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General Sports Med 75

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which answer is a true statement about LDL?

a)

“Bad” Cholesterol

b)

Molecules that build up in arteries

c)

Low Density Lipoproteins

d)

All of the options

e)

None of the options

2.

How many amino acids do we need to consume to make all amino acids needed in our body?

a)

20

b)

12

c)

11

d)

9

3.

Potassium and sodium are responsible for ____________.

a)

Heart rate

b)

Fluid balance of cells

c)

Antibody production

d)

Neutralizing free radicals

4.

Which of the following vitamins are Fat Soluble?

a)

A,D,E,K

b)

B's, C

c)

A,C,E

d)

A,B's,C,D,E

e)

No Vitamins are fat soluble

5.

The _______________ provides stabilization against valgus force to the elbow.

a)

Annular Ligament

b)

Medical Collateral Ligament

c)

Lateral Collateral Ligament

d)

Transverse Carpal Ligament

6.

The finger deformity that presents with extension of the distal interphalangeal joint and flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint is:

a)

Mallet finger

b)

Swan Neck Finger

c)

Jersey Finger

d)

Boutonnierre Deformity

7.

Which one of the following regions of the spinal column is in correct order from inferior to superior?

a)

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx

b)

sacrum, coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical

c)

thoracic, cervical, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx

d)

coccyx, sacrum, lumbar, thoracic, cervical

8.

Which of the following will help to clot blood?

a)

Iron

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Magnesium

d)

Vitamin E

9.

A blow to the top of an athlete's head while in flexion is called:

a)

Atlas loading

b)

Axis loading

c)

Linear loading

d)

Axial loading

10.

Dislocated hips _________________

a)

occur frequently in sports

b)

result from traumatic force directed anteriorly along the long axis of the femur

c)

presents with the hip in a flexed, adducted and internally rotated position

d)

All the options

e)

None of the options

11.

The outer periphery of the intervertebral disk is composed of strong fiberous tissue and is called the:

a)

Annulus Fibrosus

b)

Annulus Pulposus

c)

Nucleus Fibrosus

d)

Nucleus Pulposus

12.

What region of the spine is responsible for the least amount of spinal flexion and extension?

a)

Cervical

b)

Lumbar

c)

Lumbosacral

d)

Thoracic

13.

The muscle that is the main stabilizer for patellar tracking is the:

a)

Vastus Lateralis

b)

Vastus Intermedius

c)

Sartorius

d)

Vastus Medialis

14.

What is the common slang name for IT Band tendinitis?

a)

Jumper's Knee

b)

Bowlegged

c)

Runner's Knee

d)

Snapping Hip

15.

Where do most people feel pain from IT Band Tendinitis?

a)

ASIS area

b)

Lateral aspect of hip

c)

Gluteal area

d)

Lateral knee

16.

What Pes anersine muscle also helps with Hip Adduction?

a)

Gracillis

b)

Semitendinosus

c)

Sartorius

d)

No pes anserine muscles are invovled in adduction

17.

By putting our knee into flexion, which muscles are being stretched?

a)

Calves

b)

Quads

c)

Hamstrings

d)

Groin

18.

This injury normally occurs from prolonged period of training on uneven surfaces like a trail?

a)

Jumper's Knee

b)

Patellar Bursitis

c)

Quad Strains

d)

Runner's Knee

19.

If a soccer player gets slide tackled from the inside of there leg, which ligament is at highest risk to injury?

a)

LCL

b)

ACL

c)

MCL

d)

PCL

20.

Which of the following structures is involved in the “unhappy” triad?

a)

MCL, PCL, LCL

b)

ACL, PCL, MCL

c)

ACL, MCL, Meniscus

d)

ACL, PCL, Meniscus

21.

The movement of twisting is the most common way you injury what structure?

a)

Quad Tendon

b)

Semitendinous Tendon

c)

Meniscus

d)

Patellar Tendon

22.

Every year, how many female college female athletes will tear there ACL?

a)

1:5

b)

1:100

c)

1:10

d)

1:25

23.

If an athlete receives a blow from the outside of there knee, what potential injury can occur?

a)

Patellar tendinitis

b)

MCL tear

c)

ACL tear

d)

LCL tear

24.

How many hamstring muscles are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

25.

This hamstring muscle resides the deepest and is on the medial side?

a)

Rectus Femoris

b)

Vastus Lateralis

c)

Vastus Intermedius

d)

Semimembranous

26.

This condition usually starts occuring during the mid-season of basketball:

a)

ITB Syndrome

b)

Runner's Knee

c)

Plica

d)

Patellar tendinitis

27.

Which ligament is responsible for not allowing the tibia to slide anteriorly?

a)

LCL

b)

MCL

c)

ACL

d)

PCL

28.

A forceful twisting over a planted foot could result in what type of fracture?

a)

Blow out

b)

Fisture

c)

Greenstick

d)

Serrated

e)

Spiral

29.

Anatomically, a fracture to what part of a long bone could be detrimental for a child in regard to the healthy and normal growth of the bone?

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

articular cartilage

d)

periosteum

30.

An athlete suffering from a medial collateral sprain may also have injured what other structure?

a)

Lateral Collateral Ligament

b)

Gracillis muscle

c)

Posterior Cruciate Ligament

d)

Meniscus

31.

The Q-angle is _________.

a)

comprised of lines that bisect the patella relative to the ASIS and tibial tubercle

b)

can be indicative of specific pathologies if less than normal

c)

normal in females at 10 degrees and 15 degrees for males

d)

All the above are true

32.

Walking, half squatting, ascending stairs, leg alignment, and patella positioning all should be evaluated during which portion of the injury evaluation?

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Range of Motion

d)

Resistance

e)

Special Tests

33.

The rotational component of the knee associated with knee motion is called the ___________.

a)

rotational mecahnism

b)

recoil mechanism

c)

closed chain mecahnism

d)

screw home mechanism

34.

Blood supply of the menisci is most extensive in the_________.

a)

inner third

b)

middle third

c)

outer third

d)

equal in all portions

35.

Which of these is not a sign of shock?

a)

Patient has a very slow pulse

b)

Respirations are shallow and rapid

c)

Athlete may appear sluggish or exceptionally drowsy

d)

Blood Pressure is falling

36.

When dealing with an injured athlete, the first action that must be taken is:

a)

Roll the athlete on there back

b)

Determine level of consciousness

c)

Stop any bleeding that may be severe

d)

Look for spinal cord injury indicators

37.

When performing chest compressions on a adult, where does the rescuer place the heel of the hand?

a)

Four fingers inferior to the xiphiod process

b)

On the center of the sternum

c)

On the xiphiod process

d)

Two fingers above the lower end of the sternum

38.

A red skin color on a light-colored individual may indicate:

a)

Insufficient circulation, shock or fright

b)

Heat Stroke, High blood pressure, or carbon monoxide poisoning

c)

Hemorrhage, heat exhaustion, or insulin shock

d)

Cynosis in the lips and fingernails or airway obstruction

39.

Shock occurs as a result of:

a)

Fractures

b)

Internal Injuries

c)

Severe Bleeding

d)

All the options

40.

Which of the following ice treatments should not be directly applied to the skin of an individual?

a)

Ice towels

b)

Ice cups

c)

Ice packs

d)

Frozen Gel Packs

41.

Fractures of the shoulder complex should be immobilized using an:

a)

Air Splint

b)

Sling and swathe

c)

Sling

d)

Swathe

42.

When one is controlling external bleeding, the sequence of events is as follows:

a)

Direct pressure is applied on pressure points and then the body part is elevated

b)

Elevate the body part then apply direct pressure over the wound

c)

Apply pressure on the artery supplying the area with blood and elevate above the heart

d)

Apply direct pressure over the wound and elevate the body part

43.

When an athlete is being placed on a spine board, who is in control?

a)

the physician

b)

the person stabilizing the victims head

c)

the head athletic trainer

d)

The EMT that arrives on the scene

44.

The order in which you should palpate an injury should be

a)

muscle, connective tissue, bony landmarks, skin

b)

bony landmarks, soft tissue

c)

connective tissue, muscle, tendons, bony landmarks

d)

none of the above

45.

Sharp and burning pain is characteristic of what type of injury?

a)

Nerve Injury

b)

Muscular problems

c)

Joint injury

d)

Bone fracture

46.

All of the following are common signs and symptoms of HBV except:

a)

Jaundice

b)

Headache

c)

Abdominal Pain

d)

Weight Loss

47.

What should tables in the athletic training roombe cleaned with?

a)

A 1:10 solution of alcohol and water

b)

A 1:20 solution of bleach and water

c)

A 1:10 solution of bleach and water

d)

Soap and water

48.

Agents that diminish nerve activity or body functions are:

a)

sedaitives

b)

depressants

c)

stimulants

d)

antispasmodics

49.

Movement that is performed solely by the athlete is called:

a)

assistive

b)

resistive

c)

active

d)

eccentric

50.

The most common cause of airway obstruction for the unconscious athlete is:

a)

mouth guards

b)

tongue

c)

dislodged dental work

d)

gum and chewing tobacco

51.

The process of ingesting microorganisms, other cells, or foreign particles commonly performed by monocytes is called:

a)

permeability

b)

phagocytosis

c)

Margination

d)

Synthesis

52.

A condition that has a gradual onset with diffuse tenderness and swelling of a tendon is called:

a)

Bursitis

b)

Myositis Fasciitis

c)

Tendinitis

d)

Tenosynovitis

53.

Which of the following wounds is caused by an object that penetrates directly into the skin?

a)

Incision

b)

Abrasion

c)

Avulsion

d)

Puncture

54.

When taping a routine non-injury ankle, the foot position should be:

a)

slightly plantarflexed

b)

Slightly dorsiflexed

c)

Slightly everted

d)

neutral at a 90 degree angle

55.

Where maximum support is desired, tape:

a)

over gauze

b)

on powder

c)

over underwrap

d)

directly to skin

56.

What common injury listed below would be treated by constructing a protective pad?

a)

Knee collateral ligament sprain

b)

Hamstring strain

c)

Lateral ankle sprain

d)

Quadriceps contusion

57.

The organization responsible for helmet certification standards is:

a)

Athletic Equipment Manager Association

b)

National Collegiate Athletic Association

c)

American National Standards Institute

d)

National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment

58.

If you are out on the soccer practice field and you see lightning, what should you do?

a)

Stop activity and seek shelter

b)

Wait to see another bold before leaving the field

c)

Once you see the bolt, listen for the thunder to see how far the storm is from the field

d)

Crouch down on the field

59.

The single best method to avoid heat stress is to:

a)

Acclimatize

b)

Identify susceptible athletes

c)

Eat a well-balanced diet

d)

Use electrolyte solutions

60.

Absence of sweating with hot, flushed, dry skin is indicative of:

a)

heat exhaustion

b)

heat stroke

c)

heat cramps

d)

hypothermia

61.

A mineral that is extremely important in the body’s ability to create muscle contraction, blood clotting,, and proper nerve function is:

a)

Calcium

b)

Sodium

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Iron

62.

The basic unit of protein is:

a)

amino acid

b)

polysaccharide

c)

monosaccharide

d)

glucose

63.

The greatest rate in which oxygen can be taken in and utilized during exercise is referred to as:

a)

Residual volume

b)

Tidal volume

c)

Cardiovascular endurance

d)

VO2 max

64.

When a sprinter runs the 50 yard dash he/she is primarily using which type of muscle fiber?

a)

Slow twitch type I

b)

Fast twitch type IIa

c)

Fast twitch type IIb

d)

Slow twitch type Ib

65.

Stroke volume and heart rate determine the ___________ of the heart.

a)

Cardio respiratory endurance

b)

Cardiac output

c)

Aerobic capacity

d)

VO2 max

66.

The stretch method that uses an extreme stretch that is held for a second at a time is:

a)

Static stretch

b)

Dynamic stretch

c)

Ballistic stretch

d)

PNF stretch

67.

Increasing the strenuousness of exercise to a consistently higher level through maximum or near-maximum stimulation is an application of what principle?

a)

SAID

b)

Conditioning

c)

Overload

d)

DAPRE

68.

The approach to conditioning that attempts to bring about peak performance while reducing injuries and overtraining is known as:

a)

Cross training

b)

Periodization

c)

Constancy

d)

Specificity

69.

What does the Snellen test evaluate?

a)

Reaction time

b)

Hearing

c)

Sight

d)

Balance

70.

SOAP is an acronym for:

a)

Subjective, Observation, Assessment, Plan

b)

Special tests, Objective, Attitude, Plan

c)

Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Participation

d)

Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

71.

OSHA stands for:

a)

Occupational Safety and Housing Administration

b)

Organization for Safety and Health Administration

c)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

d)

Organization for Standards on Health Administration

72.

Which of the following domains includes explaining proper nutrition?

a)

Injury prevention

b)

Professional development

c)

Immediate care

d)

Rehabilitation

73.

The athletic trainers is most directly responsible for all phases of health care in the athletic environment except:

a)

Prevention of athletic injuries

b)

Diagnosis of athletic injuries

c)

First aid and injury management

d)

Implementation of prescribed rehabilitation

74.

A condition in which nerves are entrapped between the metatarsal heads producing swelling with pain radiating distally is called:

a)

Morton’s neuroma

b)

Interdigital syndrome

c)

Hammer toes

d)

Hallux neuritis

75.

Another name for an abnormally high arch is:

a)

Pes plantaris

b)

Pes equina

c)

Pes cavus

d)

Hallus rigidis