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AP Psychology S1 Final Review

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This perspective says that behavior has an adaptive or survival value.

a)

evolutionary

b)

humanistic

c)

positive

d)

social

2.

An industrial-organizational psychologist would study the

a)

cognitive development of adults

b)

effectiveness of management training

c)

industrialization of the United States

d)

recreational activities in a community center

3.
Which professional specialty focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of people with psychological disorders?
a)
personality psychology
b)
biological psychology
c)
clinical psychology
d)
developmental psychology
4.
Which type of psychologist would most likely study a subject group from kindergarten to adulthood?
a)
Human-Factors
b)
Clinical
c)
Neuro
d)
Developmental
5.

Georgia wants to use her knowledge of psychology to help employees become more productive in the workplace. Which field of psychology should Martha select?

a)

industrial-organizational

b)

clinical

c)

educational

d)

developmental

6.

Which would a cognitive psychologist study?

a)

Conformity behavior of students

b)

Genetic determinants of behavior

c)

Problem-solving strategies in chess

d)

Maturational processes in adolescent development

7.
Which perspective would be most likely to state behavior is motivated by self-actualization and the promise of human potential?
a)
Evolutionary
b)
Humanistic
c)
Biochemical 
d)
Sociocultural
8.
Which perspective emphasizes the idea that we learn behaviors through rewards and punishment?
a)
Behavioral
b)
Humanistic
c)
Biochemical
d)
Cognitive
9.

The historical movement associated with the statement “the whole may exceed the sum of its parts” is:

a)

Parapsychology

b)

Depth cues

c)

Functional psychology

d)

Gestalt psychology

10.

Regina George (from the movie Mean Girls) is mean to her mother and gets what she wants, so she continues to be mean. This is an example of which approach?

a)

Humanistic

b)

Behavioral

c)

Cognitive

d)

Psychoanalytic

e)

Sociocultural

11.

Token economies would be use by which type of psychologist?

a)

Behavioral

b)

Psychodynamic

c)

Humanistic

d)

Evolutionary

12.
What is the mean of these numbers?
4,5,5,2,3,3,2,8
a)
40
b)
24
c)
4
d)
256
13.
Find the median:
3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 1
a)
3 and 4
b)
There isn't one
c)
3.5
d)
3
14.
What is the median of this data set?
7.3, 2.9, 1.5, 0.6, 3.8
a)
2.9
b)
3
c)
3.5
d)
4.3
15.

At Donald's Donuts the number of donut holes in a bag can vary. Help Donald find the MODE.

12,10,10,10,13,12,11,13,10

a)

10

b)

12

c)

10 and 12

d)

No Mode

16.

A disadvantage of longitudinal studies is that

a)

personality traits do not remain constant across the life span

b)

participants who drop out during the course of the study may be different in important ways from ones who don't drop out

c)

unfamiliarity with testing situations can put older participants at a disadvantage

17.
This is a method of research where an investigator manipulates one or more factors (independent variables) to observe the effect on some behavior or mental process (the dependent variable).
a)
Experiments
b)
Case Study
c)
Survey
d)
Observational
e)
Correlational
18.

A teacher finds the distribution of scores on a final exam to be positively skewed with low variability. On the basis of this information, the teacher would be most justified in concluding that

a)

the exam was too difficult

b)

the exam was too easy

c)

the exam was just right

19.

A test has a mean of 80 with a standard deviation of 4. Which of the following scores is within one standard deviation of the mean?

a)

75

b)

77

c)

86

d)

90

20.

In a normal distribution, which is true about the area that falls between one standard deviation above and one standard deviation below the mean?

a)

It contains the bottom 50% of the distribution.

b)

It contains the middle 50% of the distribution.

c)

It contains the bottom 68% of the distribution.

d)

It contains the middle 68% of the distribution.

21.

The scatter plot below shows the number of books read by students in Mrs. Hall’s English class and their final grades. Which statement represents the best description about the line of best fit?

a)

A) The more books students read, the lower their English grade.

b)

B) The more books students read, the higher their English grade.

c)

C) The fewer books students read, the higher their English grade.

d)

D) No relationship exists between the number of books students read and their English grades.

22.

What type of correlation (association)?

The outside temperature and the amount of layers you wear.

a)

A) Positive correlation

b)

B) Negative correlation

c)

D) No correlation

23.

Estimate the correlation coefficient for this scatterplot.

a)

A) r = -0.9

b)

B) r = 1

c)

C) r = 0.9

d)

D) r = -1

24.

Describe the correlation in the graph shown.

a)

A) Strong Negative

b)

B) Strong Positive

c)

C) Weak Negative

d)

D) No Correlation

25.

Estimate the correlation coefficient for this scatterplot.

a)

A) r = 1.2

b)

B) r = 0.89

c)

C)r = 0

d)

D) r = -0.89

26.

Which of the following is the strongest correlation?

a)

-.93

b)

-.17

c)

.23

d)

.84

27.
What percentage of the population score within one standard deviation above and below the mean?
a)
95%
b)
14%
c)
68%
d)
50%
28.
Given a normal distribution of scores, ___% of scores fall within 1 standard deviation, __% fall within 2, and %___ fall within 3.
a)
25, 50, 75
b)
68, 95, 99
c)
34, 68, 99
d)
13.5, 34, 68
29.

Standard deviation is a measure of how much...

a)

A normal person's behavior changes in a given time

b)

Two sets of score vary together

c)

Difference there is between the highest and lowest score in a sample

d)

Scores in a group differ from the mean of that group

e)

Scores from a sample differ from that of the population

30.

In order to prove a cause-and-effect relationship, we must use
a)

•naturalistic observation.

b)

the experimental method
c)

human subjects
d)

correlation coefficients
31.

Which of the following methods best limits the influence of unknown variables in an experiment?

a)

Random assignment

b)

Debriefing

c)

Stratified Sampling

d)

Subject matching

e)

Correlational study

32.

Which of the following research approaches would be best for testing the hypothesis that the presence of certain odors causes people to gamble more?

a)

Experimental

b)

Naturalistic Observation

c)

Correlational

d)

Survey

e)

Case study

33.

Which of the following is used to reduce the effects of confounding variables in experiments?

a)

Descriptive statistics

b)

Inferential statistics

c)

Meta-analysis

d)

An algorithm

e)

Random assignment

34.

Students from a journalism class ask only their friends to participate in a school newspaper survey and neglect to ask the rest of the student body. The journalism students' data may not be generalizable due to...

a)

A lack of debriefing

b)

Sampling bias

c)

Participant bias

d)

Social desirability bias

e)

Placebo effects

35.

Ethical principles developed by the American Psychological Association (APA) help ensure that human participants in psychological research...

a)

Get paid for their time and trouble

b)

Have not participated in similar research in the past

c)

Are protected from physical and psychological harm

d)

Understand the ypotheses of the researcher before they take part

e)

Keep the purposes of the research project confidential

36.

Testing Freshmen, Sophomores, and Juniors at the beginning of the school year demonstrates which research design?

a)

longitudinal

b)

naturalistic observation

c)

case study

d)

cross-sectional

37.

Does a reason have to be given to withdraw from a study?

a)

Yes

b)

No

38.

I carry out research on chemical weapons. I test some chemicals on people who are in prison. Some want to withdraw from the experiments but I don't let them. They're prisoners so I can do what I want to them. Which ethical research rule have I not respected?

a)

informed consent

b)

cause no harm

c)

right to withdraw

d)

confidentiality

e)

deceptive practices

39.
Which of the following is the component of the limbic system that plays an essential role in the processing of new memories?
a)
medulla
b)
hippocampus
c)
thalamus
d)
hypothalamus
40.
Shows brain activity when radioactively tagged glucose rushes to active neurons.
a)
MRI
b)
EEG
c)
fMRI
d)
PET
41.
What lobe of the brain processes visual information?
a)
Frontal 
b)
Parietal 
c)
Temporal 
d)
Occipital
42.
The medulla is to the control of ________ as the cerebellum is to the control of ________
a)
eating; sleeping
b)
memory; attention
c)
breathing; walking
d)
emotion; motivation
43.
The part of the brain that controls life-sustaining functions, such as heartbeat, breathing, and swallowing, is the:
a)
cerebral cortex.
b)
cerebellum.
c)
medulla.
d)
hippocampus.
44.
language area in the prefrontal cortex that helps to control speech production
a)
Broca's area
b)
auditory cortex
c)
visual cortex
d)
Wernicke's area
45.
emotional center of brain that also plays roles in smell, motivation, memory
a)
endocrine system
b)
nervous system
c)
limbic system
d)
gland system
46.

This machine is uses electrodes attached to one's scalp to record the electrical activity of large portions of the brain.

a)

MRI

b)

CAT

c)

PET

d)

electroencephalograph

47.

What does Wernicke's Aphasia affect

a)

vision and hearing

b)

all senses

c)

speech and language comprehension

d)

smelling and speech

48.

Which part of the brain helps to control emotions, especially fear and rage?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Occipital Lobe

d)

Medulla

e)

Pons

49.

Difficulty in typing smoothly on a keyboard would most likely result from damage to the

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Lateral ventricle

e)

Cerebellum

50.

Which are of the brain is not well developed until after three years of age, offering a possible explanation for infantile amnesia?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Pons

d)

Thalamus

e)

Hippocampus

51.
Regulates your hunger, thirst, body temperature
a)
hypothalamus
b)
Cerebrum
c)
Amygdala
d)
reticular formation
52.

This controls sleep, breathing, and hearing. It is part of the brain stem

a)

corpus callosum

b)

thalamus

c)

pons

d)

limbic system

53.
a)
Cerebellum
b)
Brain Stem
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Temporal Lobe
54.
a)
Corpus Callosum
b)
Amygdala
c)
Thalamus
d)
Hypothalamus
55.
Which structure is E?
a)
midbrain
b)
thalamus
c)
pons
d)
hypothalamus
56.
After a stressful or scary situation, your body starts to calm back down.  What subsystem controls this shift back to regular functioning? 
a)
Sympathetic
b)
Parasympathetic
c)
Somatic
d)
Peripheral
57.

In extreme cases, surgically severing the corpus callosum is a treatment for which of the following conditions?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Narcolepsy

d)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

e)

Major depressive disorder

58.

In the figure above, where do selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have their initial effect?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

59.

Alexa is presenting a project in front of her class. She starts sweating and her heart rate increases. This is an example of the autonomic nervous system, sympathetic division.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Testosterone is linked with aggressive behavior.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

A polygraph machine is often called a “lie detector,” although it does not detect lies. Instead, it responds to changes in....

a)

autonomic arousal

b)

genetic makeup

c)

motivational level

d)

cognitive states

62.
damage this area and we would continue to eat
a)
ventromedial hypothalamus
b)
lateral hypothamalus
63.
if we damage this structure we would starve to death
a)
ventromedial hypothalmus
b)
lateral hypothalamus
64.

Which region of your brainstem plays a role in arousing you to a state of alertness when someone nearby mentions your name?

a)

reticular formation

b)

cerebellum

c)

hypothalamus

d)

amygdala

e)

medulla

65.
Controls arousal  (sleepiness and awakefulness)
a)
Reticular Formation
b)
Thalamus
c)
Amygdala
d)
Medulla
66.
Which of the following might help Larry see the subtle difference between two colors the best?
a)
The cones in the fovea
b)
The cones in the peripheral of the retnia
c)
The rods in the fovea
d)
The rods in the peripheral of the retina
67.
Which theory of color vision states that the thalmaus will produce afterimages of black-white, red-green, and blue-yellow colors when overly stimulated?
a)
Young-Helmholtz
b)
Place
c)
Parallel Processing
d)
Opponent Processing
68.

In the human eye, rods are to _________, as cones are to ________.

a)

light/ color

b)

color/ light

c)

monochromat/ dichromat

d)

dichromat/ monochromat

e)

lens/ iris

69.

A reason that one typically does not notice a blind spot in the visual field

a)

the blind spot is too small

b)

most stimuli affect only one visual hemisphere

c)

the blind spot habituates to a stimulus when the head is held still

d)

the brain fills in missing information so there is no awareness the visual field is incomplete

70.

A sound is often detected by one ear more intensely and a fraction of a second earlier than it is detected by the other ear. These cues help individuals determine the

a)

pitch

b)

absolute threshold

c)

location of the source

d)

frequency

71.

Jill has to wear an eye patch over one eye. Which cue would she use to make judgments about the distance objects are from her?

a)

Convergence

b)

Linear Perspective

c)

Binocular disparity

d)

Closure

72.

If you are expecting an important text message, you are much more likely to notice the sound as soon as the message arrives. This best illustrates...

a)

priming

b)

signal detection theory

c)

difference threshold

d)

absolute threshold

e)

Weber's law

73.
Rather than saying a person is “colorblind,” it would be more accurate to say that the person:
a)
has a blind spot.
b)
lacks red- or green-sensitive cones.
c)
is experiencing an overstimulation of the red- and green-sensitive cones.
d)
has an excess of blue-sensitive cones. 
74.
Makers of 3-D movies rely most heavily on:
a)
the visual cliff.
b)
the Müller-Lyer illusion.
c)
retinal disparity.
d)
shape constancy.
75.
Which of the following activities requires you to use the absolute threshold for sensation? 
a)
telling the difference between sweet and salty
b)
detecting a tiny, faint light on a radar screen
c)
deciding if two glasses contain the same amount of water
d)
telling if your guitar is in tune
76.
What does this picture show?
a)
similarity
b)
closure
c)
figure ground
d)
Connectedness
77.

Which of the following types of cells are located in the brain's occipital lobe?

a)

cochlea cells

b)

feature detectors

c)

rods and cones

d)

bipolar cells

78.

Frequency theory best explains _______, while place theory best explains ________.

a)

how we process red, green, and blue light; why we experience color afterimages

b)

how we perceive low-pitched sounds; how we perceive high-pitched sounds

c)

how touch sensations involve more than tactile stimulation; why stroking a pressure spot leads to the sensation of a tickle

d)

how phantom limb sensations occur; how stimulation of the larger fibers in the spinal cord stop pain

79.
Olfaction refers to which sense?
a)
Smell
b)
Taste
c)
Touch
d)
Sight
80.
Clues about distance requiring two eyes.
a)
monocular depth cues
b)
place theory
c)
binocular depth cues
81.
The idea that pain can only be experienced if pain messages can pass through a gate in the spinal cord on their way to the brain.
a)
place theory
b)
gate control theory
c)
opponent process theory
82.

The Visual Cliff experiment revealed that infants had developed _____

a)

depth perception

b)

visual receptors

c)

ganglion cells

d)

selective attention

83.
This theory states that we can lessen some pains by shifting our attention away from pain impulses.  
a)
Pain perception method
b)
Gate-Control Theory
c)
Acute sensation deprivation
d)
Theory of relativity
84.
A binocular cue that allows for depth perception when images from the two eyes differ 
a)
Relative size 
b)
Color Constancy
c)
Linear perception
d)
Retinal Disparity
85.

Which is the correct path a neural impulse will follow through the different layers of the retina?

a)

Bipolar cells, ganglion cells, rods and cones, optic nerve

b)

Rods and cones, ganglion cells, bipolar cells, optic nerve

c)

Rods and cones, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, optic nerve

d)

Ganglion cells, bipolar cells, rods and cones, optic nerve

86.

The fact that we don't read the two "the's" in this image demonstrates how our expectations can override our sensory input. What is this process called?

a)

Bottom-Up Processing

b)

Top-Down Processing

c)

Selective Attention

d)

Inattentional Blindness

87.

what Gestalt rule makes these black shapes look like a panda with no connecting lines?

a)

Proximity

b)

continuity

c)

closure

d)

similarity

88.

What gestalt principal lets me know that black chess pieces are in a different group than white chess pieces?

a)

Continuity

b)

Closure

c)

Similarity

d)

proximity

89.

Which statement about the perception of taste is true?

a)

Older adults experience decreases in sense of smell making it difficult to perceive flavor

b)

The primary tastes are spicy, sour, salty, bitter, and sweet.

c)

Taste receptors are located exclusively on the tip of the tongue.

d)

Infants do not perceive taste until 12 months old

90.

A type of snoring in which the person stops breathing for 10 seconds or more.

a)

Sleep Apnea

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

Microsleep

d)

Insomnia

91.

The inability to get to sleep, stay asleep, or get a good quality of sleep.

a)

Insomnia

b)

Sleep Apnea

c)

Narcolepsy

d)

Microsleep

92.

Drugs that increase the functioning of the nervous system. Amphetamines, Cocaine, Nicotine, Caffeine.

a)

Stimulants

b)

Depressants

c)

Hallucinogenics

93.
Smith is an 18-year-old male who reportedly has trouble sitting in class. He complains of not being able to get to sleep at night.  Every day Smith reports taking a drug to help him stay alert in class.  What drug is Smith taking? 
a)
alcohol
b)
heroin
c)
marijuana 
d)
caffeine 
94.

Caffeine and nicotine are in the same class as _______

a)

alcohol

b)

cocaine

c)

valium

d)

tranquilizers

95.

Which psychoactive drug increases nervous system activity?

a)

cocaine

b)

alcohol

c)

morphine

d)

barbiturates

96.

In which stage do vivid dreams occur?

a)

REM

b)

NREM-1

c)

NREM-2

d)

NREM-3

97.

Which disorder is characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks, in which a sufferer may slip directly into REM sleep

a)

Insomnia

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

Sleep Apnea

d)

Night Terrors

98.
Which dream theory suggests dreams are the mind's attempt to make sense of random neural activity in the brain while one sleeps?
a)
information processing
b)
physiological function
c)
activation synthesis
d)
cognitive development
99.

Which is generally associated with the use of hallucinogens?

a)

Decreased pain sensation and decreased anxiety

b)

The experience of vivid, distorted images that are not based on sensory input

c)

Slower bodily functions

d)

The experience of brief euphoria followed by a depressive state

100.
A little girl gets to eat dessert because she finished all the food on her plate. This is an example of:  
a)
Positive punishment
b)
Negative punishment
c)
Positive Reinforcement
d)
Negative Reinforcement
101.
When Little Albert generalized his fear of the white rat that meant 
a)
he feared all furry things
b)
he distinguished between the bell and the gong
c)
he learned the association between the gong and the rat
d)
he suddenly feared rats after successful extinction
102.
Carly used to feel nausea when going to McDonalds because she associated the food with illness.  After a few good meals there, she no longer feels the nausea. Which prinicple?
a)
spontaneous recovery
b)
extinction
c)
second-order conditioning
d)
generalization
103.
Parents say, “I’m taking away your phone because you failed Chemistry.”  Parents are using           
a)
positive punishment
b)
negative punishment
c)
positive reinforcement
d)
classical conditioning
104.
Dylan’s mother buys him a sailor’s cap before they go on a family fishing trip. On the boat, Dylan gets nauseated and vomits. Th e next day he gets nauseated just from looking at the sailor’s cap. Th e sailor’s cap has become:
a)
The unconditioned stimulus
b)
The conditioned stimulus
c)
The conditioned response
d)
The unconditioned response
105.
In the Little Albert experiment, the Unconditioned Stimulus is the:
a)
loud noise
b)
fear
c)
rat
d)
mother
106.
After being bitten by her neighbor's dog, Ana is now scared of all dogs. 
 Her fear has been
a)
generalized
b)
extinct
c)
discrimination
107.
Law of effect
a)
Carl Rogers
b)
Edward Thorndike
c)
Benjamin Whorf
d)
Howard Gardner
108.

Behavior: Stanley gets straight As


Consequence: Parents release him from his grounding

a)

+ reinforcement

b)

-- reinforcement

c)

+ punishment

d)

-- punishment

109.
A memory from our own personal life is a
a)
Echoic Memory
b)
Prospective Memory
c)
Episodic Memory
d)
Semantic Memory
110.
Part of LTM that stores memories of how things are done.
a)
Declarative memory
b)
Acoustic memory
Elaborative memory
c)
Acoustic memory
d)
Procedural memory
111.

Your teacher asked you what you did this weekend. You state "I went to the Yankees game and a Broadway play." This is an example of ________ memory.

a)

semantic

b)

episodic

c)

procedural

d)

personal

112.

A basic assumption underlying short-term memory is that it is

a)

unlimited in capacity

b)

limited in capacity

c)

long-lasting

d)

resistant to decay

113.

Hermann Ebbinghaus tested his memory using combinations of three-letter nonsense syllables. Which of the following graphs best represents his findings about the relationship between forgetting and time?

a)
b)
c)
114.

In Elizabeth Loftus’ study of memory reconstruction in which students viewed films of an automobile accident, the major influence on recall was the....

a)

number of pictures the students were shown of the accident

b)

location of the accident

c)

wording of questions the students were asked about the accident

d)

sex and age of student

115.

Learning how to swim would be an example of which type of memory?

a)

procedural

b)

short-term

c)

semantic

d)

sensory

116.

Jayla reads her history assignments and tries to memorize each fact. Emma studies by trying to relate the new information to things she has experienced or seen in movies. Emma scores better due to differences in

a)

selective attention

b)

source monitoring

c)

levels of processing

d)

clustering

117.

Genie was a girl who endured abusive and neglectful conditions and was deprived of language exposure until she was rescued at age 13. Despite remediation, Genie was unable to learn to speak fluently. Historically, this case study was used to demonstrate the effects of....

a)

critical periods

b)

temperament

c)

linguistic determinism

d)

cognitive dissonance

118.

According to research by Fergus I. M. Craik and Endel Tulving on levels of processing, which of the following would most improve the ability to recall the word “umbrella”?

a)

Mentally spelling the word “umbrella”

b)

Deciding whether an umbrella would be useful to pack for a trip

c)

Counting the number of syllables in the word “umbrella”

d)

Deciding whether the word “umbrella” rhymes with the word “banana”

119.

A disadvantage of using Alfred Binet’s concept of mental age in assessing intelligence is that....

a)

it is inappropriate for adults

b)

it is based on a negatively skewed distribution

c)

its norms are no longer appropriate

d)

it produces unreliable test results among rural children

120.

Charles Spearman’s concept of g is most accurately defined as...

a)

a single, underlying intellectual capacity measured by intelligence tests

b)

a specific type of performance that is affected by intelligence

c)

the ability to create novel solutions to complex situations

121.

Michael, who has an IQ of 60, is able to do complex calculations in his head, regardless of the size of the numbers. When he is with his family and friends, he does not engage socially; he focuses on his numerical calculations. Which of the following best describes these characteristics?

a)

Savant Syndrome

b)

Antisocial personality disorder

c)

Downs Syndrome

d)

Giftedness

122.

Research on stereotype threat indicates that students might not do as well as they can on a test if

a)

other students perceive them to be of a minority ethnic group

b)

the group taking the test is not ethnically diverse

c)

they are informed that people of their ethnicity, age, or gender usually do not perform well on the tests

123.

Which of the following is the best example of fluid intelligence?

a)

Reciting the names of all the continents in the world without looking at a map

b)

Using cubes to figure out the solution to a previously unseen puzzle

c)

Giving an adequate definition of a difficult word

124.

Which of the multiple intelligences posited by Howard Gardner is most closely related to the concept of emotional intelligence?

a)

linguistic

b)

intrapersonal

c)

spatial

d)

kinesthetic