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Worksheets232
Total questions: 210
Worksheet time: 4hrs 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
For a system to be in equilibrium, the sum of external forces acting on the system must be _____.
a)
A maximum
b)
Equal to unity
c)
Zero
d)
Indeterminate
2.
The mass moment of inertia of a cylinder about its central axis perpendicular to a circular cross section is _____.
a)
Independent of its length
b)
Independent of its radius
c)
Directly proportional to its length
d)
Directly proportional to its radius
3.
An airtight closed box of weight P is suspended from a spring balance. A bird of weight W is placed on the floor of the box, and the balance reads W+P. If the bird flies around in the box at a constant elevation without accelerating, what is the balance reading?
a)
P+W
b)
P–W
c)
P
d)
P+2W
4.
The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the _____.
a)
First power
b)
Fourth power
c)
Fifth power
d)
Third power
5.
The vector which represents the sum of a group of force vectors is called the _____.
a)
Force polygon
b)
Magnitude
c)
Resultant
d)
Sum
6.
Which of the ff is not a vector quantity?
a)
Velocity
b)
Speed
c)
Acceleration
d)
Momentum
7.
A rigid body is subjected to three concurrent, coplanar forces. What is the minimum number of independent equations that are necessary to establish the equilibrium condition?
a)
0
b)
2
c)
3
d)
1
8.
Where can a couple be moved on a rigid body to have an equivalent effect?
a)
In a parallel plane
b)
Anywhere on the rigid body
c)
Along the perpendicular bisector joining the two original forces
d)
Along the line of action
9.
How many degrees of freedom does a coin rolling on the ground have?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
1
d)
5
10.
Which of the ff statement is false?
a)
The period of a simple pendulum is independent of the mass of the pendulum
b)
The frictional force always acts to resist motion
c)
The coefficient of restitution can be less than zero
d)
Momentum is conserved during elastic collision
11.
A perfect sphere moves up a frictionless incline. Which of the ff increase?
a)
a. Angular velocity
b)
Total energy
c)
Linear momentum
d)
Potential energy
12.
It is the study of motion and the forces that cause motion.
a)
Kinematics
b)
Rectilinear motion
c)
Kinetics
d)
Momentum
13.
It is the study of a body’s motion independent of the forces on the body.
a)
Momentum
b)
Kinematics
c)
Kinetics
d)
Rectilinear motion
14.
If the sum of forces on a particle is not equal to zero, the particle is _____.
a)
Moving with constant velocity on the direction of the resultant force
b)
Accelerating in the direction opposite to the resultant force
c)
Moving with constant velocity opposite to the direction of the resultant force
d)
Accelerating in the same direction as the resultant force
15.
The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to time is _____.
a)
Force
b)
Power
c)
Momentum
d)
Work
16.
16. The impulse momentum principle is mostly useful in solving problems involving _____.
a)
Velocity, Acceleration and Time
b)
Force, Velocity and Acceleration
c)
Force, Acceleration and Time
d)
Force, Velocity and Time
17.
The stress in elastic material is _____.
a)
Inversely proportional to strain
b)
Inversely proportional to the force acting
c)
Inversely proportional to the material’s yield strength
d)
Proportional to the displacement of the material acted upon by force
18.
The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the _____.
a)
Plastic range
b)
Elastic range
c)
Irreversible range
d)
Modulus of elongation
19.
The slenderness ration of a column is generally defined as the ratio of _____.
a)
Length to its minimum width
b)
Unsupported length to its maximum radius of gyration
c)
Unsupported length to its least radius of gyration
d)
Unsupported length to its maximum cross sectional area
20.
Principle stresses occur on those planes _____.
a)
Which 45° apart
b)
Where the shearing stress is zero
c)
Where the shearing stress is maximum
d)
Which are subjected only to tension
21.
The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross section of the beam to the section modulus is _____.
a)
Equal to the radius of gyration
b)
Multiplied by the bending moment to determine the stress
c)
A measure of distance
d)
Equal to the area of the cross section
22.
When air entertainment agent is introduced into concrete mix?
a)
The water cement ratio must be reduced from 10-15%
b)
The strength will increase
c)
The strength will decrease
d)
The strength will not be affected
23.
Structural steel element subjected to torsion develop _____.
a)
Tensile stress
b)
Compressive stress
c)
Shearing stress
d)
Moment
24.
The differential of the shear equation is which one of the ff?
a)
Bending moment of the beam
b)
Slope of the elastic curve
c)
Load on the beam
d)
Tensile strength of beam
25.
A vertically loaded beam, fixed at one end and simply supported at the other end is indeterminate to what degree?
a)
Fourth
b)
First
c)
Second
d)
Third
26.
In a stress-strain diagram, what is the correct term for the stress level at ℰ = 0.2% offset?
a)
The elastic limit
b)
The offset yield stress
c)
The offset rupture stress
d)
The plastic limit
27.
Under which type of loading does fatigue occur?
a)
Static load
b)
Plane load
c)
Repeated load
d)
High load
28.
A specimen is subjected to load. When the load is removed, the strain disappears. From this information, which of the ff can be deducted about this material?
a)
It is plastic
b)
It has high modulus of elasticity
c)
It is elastic
d)
It does not obey Hooke’s law
29.
Which of the ff may be the Poisson’s ration of a material?
a)
0.85
b)
0.55
c)
0.45
d)
0.50
30.
In bending of a rectangular beam under axial load, where is the location of maximum shear stress?
a)
At the bottom edge
b)
At the location between the top edge and the neutral axis
c)
At the neutral axis
d)
At the top edge
31.
What is the bending stress at a section of a loaded beam at its neutral axis?
a)
Equal to shear at that section
b)
A combination of both shear and moment at that section
c)
Zero
d)
Maximum stress at that section
32.
For a simply supported beam, where does the maximum shear stress occur?
a)
At the section of maximum moment
b)
At the support
c)
At the bottom fibers
d)
At the top fibers
33.
A point is located on the inside wall of a thin walled tank under internal pressure. The tank does not experience any torsion. What is the maximum shear stress at that point, considering all three orthogonal directions?
a)
Zero
b)
25% of the hoop stress
c)
50% of the hoop stress
d)
75% of the hoop stress
34.
Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the _____?
a)
Elastic limit to proportional limit
b)
Shear strain to compressive strain
c)
Unit lateral deformation to unit longitudinal deformation
d)
Unit stress to unit strain
35.
Which of the ff is not a basic component of motion of fluid element?
a)
Translation
b)
Twist
c)
Rotation
d)
Angular distortion
36.
For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the constant of proportionality between shear stress and what other variable?
a)
The time derivative of pressure
b)
The spatial derivative of density
c)
The time derivative of density
d)
The spatial derivative of velocity
37.
A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the ff is the main cause of this phenomenon?
a)
Gravity
b)
Surface tension
c)
Air resistance
d)
Viscosity of the fluid
38.
If the shear stress in the fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the ff describes the fluid?
a)
It is inviscid
b)
It is a perfect gas
c)
It is at constant temperature
d)
It is a Newton gas
39.
How are lines in constant pressure in a fluid related to the force field?
a)
They are parallel to the force field
b)
They are at a 45° angle to the force field
c)
They are perpendicular to the force field
d)
They are unrelated to the force fields
40.
Which of the ff is most accurate about a streamline?
a)
It is fixed in space in steady flow
b)
It is defined for non-uniform flow only
c)
It is a path of fluid particle
d)
It is perpendicular to the path line
41.
Under what condition is mass conserved in fluid flow?
a)
The fluid is baratropic
b)
The flow is isentropic
c)
It is always conserved
d)
The flow is adiabatic
42.
What is the origin of the energy conservation equation used in flow systems?
a)
The second law of thermodynamics
b)
The first law of thermodynamics
c)
Newton’s first law of motion
d)
Newton’s second law of motion
43.
Which of the ff is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?
a)
Fourier’s law
b)
The continuity equation
c)
The principle of conservation of energy
d)
The principle of conservation of mass
44.
What are the units of Reynolds number for pipe flow?
a)
m/s
b)
sq.ft/s
c)
No unit
d)
lb./ft-sec
45.
Which of the ff ratio is correct in providing a physical meaning for the Reynolds number?
a)
Buoyant force/Inertial force
b)
Inertial force/Viscous force
c)
c. Viscous force/Inertial force
d)
Drag force/Viscous force
46.
What is the friction factor for fully developed flow in circular pipe where Reynolds number is 1000?
a)
0.10
b)
0.064
c)
0.08
d)
0.008
47.
For fully developed laminar flow of fluids through pipes, the average velocity is what fraction of the maximum velocity in pipe?
a)
½
b)
¼
c)
1/8
d)
¾
48.
How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of pure gaseous compound?
a)
4
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
49.
Which of the ff is true for water at reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?
a)
Entropy is non zero
b)
Vapor pressure is zero
c)
Internal energy is negative
d)
Specific volume is zero
50.
The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the ff?
a)
Action-reaction
b)
Conservation of energy
c)
The enthalpy-entropy relationship
d)
Conservation of mass
51.
What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
Zero
d)
Positive or Negative
52.
In a reversible process, the area under pV curve in pV diagram represents which of the ff?
a)
Heat transfer
b)
Enthalpy change
c)
Entropy change
d)
Work done by the system
53.
What is true about the polytropic exponent n for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric process?
a)
n=0
b)
n less than zero
c)
n greater than zero
d)
n approaches infinity
54.
During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?
a)
It is always less than zero
b)
It is always zero
c)
It is temperature dependent
d)
It is always greater than zero
55.
For irreversible process, what is true about the total change in entropy of the system and surroundings?
a)
It is always greater than zero
b)
It is always less than zero
c)
It is always zero
d)
It is temperature dependent
56.
For which type of process does the equation dQ = TdS hold?
a)
Isothermal
b)
Isobaric
c)
Reversible
d)
Irreversible
57.
Which is always true for any process?
a)
Change in entropy is greater than zero
b)
Change in entropy is less than or equal to zero
c)
Change in entropy is less than zero
d)
Change in entropy is greater than or equal to zero
58.
The area under the TS curve in the TS diagram represents?
a)
Enthalpy
b)
Heat transfer
c)
Work
d)
Free energy change
59.
Which of the ff thermodynamic cycles is the most efficient?
a)
Brayton
b)
Carnot
c)
Rankine
d)
Diesel
60.
The ideal, reversible Carnot cycle involves four basic processes. What type of processes are they?
a)
All adiabatic
b)
All isentropic
c)
Two isothermal and two isentropic
d)
All isothermal
61.
Which one of the ff is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
a)
0°K and one atmosphere pressure
b)
0°F and zero pressure
c)
0°C and one atmosphere pressure
d)
32°F and zero pressure
62.
The critical point for a mixture occurs for which of the ff cases?
a)
The liquid is completely vaporized
b)
The vapor and liquid have a single form
c)
The vapor phase is stable
d)
The liquid has no absorbed gas
63.
How is Molality defined?
a)
The number of gram equivalent weight of solute in one liter of solution
b)
The number of moles of solute in one liter of solution
c)
c. The number of moles of solute in 1000g of solvent
d)
The number of gram-formula weight of solute per liter
64.
Which of the ff elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?
a)
Sodium, Na
b)
Carbon Dioxide, CO2
c)
Helium, He
d)
Hydrochloric Acid, HCI
65.
Two major types of chemical bonds are observed in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent. Which of the ff has a bond that is the least ionic in character?
a)
H2O, Water
b)
NaCl, Sodium Chloride
c)
H2, Hydrogen
d)
CH4, Methane
66.
A substance is oxidized when which of the ff occur?
a)
It turns red
b)
It gives off heat
c)
It becomes more negative
d)
It loses electron
67.
The voltage of galvanic cell does not depend on which of the ff parameters?
a)
Pressure
b)
Concentration of solutions
c)
Volume
d)
Temperature
68.
Which of the ff organic chemicals is most soluble in water?
a)
CCl4, Carbon Dioxide
b)
CH3OH, Methanol
c)
CH4, Methane
d)
C2H6, Ethane
69.
Who discovered the Electron?
a)
James Chadwick
b)
John Dalton
c)
Joseph John Thompson
d)
Ernest Rutherford
70.
Who discovered the Proton?
a)
Joseph John Thompson
b)
James Chadwick
c)
Ernest Rutherford
d)
John Dalton
71.
Who discovered the Neutron?
a)
John Dalton
b)
Joseph John Thompson
c)
Ernest Rutherford
d)
James Chadwick
72.
Who is the Father of Modern Chemistry?
a)
Aristotle
b)
Robert Boyle
c)
Antoine Lavoisier
d)
John Dalton
73.
Approximately, what percent of elements in the periodic table are metals?
a)
70%
b)
60%
c)
80%
d)
90%
74.
Who formulated the Atomic Theory?
a)
Henri Becquerel
b)
Ernest Rutherford
c)
John Dalton
d)
Humphrey Davy
75.
Who proposed a plum-pudding (raisin bread) model of an atom?
a)
Robert Andrews Millikan
b)
John Dalton
c)
Joseph John Thompson
d)
Ernest Rutherford
76.
Who discovered Radioactivity?
a)
Marie Curie
b)
Niels Bohr
c)
Henri Becquerel
d)
Pierre Curie
77.
What are the rows in periodic table called?
a)
Groups
b)
Families
c)
Periods
d)
Transitions
78.
The elements with similar properties are placed in column of the periodic table. The columns are commonly called?
a)
Periods
b)
Groups
c)
Groups or Families
d)
Families
79.
The elements in group in the periodic table are called?
a)
Affinities
b)
Representatives
c)
Cogeners
d)
Families
80.
Elements in Group I-A in the periodic table are called?
a)
Alkaline Earth Metals
b)
Alkali Metals
c)
Boron Group
d)
Carbon Group
81.
Elements in Group II-A in periodic table are called?
a)
Alkaline Earth Metals
b)
Alkali Metals
c)
Boron Group
d)
Carbon Group
82.
What elements is used as electric power source for pacemakers and artificial hearts?
a)
Neodymium
b)
Promethium
c)
Uranium
d)
Plutonium
83.
What element is commonly used in making lasers?
a)
Neodymium
b)
Promethium
c)
Uranium
d)
Plutonium
84.
What is a high energy, electrically charged gas, produced by heating the gas until the electrons in the outer orbital of the atoms separates, leaving the atom with a positive charge?
a)
Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC)
b)
Quartz
c)
Plasma
d)
Quark
85.
It is made of gas atoms that have been cooled to near absolute zero at which temperature the atoms combine and forms a super atom?
a)
Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC)
b)
Quartz
c)
Plasma
d)
Quark
86.
What is formed by sharing electrons between atoms?
a)
Metallic bond
b)
Ionic bond
c)
Covalent bond
d)
Electronic bond
87.
It is the electrostatic attraction that holds together the oppositely charge ions in the solid compound?
a)
Metallic bond
b)
Ionic bond
c)
Covalent bond
d)
Electronic bond
88.
What forces hold molecules together in Crystals?
a)
Ionic Forces
b)
Van der Waals Forces
c)
Cohesive Forces
d)
Diffusive Forces
89.
It is a substance which when added to reacting mixture increases the rate of reaction but remains unchanged?
a)
Inhibitors
b)
Catalyst
c)
Neutral Substance
d)
Accelerators
90.
What is the opposite to Alkali?
a)
Fluid
b)
Acid
c)
Oxide
d)
Carbon
91.
The condition of liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of?
a)
Acid Content
b)
Voltage Output
c)
Specific Gravity
d)
Current Value
92.
What bond is involved in bronze the alloy of copper and tin?
a)
Metallic Bond
b)
Covalent Bond
c)
Ionic Bond
d)
Van der Waals
93.
What is the chemical formula for Aluminum Nitride?
a)
AIN
b)
AIN2
c)
AI2N2
d)
AI2N
94.
What is the chemical formula for Magnesium Nitrite?
a)
Mg(NO3)2
b)
Mg(NO2)2
c)
MgNO2
d)
Mg2NO3
95.
What is the chemical formula for Nitric Acid?
a)
HNO3
b)
H2NO3
c)
HNO2
d)
H2NO2
96.
What is the chemical formula for Calcium Chloride?
a)
CaCl
b)
CaCl2
c)
Ca2Cl
d)
CaCl3
97.
What is the chemical formula for Dinitrogen Pentoxide?
a)
N5O
b)
NO5
c)
N2O5
d)
N5O2
98.
What is the chemical formula for Magnesium Hydroxide (a laxative)?
a)
Mg(OH)3
b)
Mg2OH
c)
Mg(OH)2
d)
MgOH2
99.
What is the chemical formula for Laughing Gas?
a)
NO2
b)
N2O
c)
NO3
d)
N2O3
100.
What is the chemical formula for Carbon Diselinide?
a)
CaSe
b)
(CSe)2
c)
CSe2
d)
C2Se
101.
What is the chemical formula for Sulphuric Acid?
a)
HSO
b)
H2SO4
c)
H2SO3
d)
H2SO2
102.
IEEE 802.11 is the code for Global Wireless Standard representing the fastest method to transfer data.
a)
Bluetooth
b)
WiMax
c)
Wi-Fi
d)
GPRS
103.
The rear wheels of the car move forward. What is the nature of the frictional force under the rear tires?
a)
Kinetic and Backward
b)
Static and Forward
c)
Kinetic and Forward
d)
Static and Backward
104.
Which of the ff materials is not a Viscoelastic Material?
a)
Plastic
b)
Rubber
c)
Metal
d)
Glass
105.
In molecules of the same composition, what are variations of atomic arrangement known as?
a)
Polymers
b)
Monomers
c)
Isomers
d)
Crystal System
106.
How many atoms in the unit cell of a Body Centered Cubic (BCC) crystal structure?
a)
8
b)
4
c)
2
d)
6
107.
How many atoms per unit cell of Face Centered Cubic crystal structure?
a)
8
b)
4
c)
2
d)
6
108.
What is the first coordination number of a BCC structure?
a)
12
b)
6
c)
8
d)
16
109.
What is the first coordination number of a FCC structure?
a)
12
b)
6
c)
8
d)
16
110.
What is the atomic packing factor for Simple Cubic crystal?
a)
1.05
b)
0.48
c)
1.00
d)
0.52
111.
Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of Closed Packed Planes and Closed Packed Directions?
a)
Body Centered Cubic
b)
Simple Cubic
c)
Face Centered Cubic
d)
Closed Packed Hexagonal
112.
Which of the ff is a line defect in a lattice crystal structure?
a)
Screw dislocation
b)
Vacancy
c)
Tilt boundary
d)
Frenkel defect
113.
Under a very slow deformation at high temperature, it is possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at shear stress lower than the critical shear stress. This phenomenon is called?
a)
Sli
b)
Creep
c)
Twinning
d)
Bending
114.
To which of the ff can the large discrepancy between actual and theoretical strengths of metals mainly be attributed?
a)
Heat
b)
Low Density
c)
Dislocation
d)
Stress Direction
115.
In general, what are the effects of cold-working a metal?
a)
Increase strength and ductility
b)
Decrease strength and ductility
c)
Decrease strength, Increase ductility
d)
Increase strength, Decrease ductility
116.
For completely corrosion resistant stainless steel, what minimum percentage of chromium in the alloy is required?
a)
1.1%
b)
11%
c)
3.2%
d)
15%
117.
Which of the ff would most likely require a steel containing 0.6% carbon that has been spheroidized, cold-drawn and slightly tempered?
a)
Bridge beam
b)
Cutting tool
c)
Water pipe
d)
Ball bearing
118.
A hollow circular bar has an inner radius r1 and an outer radius r2. If r1=½ r2, what percentage of torque can the shaft carry in comparison with solid shaft?
a)
73%
b)
94%
c)
50%
d)
25%
119.
Which of the ff effects are generally less for an alternating current than for a direct current?
a)
Magnetic effects
b)
Chemical effects
c)
Heating effects
d)
Both chemical and magnetic effects
120.
What type of materials usually has a higher index of refraction?
a)
Denser materials
b)
Lighter materials
c)
Gaseous materials
d)
Heavier materials
121.
Electrons are in a one dimensional box of length 2L. What is the relationship between EF, the Fermi energy and Eave, the average energy?
a)
Eave = EF/4
b)
Eave = EF/3
c)
Eave = EF/2
d)
Eave = EF
122.
What is the total relativistic energy of a particle if its mass is equal to one slug when it is travelling with a certain speed v?
a)
1
b)
C2-1
c)
c2
d)
5c2
123.
The atomic nuclei of all isotopes have the same?
a)
Number of nuetrons
b)
Radius
c)
Number of protons
d)
Mass
124.
All of the ff elementary particles have detectable mass, except?
a)
Electron
b)
Neutrin
c)
Positron
d)
Proton
125.
An Amphoteric Hydroxide is one which?
a)
has a valence of -2
b)
can act as acid or base in a chemical reaction
c)
reacts violently
d)
decays spontaneously
126.
A chemical process which occurs when water is added to cement is _____?
a)
Oxidation
b)
Plastic flow
c)
Hydration
d)
Counter diffusion
127.
Hydrogen is common to all?
a)
Salts
b)
Acids
c)
Oxides
d)
Metals
128.
Which of the ff is a member of the halogen family?
a)
Sodium
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Flourine
d)
Phosphorus
129.
When exposed to atmosphere, which of the ff liquids is the coldest?
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Helium
c)
Oxygen
d)
Argon
130.
Which of the ff metals is the best heat conductor?
a)
Copper
b)
Silver
c)
Gold
d)
Aluminum
131.
Which metal is used in microelectronics because it does not turnish?
a)
Copper
b)
Silver
c)
Gold
d)
Aluminum
132.
Which is not equivalent to one ton of refrigeration?
a)
200 BTU/min
b)
42.4 BTU/min
c)
211 kJ/min
d)
288000 BTU/day
133.
It is the rate of chemical quantity per unit area or volume?
a)
Chemical structure
b)
Chemical flux
c)
Chemical compositions
d)
Chemical Stoichiometry
134.
It is the make-up of any chemical compound described in a system for determining its properties?
a)
Chemical structure
b)
Chemical bonds
c)
Chemical compositions
d)
Chemical components
135.
What is the region described by two forward biased transistor?
a)
Active base emitter forward
b)
Cut-off
c)
Saturation
d)
Passive collector base reverse
136.
What is the region described by two reverse biased transistor?
a)
Active base emitter forward
b)
Cut-off
c)
Saturation
d)
Passive collector base reverse
137.
The external pressure applied on a confined fluid increases the pressure of every point in the fluid by an amount equal to external pressure is known as _____.
a)
Torricelli's principle
b)
Pascal's principle
c)
Archimedes' principle
d)
Bernoulli's principle
138.
It is a device used to determine if a substance is radioactive.
a)
Van de Graaf generator
b)
Linear accelerator
c)
Cyclotron
d)
Geiger counter
139.
UPS represents which one of the ff?
a)
Uninterruptible Portable Supply
b)
Uninterruptible Power Supply
c)
Uninterrupting Power Supply
d)
Uninterrupting Portable Supply
140.
EPIRA represents which one of the ff?
a)
Electric Power Information Reform Act
b)
Electric Power Institute Reform Act
c)
Electric Power Industry Reform Association
d)
Electric Power Industry Reform Act
141.
RES represents which one of the ff?
a)
Retail Energy Suppliers
b)
Retail Electricity Supply
c)
Retail Energy Supply
d)
Retail Electricity Suppliers
142.
PDC represents which one of the ff?
a)
Philippine Distribution Corporation
b)
Philippine Development Code
c)
Philippine Distribution Code
d)
Philippine Development Corporation
143.
PEP represents which one of the ff?
a)
Philippine Energy Program
b)
Philippine Electrical Plan
c)
Philippine Energy Plan
d)
Philippine Energy Project
144.
WESM represents which one of the ff?
a)
Wholesale Energy Support Market
b)
Wholesale Electricity Support Market
c)
Wholesale Energy Spot Market
d)
Wholesale Electricity Spot Market
145.
CPE represents which one of the ff?
a)
Continuing Professional Enhancement
b)
Continuing Process of Examination
c)
Continuing Professional Education
d)
Continuing Program of Education
146.
The members of the board shall hold office for a term of _____ yrs.
a)
10
b)
6
c)
5
d)
3
147.
Each board member must be at least _____ yrs of age at time of his appointment.
a)
40
b)
28
c)
35
d)
30
148.
Each board member must have practiced electrical engineering for a period of not less than _____ yrs prior to his appointment with a sworn statement as such.
a)
20
b)
15
c)
10
d)
5
149.
Each board member must not be connected with schools, universities conferring a degree in electrical engineering and review centers for at least _____ yrs prior to his appointment.
a)
10
b)
3
c)
5
d)
7
150.
The board of electrical engineering shall be composed of how many members?
a)
4
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
151.
What is an Annuity?
a)
The future worth of a present amount
b)
An annual repayment of a loan
c)
A lump sum at the end of a year
d)
A series of uniform amounts over a period of time
152.
When using the net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which of the ff could invalidate the calculation?
a)
Difference in the magnitude of the project
b)
Evaluating over different time period
c)
Mutually exclusive projects
d)
Non-conventional cash flows
153.
What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?
a)
Identical salvage values
b)
Different salvage values
c)
Identical equivalent uniforms annual cash flows
d)
Different uniform annual cash flows
154.
What is Work in Process classified as?
a)
Liabilty
b)
Expenses
c)
Revenue
d)
Asset
155.
Which of the ff does not affect Owner’s Equity?
a)
Revenue
b)
License to start business
c)
Dividends paid
d)
Invested capital
156.
What is Acid Test Ratio? / Also called Quick Ratio.
a)
The ratio of owner’s equity to total current liabilities
b)
The ratio of all assets to total liabilities
c)
The ratio of profit after taxes to equity
d)
The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
157.
It is responsible for the procurement and administration of funds with the view of achieving the objectives of business.
a)
Funds
b)
Capita
c)
Budgent
d)
Finance
158.
Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that a profit will be earned.
a)
Credit
b)
Savings
c)
Equity capital
d)
Investment
159.
Funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern.
a)
Banking
b)
Present worth
c)
Accumulated amount
d)
Working capital
160.
The length of time usually in years, for the cumulative annual profit to equalized the initial investment is:
a)
Receivable turnover
b)
Return on investment
c)
Useful life
d)
Payback period
161.
The unrecovered depreciation which resulted from poor estimate of the life of equipment.
a)
In-placed value
b)
Sunk cost
c)
Annuity
d)
Economic life
162.
What factor must be considered by investor before he invest?
a)
Hurdle rate
b)
Return of capital
c)
Rate of return
d)
Return on investment
163.
A market situation with only one buyer of an item and no goods substitute.
a)
Duopsony
b)
Monopsony
c)
Monopoly
d)
Oligopoly
164.
A market situation with few sellers and many buyers.
a)
Duopsony
b)
Monopsony
c)
Monopoly
d)
Oligopoly
165.
It is an aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by law as fictitious person.
a)
Partnership
b)
Stockholders
c)
Corporation
d)
Investors
166.
It is the secondary book of accounts of an enterprise where the credit and debit of an enterprise were written.
a)
Balanced sheet
b)
Ledger
c)
Journal
d)
Worksheet
167.
It is the original book of accounts of an enterprise.
a)
Balanced sheet
b)
Ledger
c)
Journal
d)
Worksheet
168.
It is the reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall In general price level.
a)
Inflation
b)
Devaluation
c)
Depreciation
d)
Deflation
169.
It is decrease in money’s purchasing power due to increase in material cost and services.
a)
Inflation
b)
Devaluation
c)
Depreciation
d)
Deflation
170.
It is the decrease in worth of of the property due to passage of time.
a)
Inflation
b)
Devaluation
c)
Depreciation
d)
Deflation
171.
It is the difference between the present worth and the future worth of a negotiable paper.
a)
Rate of interest
b)
Discount
c)
Rate of discount
d)
Interest
172.
It is the amount earned by one unit of principal during a unit of time.
a)
Rate of discount
b)
Discount
c)
Rate of interest
d)
Interest
173.
It pertains to the series of equal payments occurring at equal period or interval of time.
a)
Amortization
b)
Depreciation
c)
Annuity
d)
Depletion
174.
It is a method of paying debt including the principal and interest which is usually done in a series of equal payments occurring at equal period or interval of time.
a)
Amortization
b)
Depreciation
c)
Annuity
d)
Depletion
175.
It is a type of annuity where payments are made indefinitely or forever.
a)
Annuity due
b)
Deferred annuit
c)
Perpetuity
d)
Ordinary annuity
176.
It pertains to series of payments on equal interval of time with common difference.
a)
Depreciation
b)
Arithmetic gradient
c)
Annuity
d)
Geometric gradient
177.
It pertains to series of payments on equal interval of time with common ratio.
a)
Depreciation
b)
Arithmetic gradient
c)
Annuity
d)
Geometric gradient
178.
It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of annual maintenance and operational costs, costs of repair and the renewal costs.
a)
Marginal cost
b)
Capitalized cost
c)
Annual cost
d)
Future worth cost
179.
It’s the measure of the effectiveness of an investment.
a)
Dividends
b)
Profit
c)
Rate of return
d)
Revenue
180.
The difference between Capital Recovery Factor (CRF) and the Sinking Fund Factor (SFF) is equal to:
a)
Discount
b)
Profit
c)
Rate of interest
d)
Depreciation
181.
The quantity (1+i)n represents which one of the ff?
a)
Compound Amount Factor
b)
Future Value Factor
c)
Capital Recovery Factor
d)
Present Value Factor
182.
The quantity (1+i)-n represents which one of the ff?
a)
Capital Recovery Factor
b)
Compound Amount Factor
c)
Future Value Factor
d)
Present Value Factor
183.
The quantity (F/A,i%,n) represents which one of the ff?
a)
Capital Recovery Factor
b)
Compound Amount Factor
c)
Future Value Factor
d)
Present Value Factor
184.
The quantity (A/P,i%,n) represents which one of the ff?
a)
Compound Amount Factor
b)
Future Value Factor
c)
Capital Recovery Factor
d)
Present Value Factor
185.
The quantity (A/F,i%,n) represents which one of the ff?
a)
Sinking Fund Factor
b)
Compound Amount Factor
c)
Future Value Factor
d)
Present Value Factor
186.
When the net torque acting on the body is zero, the body is in:
a)
Stable Equilibrium
b)
Translational Equilibrium
c)
Rotational Equilibrium
d)
Unstable Equilibrium
187.
When the force that act on an object is have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in:
a)
Rotational Equilibrium
b)
Unstable Equilibrium
c)
Translational Equilibrium
d)
Stable Equilibrium
188.
If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of Equilibrium?
a)
Stable Equilibrium
b)
Translational Equilibrium
c)
Unstable Equilibrium
d)
Rotational Equilibrium
189.
What principle states that for a horizontal flow of a fluid through a pipe the sum of pressure and kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid is constant?
a)
Torricelli's principle
b)
Pascal's principle
c)
Archimedes' principle
d)
Bernoulli's principle
190.
The hydrometer is an instrument that uses the principle of:
a)
Bernoulli's principle
b)
Pascal's principle
c)
Archimedes' principle
d)
Torricelli's principle
191.
Which of the ff is not a basic component of motion of fluid element?
a)
Tranlation
b)
Rotation
c)
Twist
d)
Volume Distortion
192.
For a fluid, Viscosity is defined as the constant of proportionally between shear stress and what other variable?
a)
The time derivative of pressure
b)
The spatial derivative of velocity
c)
The spatial derivative of density
d)
The time derivative of density
193.
What is definition of Pressure?
a)
Limit of area over force as area approaches zero
b)
Limit of area over force as force approaches zero
c)
Limit of force over area as force approaches zero
d)
Limit of force over area as area approaches zero
194.
A leak from faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the ff is the main cause of this phenomenon?
a)
Gravity
b)
Surface Tension
c)
Air Resistance
d)
Viscosity of the Fluid
195.
If the shear stress in the fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the ff describes the fluid?
a)
It is inviscid
b)
It is a perfect gas
c)
It is at constant temperature
d)
It is a Newton fluid
196.
If a fluid fails in piping system, the failure is related to which of the ff properties?
a)
Viscosity
b)
Bulk Modulus
c)
Surface Tension
d)
Vapor Pressure
197.
The speed which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by:
a)
Archimedes' principle
b)
Bernoulli's principle
c)
Torricelli's principle
d)
Flow Equation
198.
How are lines of constant pressure in a fluid related to the force field?
a)
They are at 45° angle to the force field
b)
They are parallel to the force field
c)
They are perpendicular to the force field
d)
They are perpendicular only to the force field of gravity
199.
Under what condition is mass conserved in fluid of gravity?
a)
The fluid is incompressible
b)
The flow is adiabatic
c)
The fluid is baratropic
d)
It is always conserved
200.
What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a surface?
a)
The same as the bulk fluid velocity
b)
The velocity of the surface
c)
Zero
d)
Proportional to the smoothness of the surface
201.
What is the origin of the energy conservation equation used in flow system?
a)
Newton’s first law of motion
b)
The first law of thermodynamics
c)
The second law of thermodynamics
d)
Newton’s second law of motion
e)
202.
Which of the ff is the basis for Bernoulli’s Law fluid flow?
a)
The principle of conservation of mass
b)
The principle of conservation of energy
c)
The continuity of equation
d)
Fourier’s Law
203.
Which of the ff ratio is correct in providing a physical meaning for the Reynolds number?
a)
Buoyant force/Inertial force
b)
Inertial force/Viscous force
c)
Viscous force/Inertial force
d)
Drag force/Viscous force
204.
Where does the Moody Diagram for friction factors for pipe flow come from?
a)
Calculations based on potential flow
b)
Applying the principle of conservation of mass
c)
Experimental results for viscous fluids
d)
Experimental results for inviscid fluids
205.
For pipe flow in the laminar region, the friction factor is equal to?
a)
1/Re
b)
Re
c)
64/Re
d)
Re^2
206.
For fully developed laminar flow of fluid in pipes, the average velocity is what fraction of the maximum velocity in the pipe?
a)
1/8
b)
¼
c)
½
d)
¾
207.
It is the cause of the rise or fall of liquid in tubes with small diameter.
a)
Cohesio
b)
Adhesion
c)
Capillarity
d)
Surface Tension
208.
What is Negative Pressure?
a)
Absolute Pressure
b)
Vacuum Pressure
c)
Gage Pressure
d)
Hydrostatic Pressure
209.
How many Pascal is one bar?
a)
10^3
b)
10^6
c)
100
d)
10^5
210.
How many Pa-s is one poise?
a)
0.01
b)
0.1
c)
0.0001
d)
0.001
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