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AP BIO Unit 3 Energy

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 3hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A catalyst works by
a)
changing the order of the reaction
b)
increasing the temperature
c)
lowering the activation energy
d)
making the activated complex
2.
Endergonic reactions require:
a)
an input of energy
b)
a release of energy
c)
do not change energy
3.
Which of the following is true for anabolic reactions?
a)
They are spontaneous and breakdown molecules.
b)
They are nonspontaneous and breakdown molecules.
c)
They are spontaneous and build molecules.
d)
They are nonspontaneous and build molecules.
4.
Which type of reaction increases entropy?
a)
Endergonic
b)
Nonspontaneous
c)
Synthesis
d)
Exergonic
5.

The active site of an enzyme can:

a)

bind allosteric regulators.

b)

bind competitive inhibitors.

c)

bind non-competitive inhibitors.

d)

change the Gibbs Free Energy of the reaction.

6.

Which of the following do not affect enzymes ability to function?

a)

pH

b)

substrate concentration

c)

temperature

d)

water

7.

In general, enzymes do NOT:

a)

bind permanently to their substrates

b)

have names ending in -ase

c)

have their function changed with extremely high temperatures

d)

react with a specific substrate

8.

The break down of larger molecules into small one.

a)

metabolism

b)

catabolism

c)

anabolism

d)

oxidation

9.

sum of all chemical reactions

a)

chemosynthesis

b)

cellular respiration

c)

metabolism

d)

photosynthesis

10.

What is being represented by the letter B in the image?

a)

Substrate

b)

Enzyme

c)

reactants

d)

Product

11.
What type of reaction is occurring in this graph?
a)
endergonic
b)
exergonic
c)
unable to determine
12.
Enzymes are usually....
a)
Proteins
b)
Lipids
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
None of the Above
13.
Use the diagram to answer the question. Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
C and D
14.
Energy is released from ATP when
a)
a phosphate group is added
b)
adenine bonds to ribose
c)
ATP is exposed to sunlight
d)
a phosphate group is removed
15.
Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid. What is malonic acid's role with respect to succinate dehydrogenase?
a)
It is a competitive inhibitor.
b)
It is an allosteric regulator.
c)
It is able to bind to succinate.
d)
It blocks the binding of fumarate.
16.
The place, other than the active site, where activators and inhibitors bind to an enzyme is called the ________ site.
a)
competitive
b)
allosteric
c)
alterior
d)
rate
17.
Where is the most easily accessible energy stored in an ATP molecule?
a)
between the 1st and 2nd phosphate groups
b)
between the adenine and ribose groups
c)
between the 2nd and 3rd phosphate groups
d)
between the ribose and the 1st phosphate groups
18.

Some of the drugs used to treat HIV patients are competitive inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme. Unfortunately, the high mutation rate of HIV means that the virus rapidly acquires mutations with amino acid changes that make them resistant to these competitive inhibitors. Where in the reverse transcriptase enzyme would such amino acid changes most likely occur in drug-resistant viruses?

a)

in or near the active site

b)

at an allosteric site

c)

at a cofactor binding site

d)

in regions of the protein that determine packaging into the virus capsid

19.

When you have a severe fever, what grave consequence may occur if the fever is not controlled?

a)

destruction of your enzymes' primary structure

b)

removal of amine groups from your proteins

c)

change in the tertiary structure of your enzymes

d)

removal of the amino acids in the active sites of your enzymes

20.

How might an amino acid change at a site distant from the active site of the enzyme alter the enzyme's substrate specificity?

a)

by changing the enzyme's stability

b)

by changing the enzyme's location in the cell

c)

by changing the shape of the protein

d)

by changing the enzyme's pH optimum

21.

For the enzyme-catalyzed reaction shown in Figure 6.2, which of these treatments will cause the greatest increase in the rate of the reaction, if the initial reactant concentration is 1.0 micromolar?

a)

doubling the activation energy needed

b)

cooling the reaction by 10°C

c)

doubling the concentration of the reactants to 2.0 micromolar

d)

doubling the enzyme concentration

22.

In Figure 6.2, why does the reaction rate plateau at higher reactant concentrations?

a)

Feedback inhibition by product occurs at high reactant concentrations.

b)

Most enzyme molecules are occupied by substrate at high reactant concentrations.

c)

The reaction nears equilibrium at high reactant concentrations.

d)

The activation energy for the reaction increases with reactant concentration.

23.

Which of the following in Figure 6.4 would be the same in either an enzyme-catalyzed or a noncatalyzed reaction?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

24.

Which of the following represents the activation energy needed for the enzyme-catalyzed reverse reaction, C + D → A + B, in Figure 6.4?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

25.

Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid.


Based on this information, which of the following is correct?

a)

Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumarate is the substrate.

b)

Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonic acid is the substrate.

c)

Succinate is the substrate, and fumarate is the product.

d)

Fumarate is the product, and malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor.

26.
What is structure A?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
27.
What is structure D?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
28.
What is structure C?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
29.
How do enzymes speed up chemical reaction?
a)
Increasing activation energy
b)
Decreasing activation energy
c)
Increasing deactivation energy
d)
Decreasing deactivation energy
30.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
31.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
32.
Enzymes need certain environmental conditions in order to function properly.  What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
they die
b)
they denature
c)
they change their amino acid sequence
d)
they work better
33.
Once a new product leaves an enzyme, the enzyme is unchanged and ready for the next substrate.  What is this called?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
34.

Which of the following correctly describes enzyme structure and function?

a)

The shape of an enzyme is responsible for its function.

b)

All enzymes can bind to all substrates.

c)

The substrate is responsible for the shape of the enzyme.

d)

The location of an enzyme determines its function.

35.
Blocking Active site of an enzyme
a)
competitive inhibition
b)
allosteric inhibition
36.

Which enzyme breaks down hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen gas?

a)

sucrase

b)

lactase

c)

catalase

d)

peroxidase

37.
When a molecule can occupy the same active site as the substrate, a situation called __________________ can result
a)
Competitive lnhibition
b)
Allosteric Regulation
c)
Non-Competitive Inhibition
d)
Feedback Inhibition
38.
Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?
a)
The entropy of the universe is constant.
b)
Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter.
c)
Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
d)
The entropy of the universe is decreasing.
39.
Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?
a)
catabolism
b)
catalysis
c)
metabolism
d)
dehydration
40.
A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X →Y→ Z →A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme. What is substance X? 
a)
A substrate 
b)
An allosteric inhibitor 
c)
The product
d)
A coenzyme
41.
When glucose monomers are joined together by glycosidic linkages to form a cellulose polymer, the changes in free energy, total energy, and entropy are as follows:
a)
-ΔG, +ΔH, +ΔS
b)
+ΔG, +ΔH, +ΔS
c)
+ΔG, +ΔH, -ΔS
d)
-ΔG, -ΔH, -ΔS
42.
The __________ law of thermodynamics states that entropy is always increasing. 
a)
first
b)
second
c)
third
d)
zeroth
43.

Which of the following is an example of an exergonic reaction?

a)

cellular respiration

b)

protein synthesis

c)

nerve conduction

d)

muscle contraction

44.
If ADP is phosphorylated then what is this indicating in the reaction? 
a)
ADP is forming into ATP
b)
ADP is becoming AMP
c)
ADP is being used to power other reactions
d)
ADP is being created by the reaction
45.

what controls a metabolic pathway

a)

enzymes

b)

chemicals

c)

intermediates

d)

energy

46.
The products of photosynthesis are
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and water
c)
sugar and cabon dioxide
d)
oxygen and sugar (glucose)
47.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
48.
What does ATP synthase do?
a)
Create ATP in chemiosmosis.
b)
Break down ATP in chemiosmosis.
c)
Break down NADPH. 
d)
Create NADPH.
49.
Which of the following environmental changes could denature an enzyme?
a)
too high a concentration of substrate
b)
too high a concentration of enzyme
c)
pH too low
d)
too low a concentration of substrate
50.

Fireflies emit light. The production of light by an organism is called bioluminescence. To generate visible light, cells in a firefly’s tail produce thousands of luciferase enzymes. Luciferase binds to a chemical called luciferin. Once bound, the luciferase enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction that combines an oxygen molecule and luciferin to produce oxyluciferin. This reaction requires energy and releases light. Which of the following best describes how the luciferase enzyme speeds up the chemical reaction?

a)

Luciferase increases the amount of time the light is visible.

b)

Luciferase decreases the amount of energy required for the reaction to start.

c)

Luciferase increases the number of sites on luciferin that must bind to oxygen.

d)

Luciferase decreases the temperature of the environment inside the body of the firefly.

51.

The graphs show the reaction rate for an enzyme across a range of temperatures and pH.


Based on these data, this enzyme functions best as what temperature and pH?

a)

Temperature of 27oC and a pH of 4

b)

Temperature of 37oC and a pH of 6

c)

Temperature of 40oC and a pH of 8

d)

Temperature of 50oC and a pH of 10

52.

Pepsin and trypsin are two of the digestive enzymes that break down protein. A group of students studied the pH requirements of these enzymes. The graph below shows the results.


The students found that pepsin functions best in an acid environment and trypsin functions best in a neutral environment. Based on their observations, pepsin most likely aids in digestion in which part of the human body?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Intestines

c)

Mouth

d)

Stomach

53.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited.


Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells.

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

54.

What happens to the rate of reaction in a test tube when a competitive inhibitor is added?

a)

The reaction speeds up because the competitive inhibitor helps the enzyme

b)

The reaction rate speeds up because the enzyme’s shape is changed

c)

There is no impact on the reaction rate because the inhibitor is competitive

d)

The reaction slows down because the enzyme’s shape is changed

e)

The reaction slows down because the competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme

55.

If nerve gasses are inhaled, they will temporarily bind to an area on many enzymes that will change the shape of the enzyme. This prevents the enzymes from interacting with other substances and interferes in proper nervous system functioning resulting in death. The nerve gas is an example of a(n):

a)

Substrate

b)

Activation Inhibitor

c)

Production Inhibitor

d)

Competitive Inhibitor

e)

Non-competitive Inhibitor

56.

The change in shape between structures 1 and 2 below can best be described as the:

a)

Lock & Key Model

b)

Induced Fit Model

c)

Latch & Key Model

d)

Molding Model

e)

Optimal Fit Model

57.

To do work, living systems will pair an endergonic reaction with a(n)________________

a)

exergonic reaction

b)

oxidative reaction

c)

ATP synthesis

d)

reduction reaction

58.

Endergonic reactions are _____________; exergonic reactions are ____________

a)

non-spontaneous; spontaneous

b)

spontaneous; non-spontaneous

c)

spontaneous; spontaneous

d)

non-spontaneous; non-spontaneous

59.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
60.
Where does glycolysis occur?
a)
Inner mitochondrial membrane
b)
Mitochondrial Matrix
c)
Cytosol
d)
At a ribosome
61.
What enzyme in the ETC is responsible for generating the ATP molecules?
a)
ATPase
b)
ATP synthase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
none of the above
62.
Where does ETC occur?
a)
Mitochondrial matrix
b)
Outer mitochondrial membrane
c)
Inner mitochondrial membrane
d)
Cytosol
63.
after strenuous exercise, a muscle cell would contain decreased amounts of ______ and increased amounts of ______ ____
a)
glucose ATP
b)
ATP glucose
c)
oxygen lactic acid
d)
lactic acid ATP
64.
the loss of hydrogen or electrons is known as 
a)
dehydration
b)
hydrogenation
c)
reduction
d)
oxidation
65.
Which process takes place in the presence of oxygen and produces nearly 20 times as much as ATP as glycolysis alone?
a)
photosynthesis
b)
lactic acid fermentation
c)
aerobic respiration
d)
alcoholic fermentation
66.
Two different species of bacteria are examined. Scientists find that species X always produces CO2 and H2O during cellular respiration. Species Y always produces ethyl alcohol and CO2. Which conclusion can be made from these observations?
a)
Only species Y is aerobic.
b)
Only species Y is anaerobic
c)
Both species X and Y are aerobic.
d)
Both species X and Y are anaerobic.
67.
What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?
a)
oxygen and lactic acid
b)
carbon dioxide and water
c)
glucose and oxygen
d)
water and glucose
68.
The ATP's of glycolysis are produced through
a)
chemiosmosis
b)
substrate-level phosphorylation
69.
What determines the fate of pyruvate?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen
c)
ATP
d)
water
70.
The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is
a)
oxygen
b)
water
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
NAD+
71.
Which molecules are made during the Krebs Cycle to power the electron transport chain?
a)
ATP and CO2
b)
ATP and NADH
c)
NADH and FADH2
d)
ADP, NAD+ and FAD+
72.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
73.
A weightlifter is using heavy weights in short bursts for a competition. Because his muscle cells are not able to take in enough oxygen to make very much ATP the weightlifter begins to get fatigue in his muscles. Which of the following processes is most likely going on in the muscles of the weightlifter as he competes in his event?
a)
As the cells run out of oxygen they switch to anaerobic respiration, which allows the cell to make small amounts of ATP in the absence of oxygen.
b)
As the cells run out of oxygen, they die off gradually and the weightlifter's muscles have fewer contracting muscle cells.
c)
The cells will never run out of oxygen if the weightlifter is breathing.
d)
As the cells run out of oxygen, they will continue to make the same amount of ATP, since oxygen is not required to make ATP.
74.
Glycolysis is a _______ process
a)
Anabolic
b)
Catabolic
c)
Single Step
d)
Strictly Eukaryotic
75.
Which molecule enters Kreb's Cycle?
a)
Pyruvate
b)
Glucose
c)
Acetyl CoA
d)
reducing powers
76.
What enzyme in the ETC is responsible for generating the ATP molecules?
a)
ATPase
b)
ATP synthase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
none of the above
77.
Location of ATP synthase
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
78.
Site of the krebs cycle
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
79.
Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent?
a)
electron transport
b)
glycolysis
c)
the citric acid cycle (Krebs)
d)
oxidative phosphorylation
80.
During cellular respiration, acetyl CoA accumulates in which location?
a)
Mitochondrial Matrix
b)
mitochondrial outer membrane
c)
mitochondrial inner membrane
d)
mitochondrial intermembrane space
81.
Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?
a)
glycolysis and fermentation
b)
citric acid cycle
c)
fermentation and chemiosmosis
d)
oxidative phosphorylation
82.
The ATP made during fermentation (including glycolysis) is generated by which of the following?
a)
the electron transport chain
b)
substrate-level phosphorylation
c)
chemiosmosis
d)
oxidative phosphorylation
83.
How is a molecule oxidized?
a)
Electrons are added to the molecule
b)
Electrons are taken from the molecule
c)
Electrons are shared with the molecule
d)
Protons are added to the molecule
84.
Which of the following statements are false?
a)
Glycolysis can occur with or without oxygen
b)
Glycolysis is the first step in both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
c)
Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria
d)
Glycolysis produces 2 ATP, 2 Pyruvates, and 2 NADH
85.
At the end of the Kreb's cycle, where is most of the energy from the original glucose stored?
a)
in CO2
b)
in ATP
c)
in NADH
d)
in pyruvate
86.
During chemiosmosis
a)
H+ ions serve as the final electron acceptor
b)
a concentration gradient is generated when H+ ions are passively transported from the matrix to the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion
c)
energy is released as H+ ions move freely across the mitochondrial membrane
d)
ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a channel in ATP synthase
87.
What are the stages of cellular respiration in order?
"citric acid cycle" = Krebs Cycle
a)
glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, the citric acid cycle
b)
oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis, the citric acid cycle
c)
glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation
d)
the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis
88.
What is the main purpose of the Krebs cycle?
a)
to produce ATP
b)
to produce electron donators
c)
to produce water
d)
to produce carbon dioxide
89.
In the instances we have investigated, when a phosphate is added to a molecule, either by substrate-level phosphorylation or oxidative phosphorylation, that molecule now has
a)
less free energy
b)
more free energy
c)
the ability to transport electrons
d)
the ability to act as a final electron acceptor
90.
The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to
a)
yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain.
b)
act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water.
c)
combine with carbon, forming CO2.
d)
combine with lactate, forming pyruvate.
91.

How many ATP are gained (net) through glycolysis?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

4

d)

30-38

92.
Where do the light-dependent reactions occur? 
a)
thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma
c)
mesophyll
d)
mitochondria
93.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
94.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
95.
The enzyme responsible for Carbon Fixation in C3 Photosynthesis is
a)
RuBisCo
b)
PEP Carboxylase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
Pyruvate DeHydrogenase
96.
The loss of H2O through stomata is referred to as:
a)
Transpiration
b)
Respiration
c)
Evaporation
d)
Photorespiration
97.
The main problem encountered by C3 plants in high oxygen environments is:
a)
Transpiration
b)
PhotoRespiration
c)
Dehydration
d)
Starvation
98.
What is the name of a pigment-containing complex found in a thylakoid?
a)
chlorophyll a
b)
photosystem
c)
grana
d)
stroma
99.
Green plants reflect ________ light.
a)
Red
b)
Green
c)
All
d)
Red and Violet
100.
The light reactions occur in the ________ and the dark reactions take place in the ________.
a)
Chloroplast / thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma / thylakoid
c)
mesophyl / stomata
d)
thylakoid membrane / stroma
101.
Where does the carbon come from that is used to form glucose?
a)
The soil
b)
CO2 in the air
c)
From other carbohydrates
d)
Calvin Cycle
102.
Organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called
a)
autotrophs
b)
heterotrophs.
c)
thylakoids.
d)
pigments.
103.
When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of
a)
reducing NADP+
b)
splitting water molecules
c)
chemiosmosis
d)
electron transfer in photosystem II and I
104.
Beyond Basics:  Electrons become energized during photosynthesis when 
a)
they are absorbed by water
b)
they undergo carbon fixation
c)
they are struck with light energy
d)
they are incorporated into oxygen
105.
Where does carbon dioxide enter plants
a)
The leaves
b)
Stomata
c)
Roots
d)
Stem
106.
Where does a plant absorb the water that it uses during photosynthesis?
a)
Leaves
b)
Stem
c)
Roots
d)
Petals
107.
How many sugar molecules are produced from every six molecules of carbon dioxide that enter the Calvin cycle?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
6
d)
12
108.
a)

Thylakoid Membrane

b)

Thylakoid Space

c)

Stroma

d)

Candy Coating

109.
a)
Grana
b)
Thylakoid
c)
Stroma
d)
Jelly Filling
110.

When are ATP and NADPH produced?

a)

light-dependent reactions

b)

Calvin Cycle

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

light- independent reactions

111.

During photosystem II, the hydrogen ions are pumped

a)

out of the thylakoid lumen

b)

into the thylakoid lumen

c)

out of the chloroplast

d)

into the chloroplast

112.

Where do the oxygen molecules produced during photosynthesis come from?

a)

photolysis in photosystem II

b)

reduction of NADP+

c)

oxidation of NADPH

d)

proton gradient formation

113.

During photosynthesis sugars are assembled during

a)

photosystem II

b)

photosystem I

c)

Calvin cycle

d)

Krebs cycle

114.

CO2 is used in the Calvin cycle to make molecules of

a)

NADPH

b)

glycogen

c)

G3P

d)

Rubisco

115.

Where is ATP synthase used during photosynthesis located?

a)

stroma

b)

chloroplast membrane

c)

thylakoid membrane

d)

cell membrane

116.
Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin Cycle?
a)
CO2 and glucose
b)
ATP and NADPH
c)
ADP, P and NADP+
d)
H2Oand O2
117.
Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
a)
Stroma
b)
thylakoid
c)
thylakoid space
d)
matrix
118.
T or F: The light reactions of photosynthesis suppley the calvin cyucle with ATP and NADPH
a)
True
b)
False
119.
T or F: Photosynthesis is anabolic and Cellular respiration is catabolic
a)
True
b)
False
120.
In chemiosimosis in mitochondria, protons flow from the intermembrane space into the matrix, whearas in chemiosimosis in chloroplast, protons flow from __________
a)
the thylakoid space to the stoma
b)
the stoma to the thylakoid space
c)
the matrix into the stoma
d)
the stoma into the cytosol
121.
Which of the following events occurs in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
NADP+ is produced
b)
ATP is consumed to yield ADP
c)
light is absorbed and funneled to  chlorophyll a
d)
carbon dioxide is fixed in organic molecules
122.
In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?
a)
In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?
b)
thylakoid membrane and plasma membrane
c)
plasma membrane only
d)
thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane
123.
In mitochondria, chemiosmosis translocates protons from the matrix into the intermembrane space, whereas in chloroplasts, chemiosmosis translocates protons from
a)
the stroma to the thylakoid space.
b)
the thylakoid space to the stroma.
c)
the matrix to the stroma.
d)
the stroma to the photosystem II.
124.
If photosynthesizing green algae are provided with CO2 synthesized with heavy oxygen (18O), later analysis will show that all but one of the following compounds produced by the algae contain the 18O label. That one is
a)
O2.
b)
3–phosphoglycerate.
c)
glucose
d)
glyceraldehyde 3–phosphate (G3P).
125.
Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
a)
interior of the thylakoid (thylakoid space)
b)
outer membrane of the chloroplast
c)
thylakoid membrane
d)
stroma of the chloroplast
126.

Which of these does the Calvin Cycle do?

a)

Split glucose into oxygen and hydrogen ions

b)

use ATP to make carbohydrates

c)

Use light to split water into oxygen and hydrogen ions

d)

make NADP+ into NADPH

127.

What usually causes oxygen concentration to drop in an aquatic environment?

a)

temperature change

b)

animals only respiring/ respiring more at night

c)

photosynthetic organisms not photosynthesizing at night

d)

red algae competing with green algae

128.

When cells don't have enough oxygen to respire, what is their back-up plan?

a)

Die.

b)

Alcoholic fermentation

c)

Lactic acid fermentation

d)

Glcoysis + Kreb's cycle, but no oxidative phosphorylation

129.

Why is oxygen necessary in cellular respiration?

a)

It splits glucose

b)

It makes ATP

c)

It is the final electron acceptor

d)

It isn't, oxygen is a conspiracy created by the government to trick people into thinking that trees are good so they can install microphones and cameras in trees everywhere to monitor us every chance they get... death to trees!

130.

What happens to the Carbon from CO2 during photosynthesis?

a)

It is lost as a gas

b)

It is lost as water

c)

It becomes a sugar

d)

It becomes amino acids and structural proteins

131.

ATP Synthase works by...

a)

Using ATP to pump protons

b)

Phosphorylating ADP using the kinetic energy of protons moving with their concentration gradient

c)

Using oxygen to make water

d)

Joining phosphates to amino acids

132.

ATP production requires

a)

A proton concentration gradient for ATP synthase

b)

ATP

c)

a cell

d)

a variable temperature

133.
The stacks of disks in the chloroplast are called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
134.
The disks in the chloroplast are called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoids
135.
The interior space of the chloroplast is called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoids
136.

What are the reactants to the Light Reactions?

a)

Sunlight and Water

b)

Sunlight and Oxygen

c)

Oxygen and Water

d)

Sunlight and Carbon Dioxide

137.

What are the products to the light reactions?

a)

Sunlight and Oxygen

b)

Sunlight and Water

c)

ATP, NADPH and Oxygen

d)

ADP, NADP+ and Oxygen

138.

What is the chemical equation for photosynthesis?

a)

6 CO2 + 6 H2O ---sunlight---> 6 O2 and C6H12O6

b)

ATP + NADPH ----> NADP+ and ADP

c)

6 O2 and C6H12O6 ---sunlight---> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O

d)

ADP and NADP+ ------> ATP and NADPH

139.
Which substance from the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is a source of energy for the light-independent reactions?
a)
ADP
b)
H2O
c)
NADPH
d)
pyruvic acid
140.
Chlorophyll gives leaves a green colour because it:
a)
Absorbs green light
b)
Reflects green light
141.

What does light do when it strikes the chlorophyll molecules of photosystems I and II?

a)

Light causes glucose to be synthesized directly inside the chlorophyll molecules of the photosystems.

b)

Light causes electrons to get excited (gain energy) and travel down the electron transport chain embedded in the thylakoid membrane.

c)

Light causes the conversion of water into carbon dioxide, oxygen, and electrons.

d)

Light directly causes carbon dioxide to attach to RuBP during the carbon fixation stage of the Calvin Cycle.

142.

As the electrons travel from photosystem II down the first electron transport chain, their energy is used to….

a)

form oxygen, water, NADPH, and glucose.

b)

pump hydrogen ions into the stroma, producing a concentration gradient that will later be used by an enzyme to form ADP and phosphate.

c)

pump hydrogen ions into the thylakoid space, producing a concentration gradient that will later be used by ATP synthase to form ATP.

d)

create glucose directly.

143.

Why do hydrogen ions flow from the thylakoid space to the stroma through ATP synthase?

a)

They are pumped actively through the ATP synthase. This uses ATP energy and causes the production of ADP and phosphate.

b)

They flow through the Calvin cycle and produce light.

c)

Hydrogen ions do not actually flow from the thylakoid space to the stroma. They flow the opposite way.

d)

They flow passively from the high to low concentration via facilitated diffusion. As they flow through ATP synthase, the enzyme spins and produces ATP.

144.
Which of the following is NOT a reactant of the Calvin Cycle?
a)
NADPH
b)
ATP
c)
Oxygen
d)
Carbon dioxide
145.
During which phase of photosynthesis is O2 created?
a)
Light dependent reactions
b)
Calvin Cycle
c)
Citric Acid Cycle
d)
Glycolysis
146.
What energy production process is shown in the image?
a)
cellular respiration
b)
alcohol fermenation
c)
lactic acid fermenation
d)
citric acid cycle
147.
Why does sprinting lead to a burn in the muscles?
a)
The lack of oxygen leads to lactic acid fermentation
b)
The lack of oxygen leads to alcohol fermenation
c)
The increased oxygen consumption speeds up cellular respiration, overheating the muscles
d)
The decreased oxygen production overwhelms the signal proteins in your lungs
148.
What is produced through Glycolysis?
a)
Pyruvate
b)
2 molecules of pyruvate
c)
Acetyl Coenzyme-A
d)
2 molecules of acetyl coenzyme-A
149.
Yeast has the ability to undergo what?
a)
lactic acid fermentation
b)
alcohol fermentation
c)
photosynthesis
d)
photorespiration
150.
About how many molecules of ATP can be generated from one molecule of glucose?
a)
2
b)
6
c)
36
d)
4

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