

perform different functions

17.

A student preparing for a hike wants to pack a snack that has biomolceules that provide quickly available energy but few excess calories. Which nutrition label lists the best combination of biomolecules that provide quickly available energy while providing the fewest calories from other types of biomolecules?

a)
b)
c)
d)
18.

The differences between two molecules include the type of sugar that forms a section of the molecules and the identify of one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up another section of the molecules. These two molecules are -

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

complex carbohydrates

19.

Carbohydrates are more easily metabolized than lipids. However, on a gram-for-gram basis lipids provide cells with more -

a)

nitrogen

b)

proteins

c)

structure

d)

energy

20.

Which of the following biomolecules typically contains both nitrogen and phosphates?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

21.

Proteins and polysaccharides are polymers. These polymers are formed by dehydration synthesis. Which statement correctly identifies a difference in the structure of proteins and polysaccharides?

a)

only polysaccharides are comprised of repeating units of cytosine, adenine, guanine, and thymine

b)

only proteins are formed from amino acids joined by peptide bonds

c)

only polysaccharides can be folded and twisted to very specific shapes

d)

only proteins can be large molecules with thousands of subunits

22.

Which of these best represents a fatty-acid molecule?

a)
b)
c)
d)
23.

Students use a microscope to look for structures present in four different cells. The students placed an X for each structure that was viewed for each cell on the table shown. Which cell that was viewed is most likely a prokaryote?

a)

Cell W

b)

Cell X

c)

Cell Y

d)

Cell Z

24.

A student groups different types of cells as shown. Which table headings should the student use for the two groups?

a)
  1. Animal cells; 2. Plant cells
b)
  1. Prokaryotic cells; 2. Eukaryotic cells
c)
  1. Mobile cells; 2. Motile cells
d)
  1. Fungal cells; 2. Bacterial cells
25.

The picture shows a student using a microscope to study a prepared slide of a single-celled organism. A single-celled organism can be classified as a prokaryote based on the absence of -

a)

a cell membrane

b)

ribosomes

c)

chromosomes

d)

a nucleus

26.

Some students used information they gathered from lab investigations to prepare a table. They entered the table in their lab notebooks. Which of these correctly identifies the two cells described in the table?

a)

Cell 1 is eukaryotic, and Cell 2 is prokaryotic

b)

Cell 1 is prokaryotic, and Cell 2 is eukaryotic

c)

both Cell 1 and Cell 2 are eukaryotic

d)

both Cell 1 and Cell 2 are eukaryotic

27.

Both euglena and cyanobacteria are photosynthetic unicellular organisms found in pond water. The feature that distinguishes euglena from cyanobacteria is the -

a)

ability to maintain homeostasis

b)

presence of ribosomes

c)

ability to reproduce

d)

presence of a nuclear membrane

28.

A type of cellular transport is shown. Which description best identifies this type of cellular transport?

a)

active transport, because energy is being used to move molecules against the concentration gradient

b)

facilitated diffusion, because energy is being used to move molecules with the concentration gradient

c)

osmosis, because energy is not being used to move molecules with the concentration gradient

d)

endocytosis, because energy is not being used to move molecules against the concentration gradient

29.

The diagram shows molecules that a mitochondrion uses to produces during a cellular process. Which other molecule is a product of this process?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

C6H12O6

d)

ATP

30.

In a study of physical endurance, researchers observed significant increases in the heart rates and breathing rates of participants immediately after they engaged in strenuous exercise. Which statement best explains the increase in the heart rate and the breathing rate during exercise?

a)

the water concentration in the blood increases

b)

body cells require increased oxygen as energy is expended

c)

muscle cells increase in temperature and require fluid to reduce the temperature

d)

an increase in muscle activity causes increases in glucose levels in red blood cells

31.

The diagram illustrates the activity of vesicles during a cellular process. Which statement best explains the function of the vesicles?

a)

delivering packaged materials to the Golgi apparatus for protein synthesis

b)

exchanging genetic information between the Golgi apparatuses of separate cells

c)

extracting portions of the Golgi apparatus to be regenerated for growth within the cell

d)

transporting packaged molecules from the Golgi apparatus to be released out of the cell

32.

When mammals get an infection, their internal body temperature often rises 2 to 3 degrees Celsius. The body gets the energy it needs to react to an infection by -

a)

increasing the rate of cellular division

b)

decreasing the rate of glucose movement into the cell

c)

increasing the rate of cellular respiration in mitochondria

d)

decreasing the rate at which carbon dioxide is removed from the cell

33.

Which molecule synthesized by plants is a major source of energy for cellular processes in both plants and animals?

a)

Wax

b)

Nucleic acid

c)

Glucose

d)

Chlorophyll

34.

The picture shows a contractile vacuole of a unicellular freshwater organism. The contractile vacuole regulates the flow of water into and out of the cell in an aquatic environment. What conditions cause the contractile vacuole to fill with water?

a)

the concentration of water is greater outside the cell than inside the cell

b)

the temperature of water in the vacuole is higher than the temperature of its environment

c)

the concentration of water inside the cell is the same as the concentration outside the cell

d)

the temperature of water in the vacuole is lower than the temperature of its environment

35.

In the early 1900's a scientist hypothesized a link between DNA and the production of proteins in the cytoplasm. However, the fact that DNA could not be found outside the nucleus led scientists to believe that another substance was also involved in the synthesis of protein in the cytoplasm. In the 1940's scientists performed an experiment that ultimately identified the site of protein synthesis. They also identified the molecule responsible for transporting information from the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis. What was this newly identified molecule?

a)

a gene

b)

mRNA

c)

ATP

d)

thymine

36.

This diagram shows cellular activity across a cell membrane. Which two processes does this diagram most directly model?

a)

energy conversions and synthesis of new molecules

b)

synthesis of new molecules and homeostasis

c)

transport of molecules and energy conversions

d)

homeostasis and transport of molecules

37.

Cells can generate as many as 36 to 38 molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from the metabolism of one molecule of glucose. Which cellular process results in this amount of ATP production?

a)

anaerobic cellular respiration

b)

protein synthesis

c)

aerobic cellular respiration

d)

photosynthesis

38.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

the cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell

b)

the cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink

c)

the cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell

d)

the cell membrane removes solutes from the environment

39.

Which group of organelles is directly responsible for the production of new molecules within a cell?

a)

ribosomes, the endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatuses

b)

Golgi apparatuses, lysosomes, and the plasma membrane

c)

the endoplasmic reticulum, plastids, and vacuoles

d)

the nucleolus, vacuoles, and ribosomes

40.

The cellular process known as the sodium-potassium pump was discovered int he 1950's by Jens Christian Skou, a Danish scientist: This process is a form of active transport that moves three sodium ions to the outside of a cell for every two potassium ions that it moves into the cell. Which of these best explains why energy is needed for active transport?

a)

ions are negatively charged

b)

ions are attached to large proteins

c)

ions are trapped inside the plasma membrane

d)

ions are moved against the concentration gradient

41.

Which of these statements best explains the process of energy conversions that takes place in the mitochondria?

a)

energy is required for carbon dioxide molecules to form six-carbon sugar molecules

b)

water molecules and radiant energy are necessary for anaerobic respiration to take place

c)

oxygen molecules release energy in the form of heat during combustion reactions

d)

the energy in the bonds of glucose molecules is transferred to the phosphate bonds in ATP

42.

Which cellular process takes place in the ribosomes that are bound to the endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

the breakdown of waste material

b)

the conversion of radiant energy to glucose

c)

the synthesis of new proteins

d)

the replication of nucleic acids

43.

Which statement accurately describes the energy needs for photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

solar energy is needed for cellular respiration but not for photosynthesis

b)

chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for both cellular respiration and photosynthesis

c)

chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for photosynthesis, and solar energy is needed for cellular respiration

d)

solar energy is needed for photosynthesis, and chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for cellular respiration

44.

Which statement explains how producers are dependent upon consumers for their survival?

a)

consumers supply oxygen for producers to undergo aerobic respiration

b)

consumers produce carbon dioxide for producers to use during photosynthesis

c)

consumers provide chemical energy needed by producers for cellular respiration

d)

consumers make lactic acid that producers use in photosynthesis

45.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both involve the use and release of gases. Which statement correctly identifies the role of gases in the two processes?

a)

photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use carbon dioxide and release oxygen

b)

photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use oxygen and release carbon dioxide

c)

cellular respiration used oxygen and releases carbon dioxide, while photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen

d)

cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide

46.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

the products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy

b)

the products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells

c)

the products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

d)

the products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light

47.

Diatoms are one of the most common types of phytoplankton in marine habitats. Like plants, diatoms contain chlorophyll and produce glucose from which of the following?

a)

O2 and ATP

b)

CO2 and O2

c)

ATP and H2O

d)

CO2 and H2O

48.

Most plant leaves take in more carbon dioxide as light increases. They give off carbon dioxide if light intensity is too low. The graph shows a plant's carbon dioxide levels at different light intensities. At point X, the rate of which process is equal to the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

cellular respiration

b)

transpiration

c)

growth

d)

reproduction

49.

Which of the following correctly describes how a diagram of cellular respiration would differ from a diagram of photosynthesis?

a)

the cellular-respiration diagram would show electromagnetic waves as the final product

b)

the cellular-respiration diagram would show glucose as the main source of energy

c)

the cellular-respiration diagram would show energy stored in large protein molecules

d)

the cellular-respiration diagram would show water as the main source of chemical energy

50.

Enzymes are proteins that have a three-dimensional shape that is specific to a particular substrate. Environmental conditions can change the shape of the protein. What is the most likely result if the shape of the enzyme changes?

a)

the substrate will change its shape to match the enzyme

b)

the enzyme will no longer be able to catalyze the reaction with the substrate

c)

the products made from the enzyme and the substrate will be changed

d)

the enzyme will be able to bind to more diverse substrates than before

51.

The graphs show the reaction rate for an enzyme across a range of temperatures and pH. Based on these data, the enzyme functions best at what temperature and pH?

a)

temperature of 27 degrees C and pH of 4

b)

temperature of 37 degrees C and pH of 6

c)

temperature of 40 degrees C and pH of 8

d)

temperature of 50 degrees C and pH of 10

52.

Taq polymerase is an enzyme used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to replicate fragments of DNA. A study published in 1976 examined the properties of Taq polymerase after the enzyme was isolated from Thermus aquaticus, a thermophilic bacterium that lives in the hot springs of Yellowstone National Park. The graph shows one of the results of the study. Which statement about enzyme activity is best supported by this graph?

a)

an enzyme must be composed of multiple polypeptides, or subunits, to be active

b)

an enzyme's rate of activity increases with time until it becomes active

c)

an enzyme functions best under specific temperature conditions

d)

an enzyme works equally well in bacteria that are adapted to high temperatures and in eukaryotic cells such as human cells

53.

Some foods that are rich in complex carbohydrates can be difficult to digest. Gas often forms as the foods are slowly digested by bacteria in the large intestine. The advertisement is for a nutritional supplement that prevents intestinal gas. Which of the following represents evidence that could be used to support the claims about this product?

a)

Complex carbohydrates are found in vegetables and grains, which are good sources of fiber, vitamins, antioxidants, and minerals. Vegetables and grains are known to reduce the risk of heart disease.

b)

Some nutritional supplements provide vitamins and minerals that are missing from a person's diet. These types of nutritional supplements contain important nutrients that reduce the risk of malnutrition.

c)

Consuming enzymes specific for carbohydrate digestion helps the body digest complex carbohydrates more quickly in the stomach and small intestine.

d)

Some nutritional supplements add beneficial bacteria to a person's diet. These bacteria populate the stomach and prevent carbohydrate digestion.

54.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

a substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme

b)

the enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells

c)

the enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes

d)

a substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme

55.

People who have Alzheimer's disease experience an increasing loss of brain function and cognition over time. Alzheimer's is characterized by a buildup of abnormal protein fragments that damage brain cells. Recently scientists have discovered an enzyme, BACE2, that decreases these abnormal protein fragments in the brain of a person with Alzheimer's disease. Which statement explains how BACE2 most likely works?

a)

BACE2 breaks down into smaller pieces that react with the abnormal protein fragments, forming more complex molecules

b)

BACE2 speeds up the reaction that breaks down the abnormal protein fragments

c)

BACE2 molecules link several abnormal protein fragments together forming a complete protein

d)

BACE2 is a reactant that combines with the abnormal protein fragments

56.

Fireflies emit light. The production of light by an organism is called bioluminescence. To generate visible light, cells in a firefly's tail produce thousands of luciferase enzymes. Luciferase binds to a chemical called luciferin. Once bound, the luciferase enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction that combines an oxygen molecule and luciferin to produce oxyluciferin. This reaction requires energy and releases light. Which of the following best describes how the luciferase enzyme speeds up the chemical reaction?

a)

Luciferase increases the amount of time the light is visible

b)

Luciferase decreases the amount of energy required for the reaction to start

c)

Luciferase increases the number of sites on luciferin that must bind to oxygen

d)

Luciferase decreases the temperature of the environment inside the body of the firefly

57.

Lactose is found in milk products. It is converted by the body into a usable form in a species of chemical reactions. The diagram shows the series of reactions that convert lactose into a usable form. If Enzyme 2 is denatured, the levels of which substance will increase?

a)

Lactose

b)

Galactose

c)

Galactose-1-phosphate

d)

Glucose-6-phosphate

58.

Pepsin and trypsin are two of the digestive enzymes that break down protein. A group of students studied the pH requirements of these enzymes. The graph below shows the results. The students found that pepsin functions best in an acid environment and trypsin functions best in a neutral environment. Based on their observations, pepsin most likely aids in digestion in which part of the human body?

a)

pancreas

b)

intestines

c)

mouth

d)

stomach

59.

Enzymes are proteins that help increase the rate of chemical reactions inside cells. These proteins are composed of many simpler molecules called amino acids. Which of the following suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the enzymes's function?

a)

enzymes are specific to a substrate

b)

enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions

c)

enzymes are activated by neighboring molecules

d)

enzymes can be found in all life-forms

60.

A student produces a labeled drawing of a virus for a presentation. The student states that the capsid has a function similar to the nuclear membrane found in animal cells. Which of these describe the similar functions of capsids and nuclear membranes?

a)

both transport proteins throughout the structures

b)

both provide energy for activities in the structures

c)

both protect genetic information for the structures

d)

both code for the proteins needed for reproduction of the structures

61.

In 1898 Fredrich Loeffler and Paul Frosch found evidence that the cause of a highly contagious hoof-and-mouth disease in livestock was a microscopic infectious particle. It was discovered that this particle requires a host cell to reproduce. Which pathogen is most likely responsible for causing hoof-and-mouth disease in livestock?

a)

a bacterium, because it is contagious

b)

a fungus, because it infects livestock

c)

a protist, because it is microscopic

d)

a virus, because it requires a host cell to reproduce

62.

In the 1880's, Louis Pasteur developed a method of weakening viruses. The weakened viruses could be injected into healthy individuals. How is this method effective in fighting viral diseases?

a)

the immune system develops antibodies in response to the weakened viruses

b)

the weakened viruses attach to unaffected viruses in the host and interrupt the viral reproductive cycle

c)

the rate of genetic mutation in the host is decreased due to the introduction of weakened viruses

d)

weakened viruses are unable to enter the host organism

63.

Which of these describes a difference between viruses and cells?

a)

cells contain protein, and viruses contain only carbohydrates

b)

viruses have flagella, and cells have only cilia

c)

cells reproduce independently, and viruses require a host to reproduce

d)

viruses have membranes made of proteins, and cells have membranes made of nucleic acid

64.

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) often infects and destroys CD4 T cells. Thes CD4 T cells are one of many kinds of white blood cells that are an important part of the immune system. The most common danger related to the destruction of CD4 T cells is -

a)

an increase in the risk of high blood pressure

b)

an increase in the threat of diseases caused by microorganisms and viruses

c)

a decrease in the flow of blood to vital organs

d)

a decrease in the amount of oxygen being transported to tissues

65.

Viruses can be transmitted through air, water, food, insect bites, and direct skin contact. Once a virus gains entry to the body, it invades a host cell in order to -

a)

deactivate the host cell's defenses

b)

synthesize antibodies for defense

c)

metabolize host proteins and grow

d)

access cellular processes for replication

66.

The 1918 influenza epidemic killed between 50 million and 100 million people worldwide. This epidemic happened near the end of World War I. More people died from the influenza epidemic than were killed in the war. Which of the following explains why this virus was so deadly worldwide?

a)

infected soldiers returning from the war spread the virus when they coughed

b)

food was scarce because of the war, so people were undernourished, and their immune systems were weakened

c)

medical personnel often became ill as a result of exposure to airborne virus particles

d)

all of the above

67.

The picture shows a 3-D model of a virus called a bacteriophage. Bacteriophages can infect bacteria such as E. coli. In what way are bacteriophage and E. coli alike?

a)

they contain antibodies

b)

they reproduce by mitosis

c)

they have identical genomes

d)

they lack membrane-bound organelles

68.

Models of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and an animal cell are shown below. What is the difference in the function of the glycoprotein structures of an HIV virion and the cilia of an animal cell?

a)

the glycoprotein structures are used for attachment, and the cilia are used to move fluids surrounding the cell

b)

the glycoprotein structures are used to obtain nutrition, and the cilia are used to secrete proteins

c)

the glycoprotein structures are used to provide physical support for the viral envelope, and the cilia strengthen the cell membrane

d)

the glycoprotein structures are used for defense, and the cilia are used for locomotion

69.

H1N1 flu is a highly contagious viral infection caused by the influenza A (H1N1) virus. The symptoms of H1N1 flu are listed in the box. An antiviral agent administered within 48 hours of the appearance of symptoms can reduce the severity of the illness. Why is it important to administer an intiviral agent to an infected person within 48 hours of the appearance of symptoms?

a)

the H1N1 virus is dominant in cells

b)

the H1N1 virus replicates quickly

c)

the H1N1 virus does not mutate

d)

the H1N1 virus is transmitted through a vector host, such as a mosquito

70.

A person infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may not have any symptoms for a period of time. During this period the virus affects the body by doing which of the following?

a)

the virus produces toxins that weaken immune cells and prevent them from reproducing

b)

the virus damages immune cells while using their machinery to produce copies of itself

c)

the virus uses nutrients meant for immune cells to fuel its own cellular respiration

d)

the virus changes the identity of the nucleotides of immune cells to prevent the immune system from functioning normally

71.

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is an illness caused by a coronavirus. Symptoms including a high fever, headaches, and body aches typically occur two to seven days after infection by the virus. SARS is more serious in elderly patients. This information suggests that the reproductive cycle of the SARS virus is -

a)

lysogenic, because the virus is a coronavirus

b)

lytic, because the virus causes respiratory illness

c)

lysogenic, because the virus primarily affects older people

d)

lytic, because of the quick onset of symptoms after infection

72.

A photograph of a virus is shown. The projections on the surface of this virus allow the virus to -

a)

move inside a host cell

b)

attach to a host cell

c)

control a host cell's DNA

d)

signal other viruses to infect a host cell

73.

Cold sores are caused by the herpes simplex virus type 1. A company that wants to develop antiviral drugs would ask a research immunologist to study -

a)

the mechanisms used by the virus to infect cells

b)

how closely related the virus is to cold viruses

c)

the metabolism of the virus

d)

meiosis in the virus

74.

The karyotype, or chromosomal profile, for humans is shown. A karyotype can be used to investigate genetic disorders. The chemical colchicine is used in the production of karyotypes. Colchicine prevents spindle fibers from forming during the cell cycle. What is a result of preventing spindle fivers from forming?

a)

the cell cycle skips G0 phase and repeats G1 phase

b)

mitotic division is skipped, and the cell cycle proceeds to cytokinesis

c)

mitotic division stops in metaphase and cannot proceed to anaphase

d)

the cell cycle skips S phase and proceeds to G2

75.

Which table shows two steps of DNA replication?

a)
b)
c)
d)
76.

The activities in the cell cycle occur during specific phases. In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

mitosis

b)

G1 phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

S phase

77.

This model of the cell cycle includes two arrows that each represent a process in the cycle. What do the two arrows represent?

a)

arrow 1 represents prophase, and arrow 2 represents interphase

b)

arrow 1 represents mitosis, and arrow 2 represents meiosis

c)

arrow 1 represents interphase, and arrow 2 represents mitosis

d)

arrow 1 represents meiosis, and arrow 2 represents prophase

78.

Part of the cell cycle is shown in this simplified model. This part of the cell cycle is best described as the process that -

a)

duplicates the DNA

b)

completes cell division

c)

maintains genetic homeostasis

d)

synthesizes new molecules

79.

People who have leukemia, a cancer that affects white blood cells, are often given Cytarabine. This drug inhibits the synthesis of DNA. Which phase of the cell cycle is most affected by Cytarabine?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

80.

The diagram shows cells in different phases of mitosis. A student is trying to find a cell in a particular phase of mitosis. The student is looking for evidence that spindle fibers are separating the chromosomes to ensure that each new nucleus has one copy of each chromosome. Which cell is in the phase of mitosis that the student is searching for?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

81.

Cells pass through a G2 checkpoint before entering mitosis. Ideally, if DNA damage is detected, the cells do not enter mitosis until the damage is repaired. Why is DNA damage repaired before cells enter mitosis?

a)

so that another round of DNA synthesis does not have to take place

b)

so that the chromosomes can align at the metaphase plate during mitosis

c)

so that cytoplasm can be divided equally between the two daughter cells

d)

so that healthy daughter cells are produced, allowing the organism to continue growing

82.

The model represents the change in the DNA content of a cell during the cell cycle. Which part of the model represents the S phase?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

83.

Scientists can bioengineer skin in a laboratory to treat severe burns and other types of skin injuries. This bioengineered tissue is grown from living cells. The cellular process that enables the cells to grow and develop into tissue is?

a)

conjugation

b)

meiosis

c)

budding

d)

mitosis

84.

Checkpoints occur between the stages of the cell cycle. If a cell does not meet certain criteria at the end of a stage, it will not move to the next stage. Which of these occurs just before the cell inters the G2 stage of the cell cycle?

a)

the nuclear membrane disintegrates

b)

DNA replicates

c)

centrioles form

d)

the nucleolus divides

85.

Telophase is a stage of a cellular process that begins after the chromosomes have moved to opposite poles of the cell. During which cellular process does telophase occur?

a)

translation

b)

interphase

c)

transcription

d)

mitosis

86.

A phtomicrograph of onion root tip cells during mitosis is shown. Which phase of mitosis is occurring in the cell indicated by the arrow?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

87.

Which of these must occur during S phase of the cell cycle so that two daughter cells can be produced during M phase?

a)

the DNA must be replicated

b)

the chromosomes must be joined

c)

the cytoplasm must be separated

d)

the cell membrane must be expanded

88.

The diagram shows how specialized body cells can develop. Which of the following best explains why cells that contain the same genetic material do not develop into the same types of cells?

a)

because internal or external stimuli can trigger the activation of specific genes in the DNA of cells

b)

because random mutations can occur in the DNA of cells during early embryonic development

c)

because messenger RNA is converted to transfer RNA when cell differentiation begins

d)

because chemical signals that are released during the cell cycle can result in the linking of similar genes

89.

What is the role of mRNA in expressing specialized structures?

a)

making energy available for cellular activities

b)

creating bonds to form biomolecules

c)

producing sugars that assist with replication

d)

providing information to form proteins

90.

From a single fertilized ovum undergoing a series of rapid cell divisions, a human infant develops. The embryonic cells become specialized for a variety of functions. Which of these statements best describes how different cell types develop?

a)

each cell type contains only the active parts of the DNA needed for that cell type

b)

each cell type has only one chromosome containing the DNA needed for that cell type

c)

each cell has an identical copy of DNA with enzymes controlling the expression of specific genes, leading to a variety of cells

d)

each cell has multiple copies of DNA that are affected in different ways by the environment to change the function of the cell at regular intervals

91.

As a fertilized egg divides, the cells differentiate because they -

a)

contain a lipid bilayer

b)

can clump together

c)

metabolize sugars rapidly

d)

have specific genes activated

92.

Researchers Robert Briggs and Thomas King used ultraviolet radiation to destroy the nuclear DNA of frog eggs. Nuclei from adult skin cells and from tadpole-gut epithelial cells were cultured and then injected into eggs that had their nuclei destroyed. The results were tadpoles. Which conclusion is supported by the data from this investigation?

a)

the DNA information for development was silenced in differentiated cells

b)

the transplanted DNA functioned as the original nuclear DNA of the egg cell would have

c)

the DNA from skin cells and epithelial cells was not transcribed

d)

the transplanted DNA mutated during culturing

93.

Cell differentiation is critical during embryonic development. The process of cell differentiation results in the production of many types of cells, including germ, somatic, and stem cells. Cell differentiation is most directly regulated by -

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

Lipids

d)

Sugars

94.

When cells lose their ability to regulate the cell cycle, they can divide at an accelerated rate and form a mass of cells. This mass of cells is referred to as -

a)

a tumor

b)

an embryo

c)

a gland

d)

an organ

95.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does they presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumor?

a)

ATP production is inhibited

b)

Cell division is unregulated

c)

Somatic cell growth is inhibited

d)

Antibody activity is unregulated

96.

Cells typically respond to DNA damage in three ways: by ceasing to grow and divide until the damage is repaired, by permanently ceasing to grow and divide, or by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists reported that a certain kind of immune reaction can cause DNA damage that leads to a fourth response. DNA damage can turn off genes involved in cell-signaling pathways. Turning off these genes can cause less-mature cells to divide too rapidly, often leading to the development of -

a)

tumors

b)

allergies

c)

hemophilia

d)

cardiovascular disease

97.

Atherosclerosis is a disease that obstruct blood flow and, therefore, oxygen supply to target organs. A major component of atherosclerosis is the excessive reproduction of smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels. Certain drugs may have the potential to reverse or prevent the unregulated reproduction of the diseased blood-vessel cells. Which of these processes is the most likely target of these drugs?

a)

cell division

b)

erythoblast differentiation

c)

DNA transcription

d)

cellular respiration

98.

The diagram represents the cell cycle. When cells have the cell cycle, they exit during G1 phase and then enter G0 phase, a resting period. Most normal cells can leave G0 phase and reenter the cell cycle at G1 phase before entering S phase. Cancer cells are different because they cannot enter G0 phase and are likely to do which of the following?

a)

fail to complete S phase

b)

mutate during G1 phase

c)

repeat the cell cycle continuously

d)

die after completing mitosis