wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cells Unit Test Review

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 38hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During which phase of meiosis are the haploid cells formed?

a)

anaphase I

b)

telophase I

c)

anaphase II

d)

telophase II

2.

Place the following steps in the correct order:

  1. Sperm nuclear envelope breaks down
  2. Genomes blend to form a diploid cell
  3. Decondensation occurs
  4. Sperm head penetrates egg cytoplasm
a)

3, 1, 4, 2

b)

3, 4, 2, 1

c)

4, 3, 1, 2

d)

4, 1, 3, 2

3.

What is produced at the end of meiosis?

a)

two diploid cells

b)

two haploid cells

c)

four diploid cells

d)

four haploid cells

4.

If nondisjunction occurs, then the cell has gone through

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis I or II

c)

meiosis or mitosis

d)

fertilization

5.

The corpus luteum produces a hormone called progesterone that inhibits the release of FSH. What is the purpose of this step?

a)

It prevents more follicles from developing

b)

It begins the menstruation process again

c)

It blocks sperm from reaching the egg

d)

It stimulates the release of more eggs

6.

A cell undergoes meiosis and is still a diploid cell. What conclusion can most likely be drawn about the cell?

a)

It has only undergone meiosis I

b)

It is mutated and meiosis is damaged

c)

Nondisjunction has occurred on every chromosome

d)

It began with four times the number of chromosomes

7.

Mitosis results in _______.

a)

Haploid cells

b)

Gametes

c)

Diploid cells

d)

Bacterial cells

8.

A secondary spermatocyte has 80 chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a spermatid have?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

80

d)

160

9.

At the end of meiosis I, one daughter cell holds all of the homologous chromosomes and the other has none. In which phase did an error occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

10.

Primary follicles in the ovary begin to develop into secondary follicles. What day of the menstrual cycle must it be?

a)

Day 1

b)

Day 7

c)

Day 14

d)

Day 21

11.

The process of oogenesis in a female is analogous to _______ in a male.

a)

Gastrulation

b)

Fertilization

c)

Regeneration

d)

Spermatogenesis

12.

What is the ratio of sperm cells generated to egg cells generated for every germ cell that undergoes meiosis?

a)

1:1

b)

1:2

c)

4:1

d)

Millions:1

13.

Place the following steps in the correct order:

  1. Estrogen stimulates hypothalamus
  2. Follicle releases estrogen
  3. A surge of luteinizing hormone is released
  4. Secondary follicle grows
a)

2, 1, 4, 3

b)

2, 3, 4, 1

c)

4, 2, 1, 3

d)

4, 3, 2, 1

14.

Place the following processes in the order they occur:

  1. Gastrulation
  2. Fertilization
  3. Implantation
  4. Decondensation
a)

2, 4, 3, 1

b)

2, 3, 1, 4

c)

4, 2, 3, 1

d)

4, 1, 3, 2

15.

What cells produce primary spermatocytes?

a)

Germ cells

b)

Secondary spermatocytes

c)

Spermatogonia

d)

Sperm

16.

The first sperm to reach the egg does not necessarily fertilize it. Why is this the case?

a)

The sperm that first binds with the egg's receptors and enters will fertilize it.

b)

Only sperm with the correct binding proteins can fertilize an egg.

c)

The sperm with the greatest adaptations to its environment will fertilize the egg.

d)

The sperm having chromosomes most closely matching those of the egg will fertilize the egg.

17.

An example of monosomy is:

a)

Klinefelter syndrome

b)

Turner syndrome

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Patau syndrome

18.

A child was born with a nervous system disorder that developed during gastrulation. What part of the embryo was damaged?

a)

Blastoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Mesoderm

19.

The embryo a woman is carrying does not implant. What will most likely result from this event?

a)

The embryo will develop in the center of the uterus

b)

The woman will lose the embryo through miscarriage

c)

The embryo will implant somewhere else in the woman

d)

The embryo will split and the woman will have twins

20.

Which of the following is NOT typically a defect caused by Patau syndrome?

a)

Heart defects

b)

Liver defects

c)

Cataracts

d)

Cleft palate

21.

Which of the following is paired correctly?

a)

Somatic cells: meiosis

b)

Haploid daughter cells: meiosis

c)

Two divisions: mitosis

d)

Crossing over: mitosis

22.

Are homologous chromosomes different from sister chromatids? Explain.

a)

No; they are the same thing

b)

No; they are just called chromosomes in meiosis and chromatids in mitosis

c)

Yes; homologous chromosomes are exact copies of each other and sister chromatids are randomly linked up during metaphase

d)

Yes; sister chromatids are identical before meiosis I, but homologous chromosomes come from each parent

23.

The purpose of meiosis is to generate _________.

a)

Sex cells

b)

Offspring

c)

Clones

d)

New organisms

24.

Which part(s) of the somatic cell is used in SCNT?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

nucleus

c)

gamete

d)

all organelles except the nucleus

25.

Which of the following is true?

a)

A mitotic parent cell must be a diploid

b)

A meiotic parent cell must be a diploid

c)

A meiotic parent cell must be aneuploid

d)

A meiotic parent cell must be a haploid

26.

Which of the following is one way that meiosis II is more similar to mitosis than meiosis I?

a)

DNA replication occurs before mitosis and meiosis I

b)

Haploid cells are produced from mitosis and meiosis II

c)

Homologous chromosomes cross over in mitosis and meiosis I

d)

Sister chromatids separate in mitosis and meiosis II

27.

SCNT is not likely to be used to __________.

a)

Replace cells in damaged tissue

b)

Produce stem cells

c)

Produce clones of animals

d)

Create new species

28.

Which is needed before meiosis can begin?

a)

Recombination

b)

DNA replication

c)

Aneuploidy

d)

Corpus luteum

29.

If a cell were to undergo multiple mitotic divisions, but skipped the S-phase, what would eventually happen?

a)

The number of chromosomes would grow too big to be contained

b)

The number of chromosomes would remain the same in each daughter cell

c)

The daughter cells would not have the same genetic information as each other or the parent cell

d)

The daughter cells would get duplicates of the same genetic information

30.

An embryo grows into a zygote through _________.

a)

Cell division

b)

Fertilization

c)

Reproduction

d)

Implantation

31.

How many cells will a zygote be after five rounds of cell division?

a)

5

b)

16

c)

32

d)

64

32.

Which of the following is a result of nondisjunction?

a)

Crossing over

b)

Trisomy

c)

Degradation

d)

Atresia

33.

Your friend tells you that the number of chromosomes in a somatic cell of a carp fish is 105. What conclusion can you draw from this information

a)

Your friend is wrong because diploid cells always have an even number of chromosomes

b)

Your friend is wrong because that number is too high for a lower organism

c)

Your friend is wrong because that is the carp's haploid number

d)

Your friend knows a lot about chromosome counts

34.

A parent cell acquires a mutation during DNA replication. How will the daughter cells be affected after mitosis?

a)

They will also have the mutation

b)

They will not have the mutation

c)

There is a 25% chance they will have the mutation

d)

It depends on whether the mutation is dominant or recessive

35.

A hormone disorder in a woman causes her body to block the release of luteinizing hormone. What will this result in?

a)

She will not develop primary follicles

b)

She will not release a mature egg cell

c)

Her oocytes will not undergo meiosis

d)

She will not produce polar bodies

36.

If a karyotype shows 39 chromosomes for an organism, what conclusion can be drawn?

a)

The organism is a sea otter

b)

The organism is haploid

c)

Nondisjunction has occurred

d)

It's a less complex life form than humans

37.

An egg suddenly releases enzymes that form a barrier to sperm cells. What can you infer about the egg?

a)

It has broken down

b)

It has experienced a surge in LH

c)

It has been fertilized

d)

It mutated

38.

Why does a male with Klinefelter syndrome display female characteristics?

a)

The loss of an X chromosome causes the Y traits to be dominant

b)

The loss of a Y chromosome causes the X traits to be dominant

c)

The presence of an extra X chromosome amplifies female characteristics

d)

The presence of an extra Y chromosome amplifies female characteristics

39.

What cells are haploid?

a)

all cells

b)

somatic cells

c)

bacterial cells

d)

gametes

40.

The skin cell of a dolphin contains 44 chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a sperm cell of a dolphin have?

a)

11

b)

22

c)

44

d)

88

41.

Why is there no homologous chromosome pairing in mitosis?

a)

Mitosis doesn't go through metaphase

b)

Mitosis doesn't go through anaphase

c)

Mitosis only occurs in sex cells

d)

Homologous chromosomes go to both daughter cells in mitosis

42.

If following meiosis II, one daughter cell is monosomic and the other is trisomic, then why does an aneuploid offspring not show a mixture of monosomy and trisomy?

a)

They do always occur together in the offspring

b)

Monosomy occurs in male offspring, trisomy in female offspring

c)

Monosomy only occurs in prokaryotes, trisomy in eukaryotes

d)

Only one daughter cell from each parent contributes to the offspring

43.

If a scientist was trying to artificially create a haploid cell that had chromosomes that were genetically different than its parent, which stage would the scientist have to stimulate?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Prophase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Telophase

44.

Karen has 47 chromosomes but no apparent abnormalities. What's true about Karen?

a)

She has aneuploidy

b)

She has monosomy

c)

She will die young

d)

She has a cleft palate

45.

Which step comes after nuclear transfer occurs in SCNT?

a)

The remainder of the somatic cell is discarded

b)

The remainder of the egg cell is discarded

c)

A cloned embryo develops

d)

An electric spark stimulates mitosis

46.

The egg cell of a chinchilla contains 32 chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a skin cell of a chinchilla have?

a)

16

b)

32

c)

64

d)

128

47.

A woman is having trouble getting pregnant. A doctor finds a corpus luteum on her ovary. What diagnosis can the doctor make?

a)

The woman is not ovulating

b)

The woman is not producing LH

c)

The woman is not maturing eggs

d)

The doctor cannot yet determine why she's not getting pregnant

48.

Mitosis occurs in:

a)

All eukaryotic organisms

b)

Polar bodies

c)

Only animals

d)

Only sexually-reproducing animals

49.

A cell that undergoes S-phase will be ________ after division

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

c)

Fertilized

d)

Asexual

50.

A female human has an oocyte with 46 chromosomes. What conclusion can be drawn?

a)

The cell is mutated

b)

The cell did not separate chromatids in anaphase

c)

The cell is fertilized with a sperm

d)

The cell contains the normal number of chromosomes

51.

During mitosis, in order to generate a haploid cell, a parent cell must undergo _________.

a)

One metaphase

b)

Two anaphases

c)

One anaphase, two telophases

d)

One cytokinesis

52.

How many eggs are produced from one oocyte after it undergoes meiosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

53.

Which of the following is NOT affected by Down syndrome?

a)

The circulatory system

b)

Speech and language

c)

Body development

d)

Cognitive learning

54.

The sex genotype of a male patient with Klinefelter syndrome must be:

a)

XYY

b)

XXY

c)

YY

d)

XXX

55.

Why do you think a normal embryo does not require an electric shock to begin mitosis?

a)

The natural fertilization process stimulates division

b)

It is sexual not asexual like SCNT

c)

The sperm cell provides the electric shock

d)

Nerve cells in the uterus provide the shock

56.

Which of the following statements about gamete formation is true?

a)

Males and females both undergo oogenesis

b)

Only spermatogenesis involves meiosis

c)

Oogenesis is more complex than spermatogenesis

d)

It only occurs in asexual organisms

57.

A researcher tries everything he can, but cannot get a certain cell to undergo mitosis. What must be wrong with the cell?

a)

It is done growing

b)

It is a gamete

c)

It is diploid

d)

It is a bacterium

58.

Place the following steps in the correct order:

  1. Tertiary follicle develops
  2. First meiotic division of primary oocyte
  3. Ovulation
a)

1,2,3

b)

1,3,2

c)

2,1,3

d)

3,2,1

59.

Which of the following is not a way that sexual reproduction increases genetic diversity?

a)

Genetic material from two individuals is combined

b)

New combinations of genes occur

c)

Recombination during meiosis occurs

d)

Combined parenting leads to faster reproduction

60.

A red panda parent cell has 36 chromosomes. How many will each daughter cell have after two rounds of mitosis?

a)

4

b)

36

c)

72

d)

144

61.

After mitosis, two daughter cells together have 96 chromosomes. How many chromosomes did the parent cell have?

a)

24

b)

48

c)

96

d)

192

62.

A prokaryotic cell undergoes binary fission. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

a)

The parent cell didn't have plasmids

b)

The parent cell didn't have a cell membrane

c)

The daughter cells do not have nuclei

d)

The daughter cells do not have DNA

63.

What is one difference between how DNA Is organized in prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells typically have linear DNA Structures, while eukaryotic cells have circular DNA

b)

Eukaryotic cells typically have linear DNA structures, while prokaryotic cells have circular DNA

c)

Prokaryotic cells DNA is packed into a structure called chromatin, while eukaryotic cells is not

d)

Eukaryotic cells DNA is packaged into structures called plasmids, while prokaryotic cells are not

64.

How does the S phase affect the process of cell division

a)

It ensures that copies of DNA are available for each daughter cell

b)

It ensures that the cell grows large enough to split into daugher cells

c)

it ensures that two separate nuclei form, on for each daughter cell

d)

It ensures that the chromosomes are aligned properly for separation into the daughter cells.

65.

A student explains that the cell cycle is a four-stage process that carries out cell division in all cells. What is one problem with this statement?

a)

The cell cycle occurs only in prokaryotic cells.

b)

the cell cycle occurs only in eukarytoic cells

c)

the cell cycle has more than four stages

d)

the cell cycle has less than four stages.

66.

Which of these stages is NOT part of Interphase?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

67.

What is the relationship between binary fission and cell division?

a)

Binary fission is the name of cell division in cancer cells

b)

binary fission creates proteins necessary for cell division

c)

binary fission is a type of cell division that occurs in prokaryotic cells

d)

binary fission creates nuclear membranes for the process of cell division.

68.

A scientist wants to investigate the causes of skin cancer in humans. Which of the following processes would be the most appropriate to investigate?

a)

binary fission

b)

cellular respiration

c)

cell transformation

d)

replication of plasmid DNA

69.

What is one difference between mitosis and binary fission

a)

in mitosis, but not binary fission, a growth period separates the DNA replication and the actual division

b)

In mitosis, but not binary fission, DNA attaches to either end of the cell memebrane

c)

In binary fission but not mitosis, a single parent cell divides into multiple daughter cells

d)

in binary fission, but not mitosis, daughter cells receive copies of DNA

70.

How does cell transformation affect a cell?

a)

It cause the cell to attack tumor cells

b)

it causes the cell to be unable to produce daughter cells

c)

it causes the cell to lose the ability to control its rate of division

d)

it causes the cell to divide without replicating its DNA

71.

A scientist is observing a cell during mitosis. Which of these actions would indicate that the cell is in the stage of prophase?

a)

kinetochore fibers form

b)

nuclear membrane reforms

c)

centromeres separate

d)

chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell

72.

Which of these processes occurs in mitosis but not in binary fission?

a)

formation of nuclear envelopes

b)

production of multiple daughter cells

c)

replication of DNA

d)

segregation of plasmids

73.

A scientist is observing a cell during mitosis. Which of these actions would indicate that the cell in the stage of anaphase?

a)

chromosomes are decondesing

b)

chromosome pairs are moving away from each other

c)

DNA condenses into chromosomes

d)

chromosomes align at the spindle equator

74.

What is the typical configuration of chromosomes in eukaryotic cells?

a)

circular

b)

linear

c)

rectangular

d)

triangular

75.

A scientist conducts an investigation in which she disrupts the activity of telomerase in cancer cells. Considering the role of telomerase, which of these results should she expect to observe?

a)

Cancer cells lose their ability to take in nutrients

b)

chromosomes in cancer cells begin to degrade during cell division

c)

cancer cells begin to reproduce without nuclei

d)

the cell membranes of cancer cells weaken and eventually break

76.

What is one difference between the G1 phase and the G2 phase?

a)

In G1 DNA has not been replicated. In G2 DNA has been replicated

b)

In G1 the cell is growing. In G2 the cell has stopped growing

c)

In G1 chromosomes are separated. In G2 chromosomes are still together

d)

In G1 the nuclear membrane breaks down. In G2 nuclear membrane reforms.

77.

21- year old female is diagnosed with malignant melanoma, a form of skin cancer that is estimated to kill nearly 9000 people in the US each year. Melanoma occurs when DNA in skin cells becomes damaged, resulting in uncontrolled growth and tumors. Doctors think the patient's DNA mutation was most likely caused by her occasional but intensive exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the sun or tanning beds. Which of the following statements is the best conclusion based on her diagnosis?

a)

Her children will not inherit the mutation because it occurred in her skin cells

b)

Her children will inherit the mutation because it affected her DNA

c)

Doctors cannot yet determine whether her children will inherit the mutation

d)

if her melanoma is treated her children will no inherit the mutation.

78.

How do tumors affect other parts of an organsim?

a)

Tumors deprive healthy cells of nutrients

b)

Tumors cause healthy cells to absorb too much water

c)

Tumors send death signals to healthy cells

d)

Tumors increase telomerase production in healthy cells.

79.

A scientist is designing an investigation of mutations that occur during DNA replication. Which phase of the cell cycle will most likely be the focus of the investigation?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

M

80.

A student claims that during the G2 phase, the cell is growing and preparing for DNA replication. WHy is this statement inaccurate?

a)

In G2 the cell is not growing

b)

In G2 the cell is not preparing for DNA replication

c)

Both A & B

d)

Neither A nor B

81.

A cell from a certain organism contains 64 individual, or 32 pairs, of chromosomes. Which of these conclusions can you draw?

a)

A mutation has occurred in the cell

b)

The cell cannot be human

c)

The cell must be prokaryotic

d)

Cellular transformation has made the cell cancerous

82.

Chromosomes lined up at the center of a cell move to opposite ends of the cell, but the centromere does not split. What must be true?

a)

this is mitotic anaphase

b)

this is meiosis II

c)

this is meiosis I

d)

this is a bacterial cell

83.

A scientists wants to observe the transformation of chromatin into individual chromosomes. At what point in the cell cycle would she expect to see this occur?

a)

immediately before cell division

b)

immediately after cell division

c)

immediately before DNA replication

d)

immediately after DNA replication

84.

Which is a reason that metastic cancer (cancer that has spread from the place or origin) is harder to treat than localized cancer?

a)

Surgery will no longer remove all of the cancer cells

b)

The metastic cancer cells have longer lifespans than localized cancer cells

c)

The metastic cancer cells are always found in the brain, which is a more delicate organ

d)

The metastic cancer cells are able to produce dozens of daughter celks from a single parent cell in one cell cycle.

85.

A student claims that it is dangerous to go near people with cancer because cancer is contagious. Why is this assumption incorrect?

a)

Cancer only affects people who are already sick.

b)

Cancer can only be transmitted through touch, not through air.

c)

Cancer originates from cells in one's own body, not from another organism.

d)

Cancer occurs only in people above a certain age, so younger people have no risk of getting it.

86.

A student wants to observe M phase in cells by using a microscope. Which of these steps would be necessary for this investigation?

a)

Combining the cells with bacteria

b)

Boiling the cells in water

c)

Adding salt to the cells

d)

Staining the cells

87.

Which of these structures are found in eukaryotic cells but not prokaryotic cells?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Chromatin

c)

DNA

d)

Plasmid

88.

A student explains that during telophase, the nuclear membrane decondenses and chromosomes reform. What is wrong with this statement?

a)

The chromosomes do not reform, the decondense

b)

The nuclear membrane does not decondese, it reforms

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A or B

89.

In which of these situations could you conclude that cancer cells have invaded other tissues?

a)

A patient is found to have a cancerous mole on her skin

b)

A patient is found to have a tumor in the lungs that is composed of breast cells

c)

Cancer cells are continuing to divide even after a patient undergoes chemotherapy

d)

Cancer cells have formed a tumor that is taking nutrients from other parts of the patient's body

90.

What is one difference between G2 phase and M phase?

a)

During G2 phase the cell grows, but during M phase the cell stops growing

b)

During G2 phase DNA is copied, but during M phase chromosomes are copied

c)

During G2 phase the nuclear membrane breaks down, but during M phase the nuclear membrane is restored

d)

During G2 phase the cell prepares for DNA replication, but during M phase the cell prepares for division

91.

Which of these results from cell division?

a)

cells expand their membranes and double in size

b)

cells separate all of their organelles into smaller parts

c)

multiple daughter cells share a single nucleus

d)

multiple daughter cells are formed from one parent cell

92.

A cell has undergone DNA replication but has not yet begun to divide. What can you conclude about its position in the cell cycle?

a)

It is in the G2 phase

b)

It is in the S phase

c)

It is in the G1 phase

d)

It is in the M phase

93.

Which of these lists organizes the phase of mitosis in order from first to last?

a)

prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase

b)

metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase

c)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

d)

metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase

94.

Cancer can be caused by a mutation in a single gene. Which of the following genes, if mutated, are unlikely to cause cancer?

a)

A gene that regulates the frequency of cell division

b)

The gene from telomerase

c)

A gene that is involved in responding to cell death signals

d)

A gene that regulates ATP production

95.

How are cancer cells different from healthy cells?

a)

Cancer cells originate from an outside organism

b)

Cancer cells divide more slowly and die more quickly

c)

Cancer cells do no follow the normal requirements for cell division

d)

Cancer cells do not have copies of DNA from parent cells

96.

What is the order of the phases of the cell cycle?

a)

G1 phase, S phase, G2 phase, M Phase

b)

G1 phase, G2 phase, S Phase, M phase

c)

S phase, M phase, G1 phase, G2 phase

d)

S phase, G1 phase, M phase, G2 phase

97.

Which of these would be evidence that a cell is prokaryotic?

a)

the attachment of kinetochores to spindle fibers

b)

the presence of tightly coiled, circular DNA

c)

a growth period between DNA replication and cell division

d)

the formation of two nuclear membranes

98.

What causes the chromosomes to move to the opposite ends of the spindle during anaphase?

a)

the chromosomes are pulled by the kinetochore fibers attached to the centromeres

b)

the centrioles magnetically pull the chromosomes apart

c)

nuclear membranes form around each set of chromosomes and drag them apart

d)

the chromosomes are pulled by the kinetochore fibers attached to the telomeres

99.

A student makes the following statement: "Cell division is a process that occurs in eukaryotic cells in which a parents cell splits into two or more daughter cells." What is one problem with this statement?

a)

cell division occurs in prokaryotic, not eukaryotic cells

b)

cell division occurs in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

c)

cell division always produces one daughter cell, not two

d)

cell division may produce cells other than daughter cells

100.

In which of these organisms does binary fission occur?

a)

Acacia Trees

b)

Basillus subtilis bacteria

c)

Fruit Flies

d)

Gray squirrels

101.

Which of the processes occurs in both binary fission and mitosis?

a)

formation of nuclear envelopes

b)

rearrangement of organelles

c)

replication of DNA

d)

segregation of plasmids

102.

How is the position of chromosomes different in metaphase and telophase?

a)

In metaphase, the chromosomes are at the spindle equator, but in telophase they are at the poles of the spindle

b)

In metaphase, the chromosomes are at the poles of the spindle, but in telophase they are at the spindle equator

c)

In metaphase, the chromosomes are moving freely in the nucleus, but in telophase they are being pulled to opposite ends of the spindle

d)

In metaphase, the chromosomes are being pulled to opposite ends of the spindle, but in telophase they are moving freely in the nucleus

103.

In which types of organisms could a scientist observe mitosis?

a)

animals

b)

plants

c)

both A and B

d)

neither A nor B

104.

Which of the following is true of both plants and prokaryotes?

a)

Ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm

b)

Ribosomes are associated with the endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Thylakoids are found in the cholorplasts

d)

Genetic material is found in the nucleoid

105.

A protein transports an ion across the cell membrane against its concentration gradient. Which of the following must be true?

a)

The ion is being transported without chemical energy

b)

The ion is being moved from the inside to the outside of the cell

c)

The ion pump is using active transport to move the ion

d)

The ion pump is moving the ion from high to low concentration

106.

A certain protein transports a sodium ion from the inside of the cell membrane to the outside using active transport. Which of the following must be true?

a)

There is no change in concentration before or after transport

b)

The transport process did not use chemical energy

c)

After transport, the concentration of protein in the cell decreases

d)

After transport, the concentration of sodium is lower inside the cell

107.

A student claims that the only difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells have a nucleus, but prokaryotic cells do not. What is wrong with this claim?

a)

The description of the cell types are incorrect. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have a nucleus

b)

There is another difference between the cell types. Eukaryotic cells have a cell membrane but prokaryotic cells have a cell wall instead

c)

The description of the cell types is incorrect. Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus, and eukaryotic cells do not.

d)

There is another difference between the cell types. Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles, but prokaryotic cells do not

108.

A scientist observes a cell under a microscope. She sees a mitochondria, vacuoles, and chloroplasts. From which of the following organisms could the cell have been taken?

a)

a horse

b)

a fern

c)

a fruit fly

d)

a Streptococcus bacterium

109.

The primary component of the cytoplasm and the surrounding environment is usually water. Which of the following is true of the phospholipid layer?

a)

The tails of the phospholipid face the cytoplasm and surround environment

b)

The heads of the phospholipid face the cytoplasm and surrounding environment

c)

Both A and B

d)

neither A or B

110.

What is the role of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells?

a)

to transport materials throughout the cell

b)

to provide structure and mechanical support for the cell

c)

to regulate the flow of materials in and out of the cell

d)

to generate chemical energy that powers the cell

111.

A cells needs to transport a certain ion across its cell membrane. In which of these situations can you conclude that energy must be used?

a)

the ion is moving from high to low concentration

b)

the ion is moving from low to high concentration

c)

the ion is moving from the inside to the outside of the cell

d)

the ion is moving from the outside to the inside of the cell

112.

A student claims that a cytoskeleton is a structure unique to animals cells whose sole responsibility is giving the cells its shape. What is the statement incorrect?

a)

cytoskeletons are found in all cells

b)

cytoskeletons are also involved in cell division

c)

both A & B

d)

neither A nor B

113.

Which of these lists organizes the parts of a complex organism form most basic to most complex?

a)

cell-organ-tissue

b)

tissue-cell-organ

c)

cell-tissue-organ

d)

organ-tissue-cell

114.

What is the relationship between ER and GA

a)

Proteins from the ER are modified and packaged by the GA

b)

Chemical energy released by the ER is used by the GA to produce proteins

c)

The ER is a set of fibers within the GA that give the cells its shape

d)

the ER has digestive enzymes that break down food and waste from the GA

115.

A certain cell contains a nucleoid, plasmids, and ribosomes. What conclusion can be drawn about the cell?

a)

It must be prokaryotic

b)

It must be eukaryotic

c)

It must have a mitochondria

d)

It must have a capsule

116.

When a phospholipid bilayer forms in water, what can you conclude about the arrangement of the phospholipids?

a)

All the tails are pointing inward to the center of the bilayer

b)

All the tails are pointing toward the surround water

c)

All the heads are pointing inward to the center of the bilayer

d)

the orientation of the heads and tails alternates

117.

A student examines a cell using a microscope. He sees a nucleus, a cell wall, and chloroplasts. What is one conclusion he can draw about the cell?

a)

It could be a plant cell.

b)

It could be an animal cell.

c)

It cannot have ribosomes

d)

It cannot have a cell membrane

118.

What is one difference between ion channels and ion pumps?

a)

Ion pumps use active transport, but ion channels use passive transport.

b)

Ion pumps use passive transport, but ion channels use active transport

c)

Ion pumps use microtubules but ion channels use vacuoles

d)

Ion pumps use vacuoles, but ion channels use microtubules

119.

Which of these statements is NOT part of cell theory

a)

All cells emerge from pre-exisitng cells

b)

All organisms are composed of one or more cells

c)

Every cell has a nucleus that contains genetic material

d)

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

120.

What is one piece of evidence to support the idea that animal cells have shape and structure even though they do not have cell walls?

a)

Animal cells have capsules

b)

Animal cells have cytoskeletons

c)

Animal cells have flagella

d)

Animal cells have ribosomes

121.

A scientist prepares to examine a slide of bacterial cells and another slide of animal cells under a microscope. In which of the cells can she expect to observe lysosomes?

a)

In the bacterial cells only

b)

in the animal cells only

c)

in both bacteria and animal cells

d)

in neither bacteria nor animal cells

122.

A sealed bottle of clear fruit juice is stored for one mont. After one month, the juice is cloudy and a solid material has appeared in the bottom of the bottle. Testing reveals that the solid material is bacteria. Which of the following had to have been in the sealed bottle when it was stored in order to give rise to so many bacteria?

a)

at least on bacterium

b)

essential amino acids

c)

vitamins

d)

at least one virus

123.

Which of these statements best supports the idea that a cell is the basic unit of a living organism

a)

the number of cells in an organism affects the size of that organism

b)

a tissue is composed of cells with similar structure and function

c)

some organisms have only one cells

d)

all organisms are made up of one or more cells

124.

Which of these best explains why mitochondria are called the "powerhouse" of the cell?

a)

they generate chemical energy in the form of ATP

b)

they generate energy from photosynthesis

c)

they control all of the organelles in the cells

d)

they control the movement of the cell form one place to another.

125.

What is one difference between plant cells and animal cells?

a)

Animal cells have smaller vacuoles than plants do

b)

animal cells have thicker cell walls than plant cells do

c)

animal cells have ribosomes and plants do not

d)

animal cells have smaller chloroplasts than plants do

126.

Which of the following changes in the surrounding environment would be most likely to disrupt a phospholipid bilayer

a)

increase the concentration of water

b)

increase the concentration of phopholipid

c)

increase the concentration of a hydrophobic substance

d)

increase the concentration of a hydrophilic substance

127.

A student examines a human skin cell under a powerful microscope. Which of these could he expect to see in the cell?

a)

a cell wall

b)

a nucleoid

c)

one or more chloropasts

d)

one or more small vacuoles

128.

A student explains that plant cells have cell walls but not cell membranes, while animal cells have cell membranes but not cell walls. what is wrong with this statement?

a)

Plant cells do not have cell walls

b)

animal cells do not have cell membranes

c)

both plant and animal cells have cell walls

d)

both plant and animal cells have cell membranes

129.

A student makes the following statement: "All living things are made up of many cells." How should this statement be revised so that it is accurate?

a)

All living things are made up of one cell

b)

All living things are made up of one or more cells

c)

Some living things are made up of one ore more cells

d)

All living and non-living things are made up of many cells

130.

A student draws a diagram of an E. Coli cell, which is a type of bacteria. He draws and labels the cytoplasm, the cell membrane, DNA, and mitochondria. What is one problem with his diagram?

a)

Bacterial cells do not have DNA

b)

Bacterial cells do not have a cell membrane

c)

Bacterial cells do not have cytoplasm

d)

Bacterial cells do not have mitochondria

131.

Which of these is found in eukaryotic cells but not prokaryotic cells?

a)

cell membrane

b)

cytoplasm

c)

DNA

d)

nucleus

132.

A drug that can stop protein synthesis is added to a cell culture. Which of the following is most likely to determine if the drug kills the cells

a)

the number of ribosomes in teh cells

b)

the ability of the drug to cross the cell membrane

c)

the amount of protein in the cell

d)

whether the drug is natural or man-made

133.

A scientists hypothesizes that if the inner membrane of a mitochondria were smooth instead of folded, less ATP would be produced. Why would this affect ATP production?

a)

there would be less fluid available in the mitochondrion

b)

there would be more space available in the mitochondrion

c)

there would be less surface area on the inner membrane

d)

there would be no means on transporting materials through the inner membrane

134.

What is one difference between the head and tails of a phospholipid in the cell membrance?

a)

The head is attracted to water and the tails are repelled by the water

b)

the head is repelled by water and the tails are attracted to water

c)

the head transports ions and the tails transport waste material

d)

the head transports waste material and the tail transports ions

135.

In which of the following situations is a new organism produced?

a)

a single human skin cell divides

b)

a single-celled bacterium divides

c)

both A and B

d)

Neither A or B

136.

In which of the following cells would a scientist NOT be able to observe mitochondria?

a)

Plant cells

b)

Animal cells

c)

Fungal cells

d)

Bacterial cells

137.

Which of these statements correctly describes a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and prokaryotic cells do not

b)

Eukaryotic cells have DNA and prokaryotic cells do not

c)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus and eukaryotic cells do not

d)

Prokaryotic cells have DNA and eukaryotic cells do not

138.

How do substances move into or out of the cell through endocytosis?

a)

Substances are "engulfed" by a cell's plasma membrane and brought into the cell in a vesicle

b)

Substances are "engulfed" by a vesicle, which crosses the cell membrane

c)

Substances are "engulfed" by a cell's plasma membrane to form a channel into the cell

139.

Exocytosis is an example of what type of transport?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Passive transport

d)

Osmosis

140.

Facilitated diffusion allows certain kinds of compounds that are normally blocked by the cell membrane to cross the membrane. All of the following are examples of compounds that move by facilitated diffusion except

a)

Glucose

b)

Potassium

c)

Sodium

d)

Water

141.

All of the following describe a role of a biochemical pump in active transport except of which of the following?

a)

It helps move materials across the membrane against their concentration gradient

b)

It helps large molecules that do not normally cross the cell membrane to enter or exit cells

c)

It helps move water more quickly across the membrane

d)

It helps a cell accumulate a relatively high concentration of a molecule

142.

What factor(s) can affect diffusion speed?

a)

A size of the diffused materials

b)

Shape of the diffused materials

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

143.

Which best describes the role of exocytosis in cell transport?

a)

Exocytosis moves substances into the cell

b)

Exocytosis moves substances out of the cell

c)

Exocytosis moves substances into or out of the cell, against their concentration gradient

d)

Exocytosis moves substances into or out of the cell, down a concentration gradient

144.

How does particle size affect a molecule's transport across a cell membrane?

a)

It is easier for small molecules to diffuse across the cell membrane

b)

It is easier for large molecules to diffuse across the cell membrane

c)

Particle size is less important than a particle shape for calculation transport speed

d)

Particle size does not affect a molecule's transport speed across the cell membrane

145.

What differentiates facilitated diffusion from other forms of passive transports?

a)

In facilitated diffusion, a special protein channel helps substances cross the cell membrane

b)

Facilitated diffusion is not a form of a passive transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion required ATP

d)

In facilitated diffusion, water flows through protein channels until it reaches the same concentration inside and outside the cell

146.

Which example(s) of cell transport do/does not require chemical energy?

a)

Drops of blue food coloring are placed in water and spread throughout the water, turning it blue

b)

A potato slice is placed in water and water molecules from inside the potato move into the surrounding water

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

147.

Suppose that you stayed in the bathtub too long, causing your hands and feet to look wrinkled. What kind of passive cell transport causes this effect?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Exocystosis

148.

What is the role of ATP in the process of active transport?

a)

It provides the energy that cells need to move molecules against a concentration gradient

b)

It lengthens the fatty acid chains in the membrane

c)

It weakens the membrane, allowing molecules to pass through more easily

d)

It provides the energy to transport the cell in its environment

149.

What is (are) the main difference (s) between passive transport and active transport?

a)

Passive transport does not require any cellular proteins; active transport requires cellular proteins

b)

Active transport requires cellular energy for substances to cross the cell membrane; passive transport does not

c)

Passive transport occurs primarily in single-cell organisms; active transport occurs primarily in multicellular organisms

d)

Active transport works against gravity (for example, upwards from the root of a tree); passive transport works with gravity (downward)

150.

Which of the following is an example of osmosis?

a)

A plant's roots use osmosis to absorb water from the soil

b)

Intestinal cells use osmosis to absorb nutrients from food

c)

A single-celled organism uses osmosis to take in food particles

d)

The human body uses osmosis to move antibodies out of cell

151.

Which best describes the role of endocytosis in cell transport?

a)

Endocytosis moves substances into the cell

b)

Endocytosis moves substances out of the cell

c)

Endocytosis moves substances into or out of the cell, against their concentation gradient

d)

Endocytosis moves substances into or out of the cell, down a concentration gradient