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Term 2 Year 12 Chemistry Quizizz 2021

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What happens to a sample during ionisation using electrospray in a mass spectrometer?

a)

Gains a proton from a solvent

b)

Loses a proton from a solvent

c)

Gains an electron from a solvent

d)

Loses an electron from a solvent

2.

What is the unit for mass when using the equation ke=1/2mv2 in mass spectrometry?

a)

kg

b)

g

c)

mg

d)

nm

3.

What is the correct electronic structure for a Fe2+ ion? It has 24 electrons.

a)

1s22s22p63s23p63d6

b)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d6

c)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4

d)

1s22s22p63s23p64s13d5

4.

Use the successive ionisation energies to identify the group this element is in.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

7

5.

Which element has the largest first ionisation energy?

a)

Helium

b)

Fluorine

c)

Radon

d)

Francium

6.

How do you calculate a number of particles?

a)

moles of substance X Avogadro's constant

b)

moles of substance

Avogadro's constant

c)

Avogadro's constant

moles of substance

7.

Which value is given to the correct level of precision for a burette?

a)

23.50 cm3

b)

23.53 cm3

c)

23.5 cm3

d)

25.500 cm3

8.

How many peaks would there be on a mass spectrum for chlorine.

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

9.

Why is there a drop in ionisation energy between the 5th and 6th elements across a period?

a)

Two electrons in the same p orbital causes mutual repulsion

b)

The 6th element has a bigger nuclear charge.

c)

The electron being lost is in a different subshell.

d)

The electron is closer to the nucleus in the 6th element.

10.

Which value will be the same for every sample in a time of flight calculation?

a)

Kinetic energy

b)

Velocity

c)

Time

d)

Mass

11.

Which element has the largest first ionisation energy?

a)

Helium

b)

Fluorine

c)

Radon

d)

Francium

12.

What is the shape of a s orbital?

a)

sphere

b)

cube

c)

pyramidal

d)

dumbbell

13.

What holds the particles in an ionic lattice together?

a)

Electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions.

b)

Electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons.

c)

Intermolecular forces of attraction

d)

van der Waals forces

14.

Which substance will have the highest melting point?

a)

sodium chloride

b)

magnesium oxide

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

15.

What type of structure does iodine have?

a)

covalent molecular

b)

giant covalent

c)

giant metallic

d)

ionic lattice

16.

A substance has a low melting point and doesn't conduct electricity. What type of structure does it have?

a)

Covalent molecule

b)

Giant covalent

c)

Giant metallic

d)

Ionic lattice

17.

Which intermolecular forces would be present between molecules of HF?

a)

van der Waals, dipole-dipole forces and hydrogen bonding

b)

van der Waals and dipole-dipole forces

c)

van der Waals only

d)

dipole-dipole forces and hydrogen bonding

18.

What causes van der Waals forces?

a)

Uneven distribution of electrons

b)

Unequal sharing of electrons in a covalent bond.

c)

Polar bonds

d)

Attraction between lone pairs

19.

What causes dipole-dipole forces?

a)

A difference in electronegativity between 2 atoms

b)

Uneven distribution of electrons

c)

Molecules with H-F, N-H or O-H bonds

20.

What is the trend in ionisation energy as you go across a period?

a)

Generally increases with anomolies at group 3 and group 6.

b)

Generally decreases with anomolies at group 3 and group 6.

c)

Increases

d)

Decreases

21.

What is the trend in atomic radius as you go across a period?

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Increases then decreases

d)

Decreases then increases

22.

Which of the following substances would have the highest melting point?

a)

Sodium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Sulfur

d)

Chlorine

23.

Name the shape of a molecule with 5 bonding pairs around the central atom.

a)

Trigonal bipyramid

b)

Tetrahedral

c)

Octahedral

d)

Trigonal planar

24.

Name the shape of a molecule with 3 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair around the central atom

a)

Pyramidal

b)

V-Shaped

c)

T-Shaped

d)

Square planar

25.

If a molecule is a see-saw shape, how many pairs of electrons does it have around the central atom?

a)

4 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair

b)

3 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair

c)

5 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair

d)

4 bonding pairs and 2 lone pairs

26.

If a molecule is a T-shaped, how many pairs of electrons does it have around the central atom?

a)

3 bonding pairs and 2 lone pairs

b)

4 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair

c)

5 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair

d)

4 bonding pairs and 2 lone pairs

27.

If a molecule is a trigonal planar shape, what is its bond angle?

a)

120

b)

90

c)

109.5

d)

180

28.

If a molecule is a pyramidal shape, what is its bond angle?

a)

107

b)

109.5

c)

120

d)

118

29.

If a molecule is octahedral, what is its bond angle?

a)

90

b)

120

c)

109.5

d)

180

30.

What is the bond angle of this molecule?

a)

104.5

b)

109.5

c)

107

d)

120

31.

Which is the most electronegative element in the periodic table?

a)

Fluorine

b)

Francium

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Lithium

32.

Hydrogen bonding occurs between molecules when the hydrogen in the molecule is bonded to...

a)

Oxygen, Fluorine or Nitrogen

b)

Fluorine, Chlorine or Iodine

c)

Nitrogen, Oxygen or carbon

d)

Fluorine, Chlorine or oxygen

33.

Which are the standard conditions for enthalpy changes?

a)

100kPa and 298K

b)

100kPa and 273K

c)

100Pa and 298K

d)

100Pa and 173K

34.

Which is the definition for a mean bond enthalpy?

a)

The mean bond energy is the enthalpy needed to break the covalent bond into gaseous atoms, averaged over different molecules.

b)

The mean bond energy is the enthalpy needed to break the covalent bond into gaseous atoms, in one molecule.

c)

The mean bond energy is the enthalpy needed to break the ionic bond into gaseous atoms, averaged over different molecules.

d)

The mean bond energy is the enthalpy needed to break the ionic bond into gaseous atoms, in one molecule.

35.

Which is the definition for the enthalpy of formation?

a)

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of the compound is formed from its elements under standard conditions, all reactants and products being in their standard states.

b)

The enthalpy change that occurs when one mole of a substance is combusted completely in oxygen under standard conditions, all reactants and products being in their standard states.

c)

The enthalpy change for a reaction is independent of the route by which the chemical change takes place.

d)

The enthalpy needed to break the covalent bond into gaseous atoms, averaged over different molecules.

36.

How do you test for the presence of a sulfate ion?

a)

Add acidified BaCl2

b)

Add HNO3 and AgNO3

c)

Add concentrated H2SO4

d)

Add NaOH

37.

What would you observe if HNO3 and AgNO3 were added to a solution containing l- ions?

a)

Yellow precipitate

b)

Cream precipitate

c)

White precipitate

d)

No visible change

38.

How can test tube reactions be used to identify Ba2+ ions?

a)

Add sodium sulfate and a white precipitate would form.

b)

Add sodium hydroxide and a white precipitate would form.

c)

Add hydrochloric acid and a white precipitate would form.

d)

Add acidified silver nitrate and a white precipitate would form.

39.

Which of the following is an exception to the Aufbau principal when filling the shells for electronic structures?

a)

Cr

b)

Co

c)

Ca

d)

Cs

40.

What do you use to test for ammonium ions?

a)

Damp red litmus paper

b)

Damp blue litmus paper

c)

Silver nitrate solution

d)

Barium chloride solution

41.

How can you test for the presence of carbonate ions?

a)

Add HCl and bubble through limewater

b)

Add HNO3 and bubble through limewater

c)

Add H2SO4 and bubble through limewater

d)

Add AgNO3 and bubble through limewater

42.

To find the enthalpy of neutralisation, which piece of equipment would you do the chemical reaction in?

a)

Polystyrene cup

b)

Copper calorimeter

c)

Beaker

d)

Test tube

43.

Which is the definition of Hess's law?

a)

The total enthalpy change is independent of the route taken from reactants to products.

b)

The total enthalpy change is the heat energy transferred in a reaction at constant pressure.

c)

The total enthalpy change is the average energy needed to break a certain type of bond, over a range of compounds.

d)

The total enthalpy change when 1 mole of a compound is formed from it elements in their standard states under standard conditions.

44.

What is the enthalpy change for an element?

a)

0

b)

100

c)

298

d)

4.18

45.

What is the correct electronic structure for a copper atom? It has 29 electrons.

a)

1s22s22p63s23p64s13d10

b)

1s22s22p63s23p64s13d5

c)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d9

d)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5

46.

What is the correct formula for sodium sulfide?

a)

Na2S

b)

NaS

c)

NaS2

d)

2NaS

47.

A substance has a very high melting point and does not conduct electricity as a solution or when solid. What type of structure does it have?

a)

Giant covalent

b)

Covalent molecule

c)

Ionic lattice

d)

Giant metallic

48.

What holds the particles in a giant metallic structure together?

a)

Electrostatic attractions between the positive ions and delocalised electrons.

b)

Electrostatic attractions between the positive ions and negative ions.

c)

Intermolecular forces between the atoms

d)

Hydrogen bonding between the molecules

49.

What is the definition of relative atomic mass?

a)

Average mass of one atom compared to one twelfth of the mass of one atom of carbon-12

b)

Average mass of a molecule compared to one twelfth of the mass of one atom of carbon-12

c)

Amount of substance in grams that has the same number of particles as there are atoms in 12 grams of carbon-12.

50.

Which intermolecular forces would be present between molecules of ethane?

a)

van der Waals

b)

van der Waals and dipole-dipole

c)

van der Waals, dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding

51.

What is the name of this compound?

a)

ethanol

b)

ethanal

c)

ethanone

d)

methanal

52.

Which compound is a structural isomer of Z-but-2-ene?

a)

butane

b)

E-but-2-ene

c)

cyclobutane

d)

methylbut-2-ene

53.

What is the correct systematic name for

a)

2-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene

b)

2-bromo-3-ethylbut-2-ene

c)

3-bromo-2-ethylbut-2-ene

d)

4-bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene

54.

What is the name of this compound?

a)

propan-2-al

b)

propanane

c)

propanone

d)

propanal

55.

Which equation is a propagation step in the conversion of trichloromethane into tetrachloromethane by reaction with chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light?

a)

CHCl3 + Cl2 ⟶ CCl4 + HCl

b)

●CCl3 + ●Cl ⟶ CCl4

c)

CHCl3 + ●Cl ⟶ CCl4 + ●H

d)

●CCl3 + Cl2 ⟶ CCl4 + ●Cl

56.

What is a functional group?

a)

Group of atoms that give specific characteristics to a molecule

b)

Group of molecules that give specific characteristics to an atom

c)

Group of molecules that make up a group of atoms

d)

Group of atoms that give specific characteristics to an element

57.
Classify the compound based on the functional group present.
a)
carboxylic acid
b)
aldehyde
c)
alcohol
d)
ether
58.

What is a structural isomer?

a)

Same molecular formula but different structural formula.

b)

Different functional groups.

c)

Different bonds in the structure.

d)

Change in the position of the functional group.

59.

What is positional isomerism?

a)

Swap the position of two functional groups.

b)

Chain has the same molecular formula but a different chain length.

c)

Functional group is different.

d)

Same functional group and a different position.

60.

What is the molecular formula of 1,2-dichloroethene?

a)

C2H4Cl2

b)

C2H4Cl1

c)

C2H2Cl2

d)

C2H2Cl1

61.

What is the shortest chain-length alkane to have structural isomer?

a)

Ethane

b)

Butane

c)

Hexane

d)

Pentane

62.

Name this isomer of heptane

a)

5-methyl-heptane

b)

2-methyl-hexane

c)

2-methyl-heptane

d)

5-methyl-hexane

63.

Classify the compound based on the functional group present.

a)

aldehyde

b)

ketone

c)

alcohol

d)

carboxyl

64.
Classify the compound based on the functional group present.
a)
alkane
b)
alkene
c)
alkyne
d)
aromatic
65.
How is a Carboxyl Group commonly written?
a)
-OH
b)
 -COOH
c)
-COH
d)
-CHOH
66.

hydroxyl group

a)
b)
c)
67.

Which homolgous series contains only C-C single bonds?

a)

alkanes

b)

alkenes

c)

alcohols

d)

carboxylic acids

68.

What functional group is -OH

a)

Hydroxyl

b)

Carboxyl

c)

Amino

d)

Carbonyl Ketone

69.

-COO is the functional group for...

a)

alcohols

b)

esters

c)

carboxylic acids

d)

amides

70.

Name this carboxylic acid

a)

ethanoic acid

b)

prpoanoic acid

c)

butyl butanoate

d)

butanoic acid

71.
How many carbons are in the longest chain?
a)
5
b)
3
c)
1
d)
6
72.
Name the compound
a)
2 - dimethylpropane
b)
2 - methylbutane
c)
2,2 - dimethylpropane
d)
2,2 - dimethylpentane
73.
What is the formula we use to determine the number of hydrogens an alkane has?
a)
CnH2n
b)
CnH2n-2
c)
CnHn
d)
CnH2n+2
74.
Which formula represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
75.

CH3CH3 is an example of a _______________ formula.

a)

molecular

b)

condensed

c)

structural

d)

molar

76.

What is the name of this compound?

a)

Pentan-5-ol

b)

Hexanoic acid

c)

Hexanal

d)

Pentan-2-ol

77.

Which of these formulae correctly represents but-1-ene?

a)
b)
c)
d)
78.

What is the correct relationship between the two molecules shown below?

a)

There is no relationship

b)

They are positional isomers

c)

They are chain isomers

d)

They are functional group isomers

79.

Which of the following is a structural isomer of the molecule shown above?

a)
b)
c)
d)
80.

Which among the following does not exhibit geometric isomerism

a)

1-hexene

b)

2-hexene

c)

3-hexene

d)

4-hexene

81.

There are two main forms of isomerism, which are?

a)

Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism

b)

Stereoisomerism and physical isomerism

c)

Chemical isomerism and stereoisomerism

d)

None of the above

82.

Which of the following compounds has the highest melting point?

a)

Hexane

b)

2-Methylpentane

c)

2,2-dimethylbutane

d)

3-methylpentane

83.

Which of the following carbocations is the least stable?

a)

Secondary

b)

Primary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Methyl

84.

Which of the following reaction types is characteristic of alkenes?

a)

Nucleophilic subsititution

b)

Electrophilic addition

c)

Electrophilic substitution

d)

Nucleophilic addition

85.

What is the general formula for alkenes?

a)

CnH2n

b)

CnH2n+2

c)

CnH2n-2

d)

Cn2Hn

86.

Which bond breaks during cracking?

a)

C-C bond

b)

C-C double bond

c)

C-H bond

d)

C-OH bond

87.

Which form of cracking produces the highest percentage of alkenes?

a)

Catalytic

b)

Steam

c)

Fractional

d)

Thermal

88.

Which reagent is needed to change a haloalkane to an alcohol?

a)

KOH (aq)

b)

KOH(alc)

c)

H2O/ dilute H2SO4

d)

Cr2O72-/H+

89.

Which reagent is needed to change a haloalkane to an amine?

a)

KOH (aq)

b)

NH3(alc)

c)

H2O/ dilute H2SO4

d)

Cr2O72-/H+

90.

Which reagent is needed to change CH3CH2OH to CH3COOH

a)

KOH (aq)

b)

NH3(alc)

c)

H2O/ dilute H2SO4

d)

Cr2O72-/H+

91.

Which reagent is needed to change an alcohol to an alkene?

a)

KOH (alc)

b)

water/dilute H2SO4

c)

concentrated H2SO4

d)

Cr2O72-/H+

92.

Which reagent is needed to change CH3CH=CH2 to CH3CHClCH3

a)

Cl2 (aq)

b)

SOCl2

c)

PCl3

d)

HCl

93.

Which reagent is needed to change a haloalkane to an alkene?

a)

KOH (aq)

b)

KOH(alc)

c)

concentrated H2SO4

d)

KMnO4

94.

haloalkane ------> alcohol - reaction type?

a)

addition

b)

substitution

c)

elimination

d)

oxidation

95.

haloalkane ------> alkene - reaction type?

a)

addition

b)

substitution

c)

elimination

d)

oxidation

96.

alcohol ------> carboxylic acid - reaction type?

a)

addition

b)

substitution

c)

elimination

d)

oxidation

97.

Which is not a possible product when propane, C3H8, reacts with chlorine in sunlight?

a)

H2

b)

C6H14

c)

C3H7Cl

d)

Cl2

98.

Applying IUPAC rules, what is the name of CH3CH(CH3)CH2COOH?

a)

2,3-dimethylpropanoic acid

b)

Pentanoic acid

c)

3-methylbutanoic acid

d)

2-methylbutanoic acid

99.

Which statement is correct about the polymerization of ethene to poly(ethene)?

a)

The polymer is an alkene.

b)

The monomer ethene and the repeating unit have the same empirical formula.

c)

The monomer ethene is less reactive than the polymer.

d)

The polymer contains C−C single and C=C double bonds.

100.

What is the tendency of an atom to attract electrons towards itself in a bond?

a)

atomic radius

b)

ionization energy

c)

shielding

d)

Electronegativity

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