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Biochemistry

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the positive visible result for Liebermann – Burchard test?

a)

yellow crystal

b)

white amorphous precipitate

c)

black precipitate

d)

bluish-green color

2.

The enzymes for glycolysis are found in the

a)

mitochondrion

b)

ribosome

c)

cytosol

d)

nucleus

3.

This is differentiating test for aldose and ketose sugars?

a)

Seliwanoff's Test

b)

Barfoed Test

c)

Mucic Acid Test

d)

Any of the above

4.

This is also known as Embden- Mayeroff pathway?

a)

glycolysis

b)

glycogenesis

c)

Gluconeogenesis

d)

glycogenolysis

5.

The nonsugar portion of glycosides is known as (Multiple answers)

a)

Aglycone

b)

Genin

c)

Glycone

d)

Glycine

6.

What type of glycosidic bond joins the dimer of glucose to form maltose?

a)

alpha 1, 4

b)

beta 1, 4

c)

alpha 1, 2

d)

beta 1, 2

7.

Glucose and galactose differ only in the configuration of their -OH group at C4, thus they are called

a)

diastereomers

b)

enantiomers

c)

anomers

d)

epimers

8.

This DNA duplex has a special left handed- helical structure.

a)

A-DNA

b)

B-DNA

c)

Z-DNA

d)

F-DNA

9.

Which of the following amino acids has an imino group?

a)

F

b)

Y

c)

V

d)

P

10.

The fibrous proteins is the most abundant single proteins in vertebrates.

a)

Keratin

b)

Collagen

c)

Elastin

d)

Fibronectin

11.

Which of the following is soluble in water and salt solutions, and has no distinctive amino acids?

a)

Protamine

b)

Globulin

c)

Albumin

d)

Histones

12.

What enzyme is responsible for converting phenylalanine to tyrosine

a)

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

b)

Phenylalanine dehydrogenase

c)

Phenylalanine ligase

d)

Phenylalanine kinase

13.

Which of the following enzyme/s may be used to diagnose myocardial infarction? (Multiple Answers)

a)

Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase

b)

AST/SGOT

c)

Creatinine phosphokinase

d)

Lactate dehydrogenase

14.

Acute pancreatitis may be diagnose using which serum enzymes? (Multiple answers)

a)

Acid phosphatase

b)

Alkaline phosphatase

c)

Lipase

d)

Amylase

15.

Which of the following enzymes adds an inorganic phosphate to break a bond?

a)

Kinase

b)

Phosphorylase

c)

Phosphatase

d)

Ligase

16.

What is the deficiency state of folic acid?

a)

Aplastic anemia

b)

Pernicious anemia

c)

Megaloblastic anemia

d)

Macrocytic anemia

17.

This class of immunoglobulin is produced during the early response to invading organisms. It has a relatively large size that restricts its transport in the bloodstream.

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

18.

This term refers to an intact with a bound co-factor?

a)

Holoenzyme

b)

Apoenzyme

c)

Zymogen

d)

Prosthetic group

19.

Which of the following test is specific for amino acids and free amino group

a)

Biuret test

b)

Hopkins Cole test

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Xanthoproteic test

20.

Xanthprotheic test is a test for?

a)

Free Amino groups

b)

Arg

c)

Cys

d)

Tyr

21.

This test is used to identify the presence of peptide linkage?

a)

Ninhydrin

b)

Sakaguchi

c)

Hopkins Cole

d)

Biuret

22.

Hopkins Cole is used to identify which of the following amino acids?

a)

T

b)

W

c)

L

d)

K

23.

Specific test for Arg

a)

Biuret test

b)

Basic Lead Acetate Test

c)

Ninhydrin

d)

Sakaguchi

24.

This is also known as protein calorie malnutrition. It is a state resulting from the chronic deficiency of calories , which can occur even in the presence of adequate intake of protein.

a)

Marasmus

b)

Obesity

c)

Hemochromatosis

d)

Kwashiorkor

25.

The digestion of protein begins in the

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Pancreas

26.

Pepsinogen is an example of

a)

Apoenzyme

b)

Holoenzyme

c)

Cofactor

d)

Zymogen

27.

Racemase and mutase are examples of what type of enzymes?

a)

Lyases

b)

Isomerases

c)

Oxidoreductase

d)

Ligase

28.

Which of the following enzymes is an example of hydrolases?

a)

esterase

b)

racemase

c)

racemase

d)

decarboxylase

29.

Maltose, a disaccharide is composed of

a)

glucose + galactose

b)

glucose + fructose

c)

glucose + glucose

d)

glucose + mannose

30.

Which of the following carbohydrates contains the most number of carbon atoms?

a)

sedoheptulose

b)

sialic acid

c)

ribose

d)

glycerose

31.

Which of the following present a cyclic sugar nature?

a)

Fischer projection

b)

Boat conformation

c)

Chair projection

d)

Haworth projection

32.

The glycosidic formed in glycosides is an example of

a)

ester bond

b)

ether bond

c)

ketone bond

d)

Noncovalent bond

33.

Which pancreatic cell type of its responsible for secreting Insulin hormone?

a)

A cell or α

b)

B cell or β

c)

D cell or δ

d)

F cell or γ

34.

The cell markers, which serve as basis for the ABO blood types, are classified as what type of biopolymers?

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleic acids

35.

Which of the following is the reason why blood type AB is considered as universal recipient?

a)

It is the most common among the ABO blood types

b)

Blood type AB has neither A nor B substances

c)

blood type AB has neither anti- A nor anti- B antibodies

d)

all of the above

36.

Which of the following is / are examples of glycosaminoglycans?

a)

hyaluronic acids

b)

mucopolysaccharides

c)

chondroitin sulfate

d)

all of the above

37.

Raffinose, a trisaccharide also known as (Multiple answers)

a)

melitose

b)

melitriose

c)

melezitose

d)

melititrose

38.

α-napthol reaction is also known as

a)

Molisch test

b)

Ninhydrin test

c)

Phenylhydrazine test

d)

Fehlings test

39.

The inhibition in noncompetitive reaction _______.

a)

competes with the active site of the enzyme

b)

binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site

c)

increases the rate of reaction

40.

It is a precursor of vit. A

a)

β-carotene

b)

retinol

c)

retinal

d)

Tretinoin

41.

It is the organelle which serves as the site of the electron transport chain.

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosome

c)

nucleus

d)

lysosome

42.

The active proteolytic enzyme in gastric juice is:

a)

Chymotrypsin

b)

catalase

c)

maltase

d)

Trypsin

43.

The enzyme conformation adapts to the incoming substrate in

a)

Lock and Key theory

b)

Induced Fit Model

c)

competitive inhibition

d)

Enzyme activity

44.

The process of converting glucose into glycogen is called

a)

gluconeogenesis

b)

glycogenesis

c)

glycolysis

d)

glycogenolysis

45.

A hormone which stimulates glycogenesis:

a)

insulin

b)

glucagon

c)

epinephrine

d)

vasopressin

46.

A synthetic DNA is called

a)

replicated DNA

b)

plasmid

c)

gene

d)

recombinant DNA

47.

The transfer of genetic information from DNA by the formation of mRNA

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

transamination

d)

replication

48.

The ff. are phospholipids, except:

a)

plasmalogen

b)

lecithin

c)

cephalin

d)

choline

49.

The central compound found in the structure of sphingolipids:

a)

glycerol

b)

sphingosine

c)

ceramide

d)

phosphocholine

50.

The ff. are glycolipids except:

a)

globosides

b)

phosphatides

c)

gangliosides

d)

cerebrosides

51.

The reagent present is Molisch test which is responsible for the dehydration reaction:

a)

sodium carbonate

b)

magnesium stearate

c)

sulfuric acid

d)

NaOH

52.

ID test to detect the presence of glycogen:

a)

phloroglucinol

b)

molisch

c)

iodine

d)

Seliwanoff

53.

Important structural material found in the exoskeletons of many lower animals:

a)

chnondroitin

b)

heparin

c)

hyaluronic acid

d)

chitin

54.

Type of RNA which serves as template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized:

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

none of the above

55.

Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm

d)

lysosomes

56.

Osazone test is also known as:

a)

Nylander's

b)

Kowarsky test

c)

Trommer's

d)

Folin's test

57.

Body functions of lipids:

a)

transformation into proteins and carbohydrates

b)

catabolism to provide body with heat and energy

c)

insulation and paddings for organs

d)

all of the above

58.

In man, the principal end product of protein metabolism is:

a)

uric acid

b)

lactic acid

c)

pyruvic acid

d)

urea

59.

Condition wherein acetone accumulates in the blood:

a)

ketosuria

b)

ketonemia

c)

ketosis

d)

ketonuria

60.

Glutamine is a _____ amino acid:

a)

neutral

b)

basic

c)

acidic

d)

racemin

61.

Most amino acids do not absorb visible light and thus are colorless. However, there are some that can absorb light. Which of the following groups of amino acids contribute to the ability of most proteins to absorb high wavelength (250-290nm) UV light?

a)

Alanine, Valine, Leucine

b)

Arginine, Lysine and Histidine

c)

Trytophan, Tyrosine and Phenylalanine

d)

Glutamate, and Aspartate

e)

Serine, Cysteine, and Threonine

62.

Which of the following pairs of amino acid with the indicated side-chain is correct?

a)

Cysteine-Sulfhydryl Group

b)

Serine-Guanido Group

c)

Valine-Methyl Group

d)

Methionine-Hydroxymethyl Group

e)

Trytophan-Phenol Group

63.

What are the components of endogenous thymidine?

a)

Methylated Deoxyribose and Uracil

b)

Ribose, Thymine and Phosphate

c)

Ribose and Thymine

d)

Deoxyribose, Thymine and Phosphate

e)

Deoxyribose and Thymine

64.

Which amino acid is antagonized by drugs of abuse such as ketamine and phencyclidine and is implicated schizophrenia?

a)

Glycine

b)

Glutamate

c)

Aspartate

d)

Tyrosine

e)

Trypttophan

65.

A 57-year-old man with a long history of alcohol abuse comes to the emergency room with symptoms of confusion and hepatomegaly on examination. The patient also has a flapping tremor at the wrist (asterixis). He is diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy, which can be partially treated with a diet of branched-chain amino acids. Which of the following sets amino acids would you suggest?

a)

Tryptophan, Phenylalanine, Tyrosine

b)

Methionine, Proline, Cysteine

c)

Aspartate, Glutamine, Asparagine

d)

Alanine, Glycine

e)

Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine

66.

A man diagnosed of Hartnup disease wherein his urinalysis results showed significant increase in neutral amino acids. Which of the following amino acids would have been found in his urine sample?

a)

Histidine

b)

Glutamate

c)

Arginine

d)

Lysine

e)

Phenylalanine

67.

An organelle is the portion of a cell enclosed by a membrane. Based on this, which of the following is not strictly an organelle?

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Lysosome

d)

None of the above

e)

Ribosome

68.

Which of the following vitamins may cause CNS disturbances, liver, and skin damage when taken in excess?

a)

A

b)

D

c)

B3

d)

E

e)

B6

69.

Among the major forms of purines found in the DNA, which does not possess an oxo/carbonyl group on the ring?

a)

Adenine

b)

Uracil

c)

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

e)

Guanine

70.

There are several biochemical catalysts found inside and outside the cell. Biomolecules with catalytic activity include:

a)

Enzymes

b)

Enzymes & DNA

c)

Enzymes & Amino Acids

d)

All of the above

e)

Enzymes and RNA

71.

Carcinoid Syndrome can cause Pellagra. Pellagra causes Hartnup Disease.

a)

Statement 1 is TRUE but Statement 2 is FALSE

b)

Statement 2 is TRUE but Statement 1 is FALSE

c)

Both are TRUE

d)

Both are FALSE

72.

Two sugars that differ only in the configuration of one carbon atom other than the terminal carbon atom and the penultimate carbon are called _____.

a)

Anomers

b)

Erythro isomers

c)

Epimers

d)

Threo Isomers

e)

Enantiomers

73.

Amino sugar found in chondroitin

a)

N-acetylfructosamine

b)

N-acetylmuramic acid

c)

N-acetylglucosamine

d)

N-acetylmannosine

e)

N-acetylgalactosamine

74.

The ff. tests have been conducted to an unknown analyte.

Benedict test: (-)

Bial's Test: (-)

Seliwanoff's test: (-)

Lugol's Test: (+)

What is the identity of the analyte?

a)

Ribulose

b)

Ribose

c)

Fructose

d)

Starch

75.

It is the dietary precursor for arachidonic acid.

a)

Oleic acid

b)

Linolenic acid

c)

Cervonic acid

d)

Timnodonic acid

e)

Linoleic acid

76.

In the double stranded DNA, the strand which is transcribed during nucleic acid synthesis is known as ____.

a)

Template strand

b)

Transcribing strand

c)

Replicating strand

d)

Synthetic strand

e)

Coding strand

77.

Amylose differs from amylopectin in that amylose contains α-1,4 linkages while amylopectin contains _____ linkage/s

I. α-(1→2) II. α-(1→4) III. α-(1→6)

a)

I, II & III

b)

II only

c)

I & II

d)

III only

e)

II & III

78.

Phosphatidylcholine is also known as

a)

Lecithin

b)

Cardiolipin

c)

Cephalin

d)

Sphingomyelin

e)

Plasmalogen

79.

Fructose intolerance can lead to

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

Flatulence

d)

GIT spasms

e)

Hypoglycemia

80.

Docosahexanoic acid found in fish oil preparations such Omacor® is commonly known as?

a)

Palmitoleic acid

b)

Linolenic acid

c)

Timnodonic Acid

d)

Cervonic acid

e)

Linoleic Acid

81.

DNA differs from RNA in that the -OH in C2 of the monosaccharide found in the RNA is replaced by:

a)

Amino group

b)

Hydrogen atom

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Carbonyl carbon

e)

Carboxyl carbon

82.

Which of the ff is not a form of DNA within cells

a)

A-DNA

b)

D-DNA

c)

B-DNA

d)

F-DNA

e)

Z-DNA

83.

What is the central nucleus to all sterols?

a)

Cyclopentanephenanthrene

b)

Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene

c)

Cyclopentanoperhydrophenantrene

d)

Steroidal Ring

e)

Cyclopentanophenanthrene

84.

Eicosanoid mediator of bronchoconstriction and airway hyperactivity.

a)

Prostaglandin

b)

Thromboxane

c)

Arachidonic acid

d)

Leukotriene

e)

Prostacyclin

85.

Secondary messengers that are biosynthesized by action of phospholipase C include diacylglycerol and:

a)

Inositol-4,5-bisphosphate

b)

Inositol-1,4,5,6-tetraphosphate

c)

Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate

d)

Inositol monophosphate

e)

Inositol-5-phosphate

86.

It is the basic unit glycolipids

a)

Glycerol

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Sphingosine

d)

Phosphatidate

e)

Ceramide

87.

Which of the ff statement/s regarding the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology is/are true?

I. DNA replication occurs in a semi-conservative manner

II. The amino acid sequence of proteins is directly dependent on the nucleotide sequence of the DNA.

III. Reverse transcription is impossible.

a)

I,II,III

b)

I & III

c)

I & II

d)

I only

e)

II & III

88.

Which of the ff is used for determination or testing for the presence of reducing sugars & monosaccharides?

I. Nylander's Test

II. Tauber's Test

III. Barfoed's Test

IV. Seliwanoff's Test

a)

I & III

b)

II & III

c)

I & II

d)

II, III & IV

e)

II & IV

89.

What monosaccharide readily forms osazones?

a)

Galactose

b)

Mannose

c)

Fructose

d)

Ribose

e)

Glucose

90.

In mRNA processing, the 5' end is attached with what nucelotide that serves as a "cap" to render it stable against 5' exonucleases and for it to be recognized by the translation machinery of the cell?

a)

7-methyladenosine triphosphate

b)

1-methylguanosine triphosphate

c)

7-methylguanosine triphosphate

d)

3-methylguanosine triphosphate

e)

7-methylinosine triphosphate

91.

Complementary base pairs in the DNA double helix are bonded by:

a)

H-bond

b)

van der Waals forces

c)

Ester bond

d)

Glycosidic bond

e)

Dipole-dipole forces

92.

Which of the ff statement/s is/are true about uricase?

I. Converts uric acid to H2O-soluble allantoin.

II. It is found only in higher primates.

III. rDNA derived uricases are now being employed for the management of gouty arthritis.

a)

I only

b)

I, II & III

c)

II only

d)

III only

e)

I & II

93.

Which of the ff are isosteric to other amino acids?

a)

H & K

b)

N & D

c)

N & Q

d)

D & N

94.

Which of the ff amino acids are uncharged and polar?

I. H II. N III. S IV. D

a)

I & II

b)

II & III

c)

I & III

d)

II & IV

e)

I & IV

95.

Amino acid that gives a positive result for Sakaguchi reaction

a)

Gelatin

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Arginine

d)

Tryptophan

e)

Alanine

96.

A nucleic acid is made up of

a)

Sugar, Nucleoside and a Base

b)

Proteins, Sugar and Amino acid

c)

Nitrogenous, Amino acid and Sugar

d)

Nitrogenous Base, Phosphate, and Sugar

e)

Phosphate, Proteins, Nitrogenous Base

97.

In the pineal gland, serotonin is converted to melatonin by

I. N-actylation II. N-methylation

III. Oxidation IV. O-methylation

a)

I & II

b)

II & IV

c)

III & IV

d)

I & IV

e)

I & III

98.

Which of the ff antibodies is capable of opsonization?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgD

d)

IgM

e)

IgE

99.

Which of the ff statements is/are true regarding the secondary structure of nucleic acids?

I. Guanine forms base pairs with cytosine via 2 hydrogen bonds.

II. The B form of the DNA is the most common in biological systems.

III. The breaking of H-bonds caused by high temperature is called melting.

a)

I, II & III

b)

I & III

c)

I & II

d)

II only

e)

II & III

100.

Which of the ff is a homotrisaccharide?

a)

Raffinose

b)

Gentianose

c)

Melitose

d)

Maltotriose

e)

Melitriose

101.

What stabilizes the primary structure of proteins?

a)

Salt bridges

b)

Peptide bonds

c)

Hydrophobic Bonds

d)

Hydrophobic interactions

e)

Disulfide Bonds

102.

Which of the ff is not a method of determining primary protein structure?

a)

Mass spectroscopy

b)

Genomics

c)

Edman Reaction

d)

Phenylisothiocyanate Degradation

e)

Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis

103.

The ff is incorrect about protein structure determination except:

a)

NMR is the primary means of determining protein structure.

b)

Large & very complex proteins can only be analyzed by NMR.

c)

Proteins are difficult to crystallize, a disadvantage of X-ray crystallography.

d)

An advantage to the use of x-ray crystallography is that proteins analyzed are in their natural state.

e)

None of the above