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8th grade-1st Semester Exam

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Offspring from parents with different forms of the same trait are called____________________.

a)

true breeding

b)

recessive

c)

hybrids

d)

dominant

2.

The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called ____________________.

a)

hybrids

b)

heredity

c)

cross pollination

d)

pure breeding

3.

A genetic factor that blocks another genetic factor is _____________________________.

a)

hybrid

b)

true breeding

c)

recessive

d)

dominant

4.

A genetic factor that is blocked by the presence of a dominant factor is called __________________.

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

hybrids

d)

heredity

5.

Plants that always produce the same traits as their parent when they are self-pollinated are ____________________ plants.

a)

true breeding

b)

hybrids

c)

cross pollinated

d)

hybrids

6.

When pollen from one plant reaches the pistil of a flower on a different plant, _________________ occurs.

a)

true breeding

b)

cross pollination

c)

dominant traits

d)

recessive traits

7.

When pollen from one plant lands on the pistil of a flower on the same plant, ____________________ occurs.

a)

recessive traits

b)

dominant traits

c)

cross pollination

d)

self pollination

8.

Why did Mendel use cross pollination in his experiments?

a)

Mendel wanted to select specific traits to study

b)

Mendel wanted to let the pea plants cross pollinate

c)

Mendel wanted to be able to control how the plants were pollinated

d)

Mendel wanted to study all the different traits at one time.

9.

What are examples of conclusions Mendel reached about inherited traits after completing his experiments with pea plants?

a)

two factors control each inherited trait

b)

when organism reproduce, each sperm and egg contributes one factor for each trait

c)

some inherited factors can block others

d)

that inherited traits result from blended inheritance

10.

____________ are made of DNA. They are found on pairs of _______________ inside each _____________________.

a)

genes, chromosomes, cell

b)

cell, gene, chromosomes

c)

centromeres, cells, dna

11.

The different forms of a gene are known as _______________. For example, the two forms of the gene for flower color of the pea plants are purple or white; human eye color: blue, green, brown and hazel

a)

factors

b)

traits

c)

alleles

d)

heterozygous

12.

Sexually reproduced organisms inherit a gene for each trait from each parent (genotype). One gene may be expressed (phenotype) while the other is not.

a)

true

b)

false

13.

If an organism's phenotype is a known recessive trait, what do we know about its genotype?

a)

not enough information to answer

b)

it must have inherited recessive traits from both parents

c)

phenotype and genotype are the exact same thing in all cases

d)

genotype can not ever be assumed

14.

Which plant is homozygous for recessive traits?

a)

Rr

b)

TT

c)

RR

d)

tt

15.

Which plant is homozygous for recessive traits?

a)

Rr

b)

TT

c)

RR

d)

tt

16.

Which organism is heterozygous purple?

a)

PP

b)

Pp

c)

pp

d)

not possible

17.

How many offspring will be purple with a cross between (P,p) and (p,p) parents? use scratch paper to draw punnett square

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

18.

Cross a homozygous tall plant with a homozygous short plant. What percentage of offspring will be heterozygous?

a)

0%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

19.

When both allelles or forms of a trait are expressed in the phenotype, this is known as ______________ example: (White cow+red cow= white and red calf)

a)

blended ancestry

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

pedigree

d)

codominance

20.

White camelias and red camelias blend phenotypes to make pink camelias

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

genetic smoothie

d)

blended ancestry

21.

In humans, it is now known that many genes may influence such traits as height, weight, skin tone, and intelligence. This is known as

a)

polygonal ancestry

b)

pollywollydoodleallday

c)

polygenic inheritance

d)

polycethemia trait formation

22.

What does homozygous mean?

a)

The two genes in a hybrid are dominant.

b)

The two alleles in a genotype are the same.

c)

The two traits in a phenotype are different.

d)

The two alleles in a phenotype are different.

23.

What is a gene?

a)

a piece of a chromosome with code for one trait.

b)

a chemical that predicts heredity.

c)

a piece of centromeres

d)

a pair of chromosomes

24.

The alleles that control how a trait is expressed are its_________.

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

polygenic

d)

codominant

25.

The actual expression of a trait is its ____________________.

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

polygenic

d)

codominant

26.

A(n) ___________________ is a model that is used to predict the possible genotypes and phenotypes of offspring.

a)

self pollinating pea plant experiment

b)

cross pollinating pea plant experiment

c)

Punnett square

d)

cladogram

27.

_____________________ occurs when multiple genes determine the phenotype of a trait.

a)

Polygenic inheritance

b)

Codominant alleles

c)

Incomplete dominant alleles

d)

homozygous recessive

28.

In _________________________, both alleles can be observed in a phenotype.

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

polygenic dominance

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominace

29.

______________________ occurs when the phenotype is a blend or combination of the parents' phenotypes.

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

polygenic factors

c)

heterozygous

d)

codominance

30.

A(n) ____________________ shows the phenotypes of genetically related family members.

a)

cladogram

b)

Punnett square

c)

dichotomous key

d)

pedigree

31.

________________are threadlike structures in a cell's nucleus that contain the genetic information that controls traits.

a)

Alleles

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Genes

d)

Centromeres

32.

Which of the following is a homozygous genotype?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

d)

None of the above.

33.

What does it mean to be homozygous?

a)

homozygous means that there are two genes that control the trait and both traits can be seen in the offspring. example: red cow + white cow= calf with red and white colors

b)

homozygous means that their are 4 or more chromosomes that control the trait and each one shows up in the offspring

c)

homozygous is an example of 2 different traits showing up in the offfspring example: Purple flower + White flower = pink flower

d)

homozygous genotype occurs when both alleles of a gene are the same. Can be dominant or recessive

34.

Compare and Contrast a chromosome and a gene?

a)

Both contain genetic information

b)

A chromosome is found on genes and contains the genetic information that controls many traits.

c)

A gene is a section of a chromosome containing genetic information for just one trait.

d)

A chromosome contains genetic information that controls many traits.

35.

An organism that is heterozygous for a trait mates with another organism that is also heterozygous for that trait. What would be the percentage of offspring that would be homozygous recessive?

a)

100 percent

b)

75 percent

c)

50 percent

d)

25 percent

36.

An organism that is heterozygous for a trait mates with another organism that is also heterozygous for that trait. What would be the ratio of offspring that show the dominant and recessive phenotypes?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

4:1

37.

If you cross a purple flowered pea plant that is homozygous with a white flowered pea plant, what percentage of the offspring would be purple and what percentage would be white?

a)

100 percent of the plants would be white

b)

100 percent of the plants would be pink

c)

75 percent purple and 25 percent white

d)

100 percent purple

38.

What symbols would you use when showing crosses between round pea seed which are dominant and wrinkled seeds which are recessive.

a)

R and R

b)

R and W

c)

R and r

d)

R and w

39.

An organism that is homozygous dominant for a trait mates with another organism that is heterozygous for that trait. What would be the percentage of offspring that would be homozygous recessive?

a)

75 percent would be homozygous recessive

b)

50 percent would be homozygous recessive

c)

20 percent would be homozygous recessive

d)

0 percent would be homozygous recessive.

40.

Which blood type is an example of codominance?

a)

Type AO

b)

Type BO

c)

Type AB

d)

Type OO

41.

The nucleic acid that carries the code for making proteins from the nucleus to the cytoplasm is called ___________________________________.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

RNA

d)

codon

42.

The nucleic acid that contains an organism's genetic material is called _________________________.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

RNA

d)

codon

43.

A molecule made up of a nitrogen base, a sugar, and a phosphate group is a(n) _____________________________.

a)

deoxyribose

b)

ribonucleic

c)

codon

d)

nucleotide

44.

A genetic ______________________ can result from a defect or mutation in an individual's genes.

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

disorder

d)

replication

45.

The process of making a copy of DNA to make another DNA molecule is called ________________________.

a)

replication

b)

transcripton

c)

translation

d)

None of the above

46.

The process of making a protein from RNA is called_____________________________.

a)

replication

b)

duplication

c)

translation

d)

transcription

47.

Transcription is the process of making

a)

chemicals that link chains of amino acide

b)

DNA without the use of nitrogen bases

c)

mRNA from DNA

d)

mutations

48.

A change is a nucleotide sequence of a gene is a _____________________.

a)

duplication

b)

mutation

c)

replication

d)

transcription

49.

A condition that results from a defect or mutation in an individual's genes is a(n) ___________________________.

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

genetic disorder

d)

transcriptionn

50.

Which of the following are examples of genetic mutations?

a)

Type O blood type

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

Sickle Cell anemia

d)

None of the answers are correct.

51.

What is the role of mRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

carries amino acids to ribosomes.

b)

helps form the chemical bonds that attach amino acids to one another as they form chains.

c)

helps in the DNA replication

d)

carries the code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm that determines the order of amino acids in a protein.

52.

What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

carries amino acids to ribosomes.

b)

helps form the chemical bonds that attach amino acids to one another as they form chains.

c)

helps in the DNA replication

d)

carries the code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm that determines the order of amino acids in a protein.

53.

What is the role of rRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

carries amino acids to ribosomes.

b)

helps form the chemical bonds that attach amino acids to one another as they form chains.

c)

helps in the DNA replication

d)

carries the code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm that determines the order of amino acids in a protein.

54.

There are 3 types of genetic mutations. Deletion, insertion and substitution. Which of the following is the best description of a deletion mutation?

a)

one or more nitrogen bases is left out of the DNA;

b)

one or more nitrogen bases is added to the DNA

c)

one or more nitrogen bases is replaced by a different nitrogen base

d)

the chromosome just didn't get copied in replication

55.

There are 3 types of genetic mutations. Deletion, insertion and substitution. Which of the following is the best description of a substitution mutation?

a)

one or more nitrogen bases is left out of the DNA;

b)

one or more nitrogen bases is added to the DNA

c)

one or more nitrogen bases is replaced by a different nitrogen base

d)

the chromosome just was substituted during replication

56.

Offspring from parents with different forms of the same trait are called____________________.

a)

true breeding

b)

recessive

c)

hybrids

d)

dominant

57.

The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called ____________________.

a)

hybrids

b)

heredity

c)

cross pollination

d)

pure breeding

58.

A genetic factor that blocks another genetic factor is _____________________________.

a)

hybrid

b)

true breeding

c)

recessive

d)

dominant

59.

A genetic factor that is blocked by the presence of a dominant factor is called __________________.

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

hybrids

d)

heredity

60.

An organism that is heterozygous for a trait mates with another organism that is also heterozygous for that trait. What would be the ratio of offspring that show the dominant and recessive phenotypes?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

4:1

61.

There are 3 types of genetic mutations. Deletion, insertion and substitution. Which of the following is the best description of a insertion mutation?

a)

one or more nitrogen bases is left out of the DNA;

b)

one or more nitrogen bases is added to the DNA

c)

one or more nitrogen bases is replaced by a different nitrogen base

d)

the chromosome just copied an extra time during replication

62.

Using one or more senses to gather information and take note of what occurs is called _________________________.

a)

critical thinking

b)

inference

c)

observation

d)

hypothesis

63.

A logical explanation of an observation that is drawn from prior knowledge and experience is called a(n) _____________________.

a)

observation

b)

inference

c)

hypothesis

d)

critical thinking

64.

Comparing what you already know with the information you are given in order to decide whether you agree with it is called ______________________.

a)

observation

b)

inference

c)

hypothesis

d)

critical thinking

65.

A possible explanation for an observation that can be tested by scientific investigations is called a(n)________________________.

a)

observation

b)

inference

c)

hypothesis

d)

critical thinking

66.

The practical use of scientific knowledge, especially for industrial or commercial use is called _________________.

a)

technology

b)

scientific law

c)

hypothesis

d)

science

67.

The investigation and exploration of natural events and of the new information that results from those investigations ________________________.

a)

critical thinking

b)

therory

c)

technology

d)

science

68.

Chemical reactions, gravity, and atoms are topics in the field of _______________________________.

a)

Earth Science

b)

physical science

c)

chemistry

d)

biology

69.

A(n) ________________ is an explanation of observations or events that is based on knowledge gained from many observations and investigation.

a)

scientific theory

b)

scientific law

c)

scientific investigation

d)

scientific procedures

70.

The field of ___________________ includes the topics of cells and the interactions of living things.

a)

Earth science

b)

life science

c)

physical science

d)

chemistry

71.

A(n) _______________________ is a rule that describes a repeatable pattern in nature.

a)

scientific theory

b)

scientific law

c)

scientific investigation

d)

scientific procedures

72.

A spoken or written summary of observations is called a(n) __________________.

a)

explanation

b)

description

c)

notation

d)

All of the above.

73.

An interpretation of observations is called a(n) _____________________________.

a)

explanation

b)

description

c)

notation

d)

All of the above.

74.

A method of writing or displaying very small or very large numbers is known as a(n)

a)

scientific explanation

b)

scientific description

c)

scientific notation

d)

All of the above.

75.

An internationally accepted system of measurement is known as ____________________.

a)

International System of Units (SI)

b)

International System of Measurements (SI)

c)

International System of Measuring ( SM)

d)

International System of Metrics ( SM)

76.

The expression of error as a percentage of the accepted value is known as __________________________________.

a)

scientific notation

b)

percent error

c)

explanation of error

d)

description of error.

77.

All measurements have some degree of certainty

a)

True

b)

False

78.

The SI prefix kilo- means 1,000.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

International System of Units refers to the number of digits in a measurement that are known with a certain degree of reliability.

a)

True

b)

False - Significant digits

c)

False- percent error

d)

None of the above

80.

The SI base unit for length is the meter.

a)

True

b)

False- yard

c)

False - inch

d)

False - centimeter

81.

Thermometers are used to measure the mass of a substance.

a)

True

b)

False- length

c)

False- temperature

d)

False- mass

82.

How many centimeters are in 1 meter?

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1,000

d)

10,000

83.

A description of how similar or close a measurement is to an accepted value is called __________________.

a)

precision

b)

percent error

c)

accuracy

d)

significant

84.

A description of how similar or close measurements are to each other is called __________________.

a)

precision

b)

percent error

c)

accuracy

d)

significant

85.

In the SI system, factors of ten are represented by ____________________ such as Milli.

a)

base units

b)

suffixes

c)

prefixes

d)

meters

86.

Cameron estimated a mass to be 275 grams, but upon carefully measuring it, found the actual mass to be 260 g. What is the percent error? page NOS 21 in book

a)

5.77 %

b)

5.007 %

c)

.0577 %

d)

-5.77%

87.

How would the number 3,629,000 be expressed using scientific notation?

a)

36.2 x 106

b)

3 x 106

c)

3.629 x 106

88.

A student's experimental value for density if 33 g/cm3. The accepted density is 30 g/cm3. What is the percent error?

a)

33%

b)

13%

c)

10%

d)

None of these are correct

89.

Which phase occurs first ?

a)

metaphase II

b)

telophase 1

c)

prophase II

d)

prophase I

90.

Which process is NOT a type of asexual reproduction?

a)

fission

b)

budding

c)

mating

d)

fertilization

91.

Which process is a step in sexual reproduction?

a)

budding

b)

fertilization

c)

regeneration

d)

fission

92.

A cell containing one chromosome from each pair is ______________________.

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

haploid

d)

diploid

93.

A cell containing two pairs of chromosomes is ______________________.

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

haploid

d)

diploid

94.

______________________ produces sex cells.

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

haploid

d)

diploid

95.

___________________________ separate during meiosis I

a)

Homologous chromosomes

b)

Sister chromatids

c)

Haploid cells

d)

Analogous chromosomes

96.

Cell division in prokaryotes that forms two genetically identical cells is called __________________________.

a)

fission

b)

budding

c)

cloning

d)

fertilization

97.

Cell division in one-celled eukaryotes is called _______________________________.

a)

fission

b)

budding

c)

cloning

d)

mitotic

98.

When offspring grow on the body of its parent, it is called_____________________.

a)

fission

b)

budding

c)

cloning

d)

mitotic

99.

The joining of an egg cell and a sperm cell is called ____________________________.

a)

fission

b)

budding

c)

cloning

d)

fertilization

100.

When genetically identical organisms are produced in a laboratory it is called __________________________.

a)

fission

b)

budding

c)

cloning

d)

fertilization

101.

Why is meiosis important?

a)

It gives genetic variations within species.

b)

It produces sex cells

c)

It divides diploids cells into haploids cells

d)

All of these are correct,

102.

What is the difference between meiosis I and meiosis II?

a)

In meiosis I, each pair of homologous chromosomes separates; each homologous chromosome from the pair is pulled toward an opposite end of the cell. In meiosis II, sister chromatids separate and four haploid daughter cells form.

b)

In meiosis II, each pair of homologous chromosomes separates; each homologous chromosome from the pair is pulled toward an opposite end of the cell. In meiosis I sister chromatids separate and four haploid daughter cells form.

c)

In metaphase II, each pair of homologous chromosomes separates; each homologous chromosome from the pair is pulled toward an opposite end of the cell. In meiosis I sister chromatids separate and four haploid daughter cells form.

d)

In metaphase I each pair of homologous chromosomes separates; each homologous chromosome from the pair is pulled toward an opposite end of the cell. In meiosis II sister chromatids separate and four haploid daughter cells form.

103.

The process in which in which one parent produces offspring without meiosis and fertilization is called ____________________________.

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

fertilization

d)

mutation

104.

What is one advantage of asexual reproduction?

a)

reproduce slowly so that no mutations occur

b)

reproduce rapidly to ensure the continuation of species

c)

reproduce without a mate

d)

All of the above

105.

The body cells of a cat have 38 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be in the cells of normal kittens?

a)

38 chromosomes

b)

19 chromosomes

c)

19 pairs of chromosomes

d)

38 pairs of chromosomes

106.

The body cells of a cat have 38 chromosomes. Calculate the number of chromosomes in a cat's normal sex cells.

a)

38 chromosomes

b)

19 chromosomes

c)

19 pairs of chromosomes

d)

38 pairs of chromosomes

107.

Define animal regeneration.

a)

Sexual reproduction as a result of fertilization

b)

Asexual reproduction as a result of budding.

c)

Asexual reproduction as a result of fission.

d)

Asexual reproduction that occurs when an offspring grows from a piece of its parent.

108.

Name an example of an organism that uses asexual reproduction.

a)

fission (prokaryotes such as bacteria)

b)

budding (hydra, yeasts)

c)

animal regeneration (sponges, planarians, sea stars

d)

vegetative reproduction (strawberries, raspberries, potatoes, geraniums)

109.

Which kind of reproduction is shown in the diagram?

a)

Asexual

b)

Sexual

c)

Fission

d)

Budding

110.

What would be the correct label for letter a in the diagram

a)

egg

b)

sperm

c)

zygote

d)

fertilization

111.

What would be the correct label for letter b in the diagram?

a)

egg

b)

sperm

c)

zygote

d)

fertilization

112.

What would be the correct label for letter c in the diagram?

a)

egg

b)

sperm

c)

zygote

d)

fertilization

113.

What would be the correct label for letter d in the diagram?

a)

egg

b)

sperm

c)

zygote

d)

fertilization

114.

What is a major cause of extinctions?

a)

carbonization and mineralization

b)

environmental change

c)

biological evolution

d)

None of the above

115.

What can be learned about a fossil using relative-age dating?

a)

its age based on radioactive decay

b)

its age in years

c)

its age compared to other fossils

d)

All of the above.

116.

The impression of an organism in a rock is called a ____________.

a)

trace fossil

b)

original -material fossil

c)

cast

d)

mold

117.

The fossil copy of an organism in a rock is called a(n) __________________________.

a)

trace fossil

b)

original -material fossil

c)

cast

d)

mold

118.

The preserved evidence of the activity of an organism is called _________________.

a)

trace fossil

b)

original -material fossil

c)

cast

d)

mold

119.

The preserved tissue of an organism is a(n) _______________________.

a)

trace fossil

b)

original -material fossil

c)

cast

d)

mold

120.

All the fossils ever discovered on Earth are part of the ___________________________.

a)

geological time scale

b)

biological evolution

c)

fossil record

d)

carbon decay record

121.

The change over time in populations of related organisms is _________________________.

a)

geological time scale

b)

biological evolution

c)

fossil record

d)

carbon decay record

122.

A chart that divides Earth's history into units is called the _____________________________________.

a)

geological time scale

b)

biological evolution

c)

fossil record

d)

carbon decay record

123.

Can you contrast the relative-age dating and absolute dating?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

No, but I will study this for test.

d)

Sort of, but it is something I need to write down and memorize.

124.

Can you explain the cause-and-effect relationship between extinction and environmental change?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

No, but I will study this.

d)

Sort of, but I will study and be able to answer in detail for the test.

125.

What is gradual change in a species over time

a)

evolution

b)

natural selection

c)

diversity

d)

extinct

126.

What is the process by which individuals are better adapted to their environment and are more likely to survive

a)

mutation

b)

variation

c)

natural selection

d)

fossil

127.

Who is the British naturalist who formulated the theory of evolution by natural selection

a)

Gregor Mendel

b)

HMS Beagle

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Galapagos Finches

128.

What are any difference between organisms of the same species

a)

Homologous Structure

b)

Diversity

c)

Fossil

d)

Variation

129.

The variety of organisms that inhabit the Earth

a)

diversity

b)

mutation

c)

evolution

d)

natural selection

130.
What characteristic did Darwin observe about the finches on the Galapagos Islands?
a)
Their feathers 
b)
Genotypes 
c)
Their beaks
d)
Their body sizes
131.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
132.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
survival of the smartest
b)
survival of the fastest
c)
survival of the biggest
d)
survival of the fittest
133.
What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?
a)
homologous
b)
vestigial
c)
variation
d)
adaptation
134.
Which layer is the oldest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
135.
To adjust to a changing environment
a)
Mutation
b)
Adapt
136.
Charles Darwin came up with this theory 
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Mutation
137.

These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Variation

c)

An acquired trait

d)

Extinction

138.

The breeding of organisms for desired characteristics is called _____________________________________.

a)

selective breeding

b)

mutant breeding

c)

variation breeding

d)

pure bred breeding

139.

How did Charles Darwin study plants and animals?

a)

by experimenting in the laboratory

b)

by observing them in their habitats

c)

by making scientific models

d)

All of the above.

140.

Mutations in genes cause _______________________.

a)

reproduction

b)

competition

c)

mimicry

d)

variation

141.

According to Darwin's theory, what process causes populations to change as their environment changes?

a)

selective breeding

b)

artificial selection

c)

pure breeding

d)

natural selection

142.

There are 3 types of genetic mutations. Deletion, insertion and substitution. Which of the following is the best description of a insertion mutation?

a)

one or more nitrogen bases is left out of the DNA;

b)

one or more nitrogen bases is added to the DNA

c)

one or more nitrogen bases is replaced by a different nitrogen base

d)

the chromosome just copied an extra time during replication