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SEM 2 Midterm 2019-2020

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is an activity that agents perform on behalf of the athletes they represent?

a)

B. Hall of fame endorsements

b)

Team contract negotiations only

c)

Team valuation services

d)

Various contract negotiations

2.

The National Hockey Association drafted Ty Hartman. Ty hired Amanda Bingham to help him make sound business decisions, and to negotiate endorsement contracts with well-known companies. Amanda serves which role for Ty?

a)

Sponsor

b)

Agent

c)

Mentor

d)

Publicist

3.

Who do athletes sometimes hire to help them organize charity tournaments?

a)

Recrutiers

b)

Agents

c)

Marketing Firms

d)

Sponsors

4.
Which of the following is an unacceptable place to use an athlete's or celebrity's identity without his/her permission:
a)
In a magazine
b)
On your company's advertisements
c)
In a book
d)
On the news
5.
Which of the following is an unfair, anticompetitive trade practice in sport/event marketing:
a)
Trademark infringement
b)
Loss prevention
c)
Employee strike
d)
Sponsorship exclusivity
6.
Which law makes restraining free trade and competition illegal?
a)
The Sherman Antitrust Act
b)
The Lanham Act
c)
The National Labor Relations Act
d)
The Sports Broadcasting Act of 1961
7.
The best way to avoid buying counterfeit tickets to a game/event is to purchase them
a)
from reputable scalpers.
b)
several months in advance.
c)
at an online auction site.
d)
at official ticket outlets.
8.
When negotiations between a players' union and the owners' organization cannot be reached, the players
might vote to determine if they should
a)
go on strike.
b)
play for international leagues.
c)
become free agents.
d)
ask for fan support.
9.
When professional athletes negotiate salaries, playing conditions, and contract terms as a single unit, their
union is engaging in
a)
competitive advantage.
b)
labor resistance.
c)
free agency.
d)
collective bargaining.
10.
Salaries, contracts, and profit sharing are often the issues that create conflicts between sports' leagues and
a)
team owners.
b)
sponsoring organizations.
c)
individual managers.
d)
players' associations.
11.
Which of the following is an example of a governing body in the sport industry:
a)
International Olympic Committee
b)
NCAA Men's Basketball Championship
c)
Washington Nationals Baseball Team
d)
Rahal Letterman Lanigan Racing
12.
When a sporting-goods manufacturer decides to sell to businesses located in another country, it should
consider the country's
a)
profit margins.
b)
trade restrictions.
c)
cost of goods.
d)
selling motives.
13.
Which of the following are trade barriers that are likely to limit a sport-equipment manufacturer's ability to
export its products to foreign countries:
a)
Trade agreements and industrialization
b)
Licenses and outputs
c)
Quotas and tariffs
d)
Globalization and embargoes
14.
Which of the following presents the greatest challenge for U.S. companies when developing a plan to sell
movies in foreign countries:
a)
Language barrier in promotion
b)
Cost of foreign monetary exchange
c)
Uncertainty about government policies
d)
Lack of interest by foreign customers
15.

Which is the first step that a business should take when collecting marketing information from its customers?

a)

Develop a rating scale

b)

Determine the survey method

c)

Obtain secondary data

d)

Define research objectives

16.
A business that randomly surveys 200 customers to learn their opinions about a new product is collecting
__________ marketing information.
a)
scientific
b)
confidential
c)
primary
d)
technical
17.
Businesses collect marketing information from other sources in order to find out what is happening in the
a)
research department.
b)
external environment.
c)
parent corporation.
d)
internal organization.
18.

Businesses often collect marketing information from customers in order to learn how to do which?

a)

Earn the highest profits

b)

Meet specific design standards

c)

Sell best in certain locations

d)

Qualify for vendor discounts

19.
When analyzing the historical data in a data warehouse, which of the following is true of its data:
a)
Related data are grouped together in folders.
b)
The data change as modifications are made to the database.
c)
The data are static.
d)
Data maintain the uniqueness provided in their operational applications.
20.
What should businesses try to achieve when manipulating data for information analysis?
a)
Exploratory research
b)
Secondary information
c)
Program development
d)
Accurate interpretation
21.

Which is useful marketing information that a business might obtain by analyzing a customer database?

a)

Expense involved in developing a customer database

b)

Average customer who is married and a homeowner earning $50,000 a year

c)

Federal identification numbers for current and past customers

d)

Total sales for each month of the previous year

22.
When marketing researchers review the level of affiliation between two variables, they are evaluating the
___________ of data components.
a)
affirmation
b)
predictability
c)
correlation
d)
sensitivity
23.
One reason that seat licenses and premium seating are growing trends in sport/event marketing is because
these practices are
a)
sales policies.
b)
pricing strategies.
c)
advertising methods.
d)
revenue sources.
24.

Which is a trend in the sports or event industry?

a)

Premium seating options are yielding less revenue for sports or event facilities than other types of seating.

b)

Relationship marketing is becoming less important to sports or event organizations as technology evolves.

c)

Due to the high level of media clutter, fewer businesses are participating in sports or event sponsorships.

d)

Sports or event facilities are evolving into complete entertainment centers with interactive activities.

25.
The NHL, the NFL, and the CFL are becoming more interested in investing in the development of
recreational sports for youths in order to
a)
appeal to low-income individuals.
b)
encourage sedentary lifestyles.
c)
comply with local regulations.
d)
attract more fans.
26.
One of the main portions of a marketing report describes the research methods and the
a)
industry review standards.
b)
data collection procedures.
c)
technical terminology.
d)
consulting expenses.
27.
An effective technique to use when giving an oral presentation of report findings and recommendations is to
keep the presentation
a)
relatively simple.
b)
technically oriented.
c)
free from detail.
d)
on a complex level.
28.
Stephanie has completed a market-research project to identify changing consumer trends that will affect
her company and its market position. She has learned many interesting demographic trends occurring in
the population. What type of data should she include in her report to management?
a)
Information that is relevant to the marketing decisions that management must make
b)
All the information collected so management can decide what is important
c)
Information that applies only to people not currently part of the target market
d)
Information that applies only to the company's current target market
29.
An effective method of presenting complex report findings and recommendations to a large group of
managers involves the use of
a)
scientific data.
b)
computer software.
c)
informal outlines.
d)
handmade graphics.
30.
When writing marketing reports, researchers should make sure that they include a section about
a)
populations.
b)
qualifications.
c)
regulations.
d)
limitations.
31.
The main portion of a marketing report that explains the research findings should include
a)
summaries and recommendations.
b)
technical appendixes and indexes.
c)
data-collection procedures.
d)
supporting tables and graphs.
32.
Copies of questionnaires, interview forms, and other technical documents are often included in what part of
a marketing report?
a)
Analysis
b)
Introduction
c)
Summary
d)
Appendix
33.
What part of a marketing-research report would be mentioned only briefly in an oral presentation?
a)
Research methods
b)
Relevant information
c)
Pertinent data
d)
Research findings
34.
Obtaining the right to name a sport or entertainment event is often one of the objectives of a(n)
a)
franchise arrangement.
b)
sponsorship.
c)
affiliation.
d)
licensing agreement.
35.

Wheels wants to promote its product line of in-line skates to young males under the age of 35. Which sponsorship opportunity would best attract the exposure the company seeks on a very limited budget?

a)

Olympic opening ceremony

b)

Extreme-sporting event

c)

Pro-football game

d)

Affinity-sporting event

36.

Which type of sponsorship objective involves bartering for goods and services?

a)

Cost avoidance

b)

Revenue generation

c)

Activation

d)

Promotion

37.

Sports or event marketers often identify the sponsorship potential of a specific business by researching the company’s sponsorship history and understanding which component?

a)

sponsorship objectives

b)

manufacturing methods

c)

financial policies

d)

quantity standards

38.

Which establishment would an event marketer most likely contact when seeking sponsorship for an upcoming auto race?

a)

Nonprofit organizations

b)

Related businesses

c)

Athletic competitors

d)

Charitable organizations

39.

Why should sports or event marketers develop proof-of-performance packages for sponsors?

a)

To provide information about the facility

b)

To explain the type of sport or event

c)

To list the important participants

d)

To help sponsors justify the investment

40.

Which is the first step in a sponsorship presentation?

a)

Create interest in an organization or event.

b)

Give event details

c)

Create interest in the sponsorship opportunity.

d)

Explain how the prospective sponsor can get involved.

41.
Your hockey team receives free skates from Nike as part of Nike's payment of its sponsorship fee. This
arrangement is known as
a)
exploitation.
b)
relationship marketing.
c)
exclusivity.
d)
value in kind (VIK).
42.
Bank of America is the only bank affiliated with your sport/event organization. This benefit is called
a)
value in kind (VIK).
b)
exclusivity.
c)
"ownership."
d)
presenting sponsorship.
43.
To create or maintain a certain image, companies sponsor sport/event organizations that display
characteristics they want consumers to associate with their products. This is one way of enhancing
a)
relationship marketing.
b)
sales and sampling opportunities.
c)
exclusivity.
d)
public relations.
44.
What is the best way to present your proposal to potential sponsor companies?
a)
Over the phone
b)
Via teleconference
c)
Through the mail
d)
In person
45.

When a venue is important to sell, it is part of which component?

a)

Market

b)

Facility

c)

Location

d)

Product

46.

What is the salesperson doing in this situation? A salesperson says to a potential client: “The luxury boxes of an arena have plenty of space to entertain business clients; and the catering staff can help plan the menu for game-day festivities.”

a)

Addressing objections

b)

Describing amenities

c)

Determining needs

d)

Reaching closure

47.
Taco Bell doesn't want its message to get lost among the messages of your team's other sponsors, so you
offer to name the pregame show "The Taco Bell Pregame Report." This benefit is called
a)
sales and sampling opportunities.
b)
"ownership."
c)
exclusivity.
d)
fund-raising opportunities.
48.
When writing a proposal for a potential sponsor, sport/event marketers should clearly emphasize
sponsorship value and:
a)
deadlines.
b)
liability.
c)
benefits.
d)
confidentiality.
49.
An important part of negotiating a sport/event sponsorship contract involves both the sport/event and the
sponsor agreeing on the
a)
date and time of the sport/event.
b)
fee and payment schedule.
c)
size and interest of the audience.
d)
cost of planning and production.
50.
When preparing a sponsorship agreement, it is important for the sport/event to include detailed information
concerning the sponsor's
a)
marketing rights.
b)
selling policies.
c)
financing sources.
d)
hiring practices.
51.
A sponsorship agreement between a sport team and a local business should
a)
benefit both parties.
b)
provide tangible rewards.
c)
guarantee results.
d)
include third-party input.
52.
Three days after presenting a sponsorship proposal to Kula-Kola Beverage Company, Caitlin calls the
company's president and asks her/him if s/he has any questions or concerns about the proposal. What selling
activity is Caitlin performing?
a)
She is communicating sponsorship benefits.
b)
She is upselling the level of sponsorship.
c)
She is following up with the potential client.
d)
She is negotiating terms with a vendor.
53.

Immediately following a meeting with a potential event sponsor, an event organizer should perform which task?

a)

Adjust the pricing options in order to obtain the sale

b)

E-mail a copy of the proposal to the decision-maker

c)

Ask the meeting participants for sponsorship referrals

d)

Send a thank-you card to each of the meeting participants

54.

A sports or event planner contacting a local business about supporting an upcoming tennis tournament is an example of which potential role?

a)

Participants

b)

Corporate sponsors

c)

Paying customers

d)

Spectators

55.
An event organizer is most likely to receive grant or foundation funding if the event
a)
benefits the community.
b)
has national media coverage.
c)
includes celebrity appearances.
d)
appeals to a large target market.
56.
Because a prospective sponsor may have questions about the sponsorship proposal, an event organizer should
plan to
a)
reinforce important deadlines.
b)
conduct follow-up activities.
c)
evaluate sponsorship activities.
d)
discuss sponsorship benefits.
57.

Which is the most efficient and inexpensive way for a local youth-soccer-camp director to locate organizations that offer grant money?

a)

Mail color brochures to all local businesses

b)

Make cold calls to national corporations

c)

Conduct online research

d)

Develop a sales letter

58.
What do amateur sport organizations often solicit in order to be able to operate?
a)
Grant money
b)
Media coverage
c)
Free publicity
d)
Playing time
59.

To obtain operating funds, a not-for-profit sports camp for underprivileged children might seek which option?

a)

Grant or foundation monies

b)

Celebrity endorsements

c)

Capital-improvement loans

d)

Tax refunds from the community

60.
By assigning a staff member to communicate and coordinate activities with each of its sponsors, a
sport/event organization facilitates goodwill by
a)
creating expanded advertising opportunities.
b)
maximizing mass-media exposure.
c)
processing special orders.
d)
providing efficient, ongoing service.
61.
Sending newsletters, acknowledging efforts, providing extra benefits, and asking opinions are ways that
event organizers
a)
improve their brands.
b)
advertise their products.
c)
encourage vendor loyalty.
d)
service their sponsors.
62.

Which is an example of publicity in the sports or event industry?

a)

The national soccer league secures advertising spots on network television stations.

b)

A business owner purchases baseball uniforms and equipment for a Little League team.

c)

A local newspaper prints a human-interest story about a college volleyball player.

d)

The International Olympic Committee elects a new president to its governing boar.

63.
What is a benefit to a sports team of coordinating outreach projects with local community organizations?
a)
Generates public support for a team
b)
Attracts athletes from other sports
c)
Decreases the need to advertise
d)
Improves relations with the media
64.

Sports or event organizations need to build positive relationships with the media because they have which characteristic?

a)

The means to spread news to the masses

b)

Very few regulations that they must follow

c)

The ability to control advertising sponsors

d)

Little control over what is considered newsworthy

65.

Which is a true statement about ambush marketing?

a)

It relies on celebrity endorsements to become an official event sponsor.

b)

A business pays a sponsorship fee to be associated with an event

c)

Most businesses believe that ambush marketing is an ethical practice.

d)

It uses questionable tactics to connect a nonsponsoring business with an event.

66.

Which is an example of using a special event as a sales-promotion strategy to increase ticket sales?

a)

Advertising prices in a community publication

b)

Holding a contest during a game or performance

c)

Using telemarketers to contact a target audience

d)

Planning an interview with a popular columnist

67.
A sporting-goods company developed a humorous video and placed it on YouTube. Within three days, the
video was viewed 436,067 times, and many viewers linked the video to their Facebook pages to share with
their friends and family. What strategy did the sporting-goods company use to generate interest in its
organization and products?
a)
Loyalty programming
b)
Product placement
c)
Viral marketing
d)
"Pay-it-forward" advertising
68.

Which is an example of a sales promotion that uses a special event to increase high attendance rates at a professional baseball game?

a)

Baseball statistics and articles are printed in the game program.

b)

Free autographed baseballs are given to the first 100 attendees on Little League Day.

c)

The team’s logo merchandise is sold in the retail store located in the stadium.

d)

Concession stands offer bundled food and beverage items for a low price.

69.
An athletic shoe company that has no association with the Olympic games runs a television commercial
congratulating a track star for winning two gold medals. This is an example of
a)
sales promotion.
b)
copyright infringement.
c)
ambush marketing.
d)
nondesignated sponsorship.
70.

Which is an example of a viral marketing strategy?

a)

A blimp displaying a sporting-goods retail chain logo flies over a football stadium.

b)

A stadium banner shows a graphic of an ice-cold glass of a favorite soft drink

c)

An e-mail sender asks the message receiver to forward the message to 10 friends

d)

A local restaurant places a poster advertising a product near the entrance of a building.

71.
What variable might increase attendance at a professional soccer game?
a)
A postgame dinner for team players and their families
b)
Mass distribution of the team's sports program to the fans and media
c)
Offering a wide variety of food and beverages at the concession stands
d)
A pregame autograph and photo session for fans with the team's players
72.
The selection of a particular entertainer to endorse a new product should be directly linked to the
company's
a)
distribution.
b)
profitability.
c)
image.
d)
personality.
73.
What should every sport organization do before registering a trademark?
a)
Hire "logo cops" to look for counterfeit merchandise
b)
Conduct a trademark search for conflicting/similar marks
c)
Develop a licensing program
d)
Offer guidelines for consumers on how to distinguish real products from fake
74.
When an event planner seeks celebrity endorsements for an upcoming event, s/he should make sure they
are credible and
a)
resourceful.
b)
innovative.
c)
neutral.
d)
trustworthy.
75.
What portion of the license agreement specifies the exact begin and end dates of the contract?
a)
License grant
b)
Term
c)
Warranties and obligations
d)
Restrictions and requirements
76.
What does trade dress protect?
a)
The distinctive logo/graphics of a good or service
b)
The distinctive slogan of a good or service
c)
The distinctive appearance/image of a good or service
d)
The distinctive name of a good or service
77.
What does the license grant portion of the license agreement specify?
a)
The exact begin and end dates of the contract and processes for contract renewal
b)
Procedures to review the licensee's work
c)
Which properties are being licensed and what types of merchandise will be produced
d)
Details regarding payments
78.
One of the benefits to a business of using an advertising agency is that the
a)
business can promote its products less expensively.
b)
agency has an objective view of the marketplace.
c)
business will not need to prepare a promotional budget.
d)
agency may represent one of the business's competitors.
79.

Which is a factor that businesses often consider when selecting advertising agencies?

a)

Accounting system

b)

Performance record

c)

Work environment

d)

Staff organization

80.
A characteristic of a full-service advertising agency is that it contains a
a)
creative department.
b)
television studio.
c)
printing facility.
d)
talent agency.
81.

Which is the main characteristic of a full-service advertising agency?

a)

It does not limit its services to promotion.

b)

It does not provide services to individuals

c)

It specializes in providing creative services.

d)

It specializes in buying media time and space.

82.
One reason why many businesses contract with advertising agencies is to obtain
a)
marketing strategies.
b)
free publicity.
c)
copywriting services.
d)
operational advice.
83.

Which is an example of coordinating promotional activities?

a)

A business advertises a product and mails free samples to consumers.

b)

A business develops an annual schedule for window displays.

c)

A famous athlete endorses a product in television and magazine ads.

d)

Members of the distribution channel share advertising costs.

84.
A guideline to follow when preparing promotional budgets is to keep them flexible because they are
a)
concepts.
b)
objectives.
c)
forecasts.
d)
techniques.
85.
A business that uses advertised specials to attract customer interest should use displays to __________ that
interest.
a)
reinforce
b)
overcome
c)
surmount
d)
displace
86.
A small start-up company that sells its products to other businesses might consider allocating a large
portion of its promotional budget to __________ activities.
a)
publicity
b)
advertising
c)
research
d)
personal selling
87.

What is the primary factor that marketers must consider when allocating funds to the promotional budget?

a)

Promotional mix

b)

Corporate accounting system

c)

Inventory levels

d)

Size of the organization

88.

For which situation might a business decide to increase the percentage of net sales allocated to its promotional budget?

a)

Radio stations are charging more.

b)

Suppliers want more coverage.

c)

Consumers want more coupons

d)

Competitors are spending more.

89.
When should sport/event organizers consider hiring a promotional agency?
a)
Before corporate sponsors have been secured
b)
After a small event has established a positive reputation
c)
Upon hiring additional personnel to oversee promotional efforts
d)
If a large event is scheduled in many cities over time
90.
Many businesses coordinate a wide variety of promotional activities such as advertising, special events, and
displays in order to
a)
spread out promotional funds.
b)
reach a large audience.
c)
maintain appearances.
d)
keep employees occupied.
91.

Many businesses coordinate a wide variety of promotional activities, such as advertising, special events, and displays, in order to accomplish which goal?

a)

Spread out promotional funds

b)

Reach a large audience

c)

Maintain appearances

d)

Keep employees occupied

92.

Which component might a business lose if it fails to inform its employees about the goods and services being promoted?

a)

Sales

b)

Image

c)

Basics

d)

Credit

93.

Purchasing basic liability insurance protects the sports or event organization or facility from financial risks associated with which threat?

a)

Injuries

b)

Weather

c)

Terrorism

d)

Sales

94.

What type of insurance do event organizers purchase in order to cover spectator ticket refunds, sponsorship refunds, and vendor payments?

a)

Cancellation

b)

Property

c)

Accident

d)

Term

95.

An event planner should consider purchasing weather insurance for which event?

a)

Reception held at a country club

b)

Outdoor art show and festival

c)

Charity dinner and silent auction

d)

Indoor swimming competition

96.

When assessing risks associated with an upcoming event, sports or event organizations should acquire input from all levels of management and which other group?

a)

Local personnel inspectors

b)

Public relations agencies

c)

Financial consultants

d)

Vertical staff members

97.

What do sports or event marketers usually develop to be prepared for possible emergency or crisis situations?

a)

Transportation systems

b)

Publicity procedures

c)

Contingency plans

d)

Financial agreements

98.

The size, amenities, and location of a facility are important considerations when event planners perform which activity?

a)

Review advertisements

b)

Conduct site inspections

c)

Organize lists

d)

Select payment methods

99.

What do event planners often consider when conducting site inspections of properties that might be used for an event?

a)

Reservation list

b)

Expected gratuity

c)

Confirmation number

d)

Geographic location

100.

What factors might a concert promoter consider when conducting a facility inspection for an upcoming event?

a)

Load-in time and advertising costs

b)

Storage space and hospitality options

c)

Ticket design and equipment availability

d)

Concession arrangement and sponsorship costs

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