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Biology A Exam Review

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 9hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In DNA, cytosine always pairs with

a)

guanine

b)

uracil

c)

thymine

d)

adenine

2.

A gene is_______________________.

a)

located only in sex cells

b)

a whole chromosome

c)

a section of DNA that codes for a trait

d)

not expressed in the dominant form

3.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

Segregation of sister chromatids

b)

Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

c)

Crossing over in which alleles are exchanged

d)

Condensation and segregation of alleles

4.

What happens to the chromosome number during meiosis?

a)

doubles

b)

halves

c)

stays the same

d)

becomes diploid

5.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
6.
1. ___ combine to form DNA.
2. ___ combine to form proteins.
a)
1. amino acids
2. nucleotides
b)
1. sugars
2. amino acids
c)
1. nucleotides
2. amino acids
d)
1. lipids
2. nucleotides
7.
What amino acid is represented by the codon AUG?
a)
Aspartic Acid
b)
Histidine
c)
Glutamine
d)
Methionine
8.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
9.
Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication 
10.
The central dogma states that information flows from
a)
RNA to DNA to polysaccharide
b)
DNA to RNA to proteins
c)
RNA to DNA to proteins
d)
DNA to polysaccharides to RNA
11.
I include the bases guanine, cytosine, and adenine.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
12.

A change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA

a)

is a mutation

b)

always makes the gene worse

c)

always improves the gene

d)

always shortens the protein

13.

A change in one nucleotide to another is known as a/n

a)

frameshift mutation

b)

missense mutation

c)

somatic mutation

d)

point mutation

14.

What shape best describes DNA?

a)

helix

b)

double helix

c)

triple helix

d)

circular

15.
Proteins are made up what kind of monomer?
a)
Sugars
b)
Amino Acids
c)
Enzymes
d)
Substrates
16.
What is the use/function of carbohydrates?
a)
transmit genetic information 
b)
source of energy 
c)
to make proteins
d)
to build body structures 
17.
What is the use/function of lipids? 
a)
transmit genetic information
b)
make carbohydrates
c)
store energy, insulation 
d)
builds DNA 
18.
Which is an example of a nucleic acid?
a)
sucrose & lactose 
b)
hormones & antibodies 
c)
DNA & RNA
d)
steroids 
19.
How many alleles (letters) does a child get from each parent for each trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
20.
Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
a)
Bb
b)
BB
c)
bb
d)
B
21.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
22.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
23.
Crossing over helps promote 
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
24.

A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its gametes. How many would be present in its somatic cells?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

80

d)

160

25.
Each identical side of a chromosome is the 
a)
centromere
b)
chromatin
c)
centriole
d)
chromatid
26.
The visual representation of an individual's chromosomes is a 
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
karyotype
d)
stereotype
27.
Why is the gene for a disease or disorder more likely to be found on the X chromosome than Y?
a)
The X chromosome has many more genes
b)
The Y chromosome has many more genes
28.
Males are more likely to suffer from a sex-linked disease or disorder because
a)
males are the weaker sex
b)
males have less DNA
c)
males have 1 X chromosome, so the disorder is more likely to be expressed
29.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
30.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
31.
Based on the following Punnett square, what percentage of the offspring will have this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
32.
Colorblindness is a recessive X-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with normal vision?
a)
XNYN
b)
XnYn
c)
XNY
d)
XnY
33.

Bob is blood Type B and Hilda is Type A, their son Barry is Type O. What are the only possible genotypes of Bob and Hilda?

a)

Bob: IBi

Hilda: IAi

b)

Bob: IBi

Hilda: IAIA

c)

Bob: IBIB

Hilda: IAi

d)

Bob: IBIA

Hilda: IAi

34.
In a dihybrid cross
a)
one trait is crossed.
b)
two traits are crossed.
c)
four boxes are needed for the punnett square.
d)
mom's alleles are dominant.
35.

parent 1: GgBB

parent 2: ggBb

Find the gametes for parent 2.

a)

GB, GB, gB, gB

b)

gB, gb, gB, gb

c)

Gg, BB, GB, GB

d)

gg, Bb, gB, gb

36.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
37.

What goes in box 3

a)

Aabb

b)

AABB

c)

AAbb

d)

aaBb

38.
Your body shivers when you are cold. This is because of the concept of...
a)
homeostasis
b)
heredity
c)
energy metabolism
d)
cellular organization
39.

Living things are made up of units called

a)

DNA

b)

Cells

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Seeds

40.

The combination of chemical reactions through

which an organism builds up or breaks down

materials as it carries out its life processes is called ...

a)

absorption

b)

metabolism

c)

digestion

d)

consumption

41.
What is being represented by the letter A in the image?
a)
Substrate
b)
Enzyme
c)
Product
d)
Complex
42.
If an enzyme becomes over heated what effect, if any, will the heat have on the enzymatic activity? 
a)
The enzyme will not store much chemical energy.
b)
The enzyme will not be able to catalyze reactions.
c)
The enzyme will lose its net electrical charge.
d)
The enzyme will lose stored genetic information.
43.
Which of the following is not a base found in DNA?
a)
adenine
b)
thymine
c)
cytosine
d)
uracil
44.
What part of a nucleotide accounts for the genetic variation between individuals?
a)
phosphate
b)
nitrogenous base
c)
deoxyribose
d)
sugar
45.
If a segment of double-stranded DNA has 40 percent A, how much of it is C?
a)
40
b)
10
c)
15
d)
20
46.
If one strand of DNA has the sequence TTACCG, the sequence of the other strand of the same molecule will be
a)
AATGGC
b)
TTACCG
c)
AACGGC
d)
AATGGG
47.
Once replication in a DNA molecule is complete, each new DNA molecule contains 
a)
two new strands.
b)
3 exact copies of strands.
c)
one new strand and one old.
d)
two old strands.
48.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
49.
What will be the resulting mRNA from this DNA sequence:
GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?
a)
CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA
b)
GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT
c)
CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA
d)
CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG
50.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
51.
Every three letters (example: ATC) in DNA codes for what??
a)
Amino Acid
b)
Nucleotide
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
52.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that RNA....
a)
is double stranded 
b)
contains the base Thymine
c)
contains the base Uracil 
d)
contained the base Guanine
53.
Transcribe the following piece of DNA:
ATCGTA
a)
UAGCAU
b)
TAGCAT
c)
ATCGTA
d)
AUCGUA
54.
Which amino acid is made from the RNA codon GUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Leucine
c)
Serine
d)
Valine
55.
What is the correct sequence?
a)
RNA --> DNA --> Protein
b)
Protein --> RNA --> DNA
c)
DNA --> RNA --> Protein
d)
DNA --> Protein --> RNA
56.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA  ACT
a)
4
b)
3
c)
6
d)
2
57.

How many nitrogen bases (letters) code for 3 amino acids?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

27

58.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
59.
How many daughter cells are produced from meiosis ?
a)
10
b)
6
c)
4
d)
2
60.
Most of the cells in the human body are produced by
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
61.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
62.

A cat has a total of 38 chromosomes in its somatic cells. How many in its gametes?

a)

38

b)

19

c)

76

d)

10

63.
Mitosis is used for these types of cells
a)
somatic cells
b)
sex cells
c)
sperm
d)
egg
64.
Meiosis is the process of cell division for making more...
a)
somatic (body cells)
b)
egg and sperm cells
c)
skin cells
d)
brain cells
65.
How many cells are produced at the end of mitosis?  At the end of meiosis?
a)
2, 4
b)
4,4
c)
4,2
d)
2,2
66.
Which of the following is NOT a gamete?
a)
egg
b)
sperm
c)
skin cell
d)
all of the above are gametes
67.
How many nuclear divisions does mitosis and meiosis process go through?
a)
1;2
b)
1;1
c)
2;1
d)
2;2
68.
The haploid number is 60, so that means the diploid number is 
a)
60
b)
30
c)
120
d)
15
69.
The diploid number is 90, so that means the haploid number is 
a)
90
b)
180
c)
45
d)
60
70.

Which of the following is NOT a source of genetic diversity?

a)

mutation

b)

segregation of homologs

c)

independent assortment of homologous pairs

d)

mitosis

71.
Independent assortment contributes to genetic diversity. When does independent assortment occur?
a)
Prophase I
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Anaphase I
d)
Prophase II
72.

In the figure above, the image is best described as:

a)

independent assortment

b)

sister chromatids

c)

tetrads

d)

crossing over

73.
The exchange of genetic material at the beginning of meiosis
a)
Independent Assortment
b)
Segregation
c)
Fertilization
d)
Crossing Over
74.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
CAT TCA CTG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
75.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
76.
The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in
a)
none of these
b)
Two DNA molecules.  One original molecule and one with two new strands
c)
two exact copies with new strands
d)
two identical molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new.
77.
The DNA nucleotide is composed of three parts. Which two components make up the nucleotide backbone?
a)
ribose sugar and base
b)
ribose sugar and phosphate group
c)
nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group
78.
After analyzing a sample of DNA, a scientist recorded the data shown in the table. What percentage of the DNA sample is cytosine?
a)
22%
b)
25%
c)
28%
d)
56%
79.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
80.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
81.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
82.

Identify the Mutation:

Normal-

GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA

Mutant

GAG CTC-CAC-AGA

a)

no mutation

b)

substitution

c)

insertion

d)

deletion

83.
Would a mutation in the DNA of a skin cell be passed on to an organism's offspring?
a)
Yes, because any change to the DNA is passed on to the offspring
b)
Maybe. Sex cells only use half of the body's genetic code. It might get the copy of a gene that wasn't mutated.
c)
No. Only mutations that occur in the gametes (sex cells) are passed on to the offspring
d)
Without knowing the animal, it would be hard to tell whether or not the mutation would be passed on.
84.

Which change below would result in a different Amino Acid?

GCT

a)

GTT

b)

TCT

c)

TCC

d)

GCA

85.

Which of these is true?

a)

RNA is a single strand, DNA is a double strand

b)

RNA is a double strand, DNA is a single strand

c)

RNA and DNA are both single strands

d)

RNA and DNA are both double strands

86.

A mutation in which only one nucleotide is altered is called a:

a)

Frameshift Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Point Mutation

d)

Insertion Mutation

87.
Which model of base pairing is correct?
a)
A=T and C=G
b)
A=T=C=G
c)
A+T and G+C
d)
A=G and T=C
88.

A roan cow shows co-dominance in fur color (red & white). What is the phenotype ratio expected if a roan cow and a roan steer mate together?

a)

100% Roan

b)

1:1 Red:White

c)

1:1 Red:Roan

d)

1:2:1 White:Roan:Red

e)

1:1 White:Roan

89.

If a trait SKIPS a generation, it is an indication that the trait is....

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

it is hard to tell

d)

co-dominant

90.

If a trait is more likely to appear in one sex over the other......

a)

the trait is probably sex-linked.

b)

the trait is probably autosomal.

c)

the trait is probably co-dominant

d)

the trait if probably incompletely dominant

91.
A plant shows incomplete dominance in size. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a medium plant (Tt). What percentage of plant offspring will be tall?
a)
100 %
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
92.
What is the chance of two parents with blood types AB and O producing an offspring with blood type O?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
93.
The pattern of DNA fragments obtained by examining a person's unique sequence of DNA base pairs is?
a)
PCR
b)
Chromosome
c)
Electrophoresis
d)
DNA Fingerprinting
94.
Huntington’s disease is caused by an autosomal dominant allele. Cross a homozygous recessive with a homozygous dominant. H=has Huntington’s disease, h=normal. What are the chances of a child with the disease? 
a)
1 out of 4 or 25%
b)
2 out of 4 or 50%
c)
3 out of 4 or 75%
d)
4 out of 4 or 100%
95.
A boy moves to another country to live with his father.  Years later, the boy decides to move back to live with the woman who raised him.  Immigration officials suspected that the boy was the woman’s nephew, not her son, and therefore not legally entitled to residency.  Based on the DNA fragments, is it possible that she is the boy’s mother?
a)
Yes
b)
No
96.
Mr. Jones was killed in a car accident.  Afterwards, a former girlfriend filed a paternity suit claiming that Mr. Jones was the father of her child, and thus she was entitled to the man’s estate.  Which sample of DNA would have to be from Mr. Jones if he were the child’s father? 
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
97.
What is the relationship between this child and parents?
a)
Biological to mom
b)
Biological to dad
c)
Biological to both
d)
Biological to neither
98.
DNA fingerprinting works because
a)
Most genes are dominant
b)
All organisms contain RNA
c)
The most important genes are different among most people
d)
No two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA 
99.
DNA is recovered from a suspected dead soldier.  Which Parents are the likely parents of the soldier?
a)
Parents C and D
b)
Parents E and F
c)
Parents A and B
d)
Parents G and H
100.

I have started studying for my biology exam before class today.

a)

True

b)

False

101.
What is one of the reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
energy
b)
glucose
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water
102.
______________ produces the most ATP.
a)
photosnthesis
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
anaerobic respiration
d)
glycolysis
103.
Where does aerobic respiration take place?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
104.
Which type of respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
105.
Which type of respiration occurs without the presence of oxygen?
a)
Aerobic 
b)
Anaerobic 
106.
What are the two reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
C6H12O6 & 6CO2
b)
6 CO2 & 6H2O
c)
C6H12O6 & 6O2
d)
6CO2 & 6O2
107.
The process of cellular respiration 
a)
is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis
b)
is performed by autotrophs and heterotrophs
c)
occurs before plants are able to carry out photosynthesis
d)
occurs only in animals
108.

Which organelle is responsible making food (Glucose) using sunlight?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

109.

Plants need ________ to conduct photosynthesis

a)

Oxygen

b)

Soil

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Sugar

110.
What are the products of photosynthesis (what is made)?
a)
Glucose and Chlorophyll
b)
Glucose and Oxygen
c)
Water and Light
d)
Carbon dioxide and Water
111.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
carbon dioxide + water --> oxygen + glucose
b)
carbon dioxide + glucose + water --> oxygen 
c)
oxygen + water --> carbon dioxide + glucose
d)
glucose+ oxygen ---> water + carbon dioxide 
112.
Most plants appear green because chlorophyll
a)
absorbs green light.
b)
absorbs violet light.
c)
does not absorb green light.
d)
does not absorb violet light.
113.

Where does all of the energy on the Earth originally come from?

a)

glucose

b)

soil

c)

consumers

d)

the sun

114.

Decreasing the amount of light a plant receives will

a)

Increase the amount of CO2 used

b)

Decrease the amount of glucose produced

c)

Increase the amount of O2 produced

d)

Increase the amount of water needed

115.

Two plants are tested in an experiment. One receives white light for 8 hours daily while the other receives green light for 8 hours daily. Which hypothesis will most likely be supported?

a)

The plant in green light will produce more glucose and grow more because plants are green.

b)

The plant in white light will produce less oxygen because it does not have enough nutrients in the soil.

c)

The plant in green light will produce less glucose and grow less because green light is reflected, not absorbed by the plant.

d)

The plant in white light will use less water because it is only receiving 8 hours of light.

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