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3rd 9wks EXAM REVIEW Biology

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the original source of almost all energy in most ecosystems?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
sunlight
c)
water
d)
carbon
2.
An organism that needs to eat other organisms to obtain energy is known as a:
a)
Autotroph
b)
Producer
c)
Consumer
d)
Mutualist
3.

The organisms that make up a community and the nonliving parts of the environment that they interact with are a(n)

a)

Population

b)

Community

c)

Habitat

d)

Ecosystem

4.

Plants that convert energy from the sun are also called

a)

decomposers

b)

primary consumers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

producers

5.
Two or more members of a particular species living and interacting in the same area
a)
Community
b)
Population
c)
Organisms
d)
Biosphere
6.
Animals, such as fiddler crabs, advertise the size of their enlarged claw to intimidate their rivals. This territorial display is an example of what type of relationship?
a)
predation
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
mutualism
7.
A common food web in a grassland would be grass > mice > snake > hawk. If these organisms live next to a farmer's field that regularly uses an ammonium nitrate fertilizer.  Which would have the highest concentration?
a)
snake
b)
hawk
c)
mice
d)
grass
8.
Which of the following correctly lists the flow of matter in the food web above? 
a)
plants, animals, nematodes, arthropods
b)
animals, nematodes, arthropods, plants
c)
plants, nematodes, arthropods, animals
d)
nematodes, plants, arthropods, animals
9.
Based on the food web shown above, which of the following is most likely responsible for the rabbit population trend as shown in the graph? 
a)
increase in amount of grass
b)
decrease in amount of grass
c)
overpopulation in squirrel population
d)
increase in rabbit population
10.
Grass --> Grasshopper --> Mockingbird represents __________. 
a)
food chain
b)
food pyramid
c)
food web
d)
ecosystem
11.
Logistic growth has 3 phases. In Phase 1, the population grows rapidly. In Phase 2, population grows slowly. In Phase 3, growth stops. What causes growth to stop in the 3rd phase of logistic growth?
a)
Emigration
b)
Immigration
c)
Exponential Growth
d)
Carrying Capacity
12.
In this Food Web Pyramid Which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Secondary Consumer
13.
What process breaks down sugars and makes large amounts of ATP when oxygen is present?
a)
Anaerobic Respiration
b)
Cellular Respiration
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Photosynthesis
14.
In what step of cellular respiration is glucose broken down?
a)
Aerobic Respiration
b)
Krebs Cycle
c)
Electron Transport Chain
d)
Glycolysis
15.
What are the two main products of the Krebs Cycle?
a)
H2O and CO2
b)
ATP and CO2
c)
ATP and O2
d)
ADP and H2O
16.
How would you describe cellular respiration?
a)
Sunlight and CO2 make ATP
b)
ATP and O2 are used to make sugars
c)
Carbon-based molecules from food and oxygen are used to make ATP
d)
ATP and CO2 are used to make ADP and Water
17.
What do you get at the end of glycolysis?
a)
Pyruvate, NADH, and ATP
b)
NAD, Oxygen, and ATP
c)
Carbon Dioxide, Water, ATP
d)
NAD, ATP, Pyruvate
18.
Why do you need the Krebs cycle?
a)
Form Citric Acid that makes NADH, water and CO2
b)
Breaking down pyruvate to form NADH and Oxygen
c)
Producing molecules that carry high energy electrons to the ETC
d)
bonding coenzyme A to pyruvate
19.
What phrase best describes the main role of fermentation?
a)
convert glucose into pyruvate and NADPH
b)
produce lactic acid to counteract an oxygen deficit
c)
allow glycolysis to continue making small amounts of ATP
d)
allow anaerobic production of ADP
20.
Which is correct about fermentation?
a)
take place without oxygen
b)
uses the ETC
c)
occurs only in bacteria
d)
is an aerobic process
21.
What causes your muscles to burn?
a)
Carbon Dioxide
b)
Pyruvate
c)
Alcohol
d)
Lactic Acid
22.
What end product of alcoholic fermentation is important in the baking industry?
a)
Lactic Acid
b)
Carbon Dioxide
c)
ATP
d)
Alcohol
23.
What is the equation for cellular respiration?
a)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> --> --> 6CO2 + 6H2O
b)
C6H12O6 + 6CO2 --> --> --> 6O2 + 6H2O
c)
6 CO2 + 6H2O --> --> --> 6O2 + C6H12O6
24.

The tiny cell part where cellular respiration occurs is the -

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

cell membrane

d)

ribosomes

25.

Which type of cell uses cellular respiration?

a)

Plant cells

b)

Animal cells

c)

Both Animals and Plants

26.

What are the reactants for cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

d)

ATP energy

e)

glucose

27.

What are the products for cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

d)

ATP energy

e)

glucose

28.
______________ produces the most ATP.
a)
photosnthesis
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
anaerobic respiration
d)
glycolysis
29.

Which of the following limits the maximum size of a cell?

a)

the stage of the cell cycle

b)

the surface area to volume ratio of a cell

c)

the number of mitochondria in a cell

d)

the size of the organism

30.

The process of mitosis and cytokinesis produce two identical___________?

a)

daughter cells

b)

strands

c)

chromosomes

d)

chromatids

31.

During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up along the equator (the middle) of the cell?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

32.

DNA is in the form of __________________ during INTERPHASE.

a)

chromatin

b)

chromosomes

c)

chromatids

33.

DNA is copied during the _________ phase.

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

34.

The cell prepares to divide during the__________ phase.

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

35.

Daughter cells (the result of mitosis) are _________________ from the original cell.

a)

identical

b)

Different

36.

G1, S, and G2 phases occur during_________________

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

37.

Spindle fibers originate from the ________________.

a)

Centriole

b)

Chromosome

c)

Chromatid

d)

Centromere

38.

What phase has checkpoints?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Interphase

39.

Which tumor does not harm to the body and looks similar to normal cells?

a)

Benign

b)

Malignant

c)

Metastasis

d)

Lymphocyte

40.

Which tumor type travels to other parts of the body and is harmful to the body?

a)

Benign

b)

Malignant

c)

Metastasis

d)

Lymphocyte

41.

Which is NOT a risk factor for cancer?

a)

Water

b)

smoke

c)

to much UV light

d)

genetics

e)

virus

42.

Which is NOT a type of cancer treatment?

a)

Aromatherapy

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation Therapy

d)

Surgery

43.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
sex cells
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
44.

A human usually has xx amount of chromosomes.

a)

6

b)

23

c)

4

d)

46

e)

92

45.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
46.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
47.
Goes through P.M.A.T two rounds 
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Osmosis
d)
Transcription
48.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid cells
b)
Diploid Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
49.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
50.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
51.
products of meiosis are genetically
a)
different
b)
identical
52.
Determine the sex of the individual whose karyotype is displayed in the image.
a)
female
b)
male
53.
Determine the sex of the individual whose karyotype is displayed in the image.
a)
female
b)
male
54.
Which structure is labeled as A in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
55.
Which structure is labeled as B in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
56.
Which structure is labeled as C in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
57.
Chromosome pairs 1-22 are referred to as
a)
sex chromosomes
b)
sister chromatids
c)
a karyotype
d)
autsomes
58.
A picture of paired chromosomes is a
a)
sister chromatid
b)
centromere
c)
syndrome
d)
karyotype
59.
Which would be considered a somatic cell?
a)
Sperm cell
b)
Egg Cell
c)
Skin Cell
d)
All of these
60.
In humans, mitosis produces____ chromosomes and _____ chromosomes after Meiosis
a)
46, 46
b)
92, 46
c)
46, 23
d)
23, 23
61.
A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. This means one of their gametes was missing a chromosome.
Which of the following is why gametes sometimes lack a complete chromosome?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Nondisjunction
c)
Inversion mutation
d)
Substitution mutation
62.

What is the full name of DNA?

a)

Double Nucleotide Acid

b)

Dinosaurs Need Asprin

c)

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

d)

Dihydrogen Nitrogen Acetate

63.

What are the building blocks of DNA?

a)

nucleotides

b)

amino acids

c)

DNA pieces

d)

polymerase

64.

Where in most cells it the DNA found?

a)

DNA organelle

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

nucleus

65.

What are the three parts of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogenous base

b)

nucleics, sugar, ribose

c)

nitrogenous base, adenine, deoxyribose

d)

nitrogenous base, adenine, deoxyribose

66.

What 4 letters represent the four nitrogenous bases:

a)

A, T, G, C

b)

A, B, C, D

c)

A, U, G, C

d)

N, A, G, T

67.

What pairs with Adenine in DNA?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Adenine

68.

What pairs with Cytosine in DNA?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Adenine

69.

Who used x-ray diffraction to first visualize the shape of DNA?

a)

James Watson

b)

Francis Crick

c)

Rosalind Franklin

d)

Watson Crick

70.

A sequence of nucleotides that codes for traits and are hereditary are called a:

a)

DNA

b)

gene

c)

chromosome

d)

nitrogenous base

71.

The first step in transcription is

a)

Messenger RNA exits the nucleus.

b)

DNA is “unzipped” by special enzymes in the nucleus.

c)

DNA re-winds into a double helix.

d)

Messenger RNA is created by complementary base pairing to a single DNA strand.

72.

Methionine is indicated by the nucleotide sequence_______, which is a ______.

a)

TAC; amino acid

b)

UAA; RNA sequence

c)

UAG; stop codon

d)

AUG; start codon

73.

The process of building protein molecules from the genetic information in an mRNA blueprint is called

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

polypeptide

74.

After DNA replication, the resulting strands of the double helix are

a)

complementary

b)

identical

c)

proteins

d)

never replicated again

75.

In eukaryotes,

a)

transcription takes place in the cytoplasm, and translation takes place in the nucleus.

b)

transcription takes place in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm.

c)

transcription and translation both take place in the nucleus.

d)

transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm.

76.

The main enzyme involved in linking individual nucleotides into DNA molecules is

a)

DNA protease

b)

ribozymes

c)

carbohydrates

d)

DNA polymerase

77.

During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the

a)

codon on the mRNA and anticodon on the rRNA

b)

anticodon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA

c)

anticodon on the rRNA and the codon on the mRNA

d)

codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA

78.

The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of mRNA is:

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

transformation

d)

replication

79.

Each combination of three nitrogenous bases on messenger RNA forms a(an):

a)

anticodon

b)

enzyme

c)

codon

d)

nucleic acid

80.

A DNA sequence is ATGCCAGTA. The new strand of DNA that is made will have which sequence?

a)

ATGCCAGTA

b)

TACGGTCAT

c)

UACGGUCAU

d)

TACTGGCAT

81.

Before a cell divides, it must duplicate its DNA in a process known as:

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

transformation

d)

replication

82.

If there is an ATT on the DNA side, what three nitrogen containing bases would be on the RNA side?

a)

UAA

b)

TAA

c)

TTA

d)

AAU

83.

What is made at the end of translation?

a)

an mRNA molecule

b)

protein

c)

2 semi-conservative strands of DNA

d)

a tRNA molecule

84.

What is made at the end of transcription?

a)

an mRNA molecule

b)

protein

c)

2 semi-conservative strands of DNA

d)

a tRNA molecule

85.

What are the building blocks of proteins?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

phosphates

86.

Pick the proper match for the shape of DNA to RNA

a)

RNA is a double helix and DNA is a single strand.

b)

DNA is a double helix and RNA is a single strand.

c)

DNA is a ring and RNA is a double helix.

d)

DNA is a triple helix and RNA is a double helix.

87.

What nitrogen containing bases would be found in RNA?

a)

AUCG

b)

ATCG

c)

phosphates

d)

sugars

88.

What is the function of tRNA?

a)

It is what makes the ribosome.

b)

It carries the message from DNA to the ribosome.

c)

It transfers the amino acid to the growing protein on the ribosome.

d)

It is in the cell membrane and controls what moves in and out.

89.

This is the site of protein synthesis when translation takes place.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Golgi Body

90.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
91.
What is the central dogma of biology?
a)
Proteins are made from RNA that assembles amino acids through DNA ribosomes.
b)
RNA copies all information for an organism onto DNA which assembles ribosomes, and creates amino acids from proteins
c)
DNA is the blueprint for an organism. RNA copies specific sections that need to be built and transfers that information to a ribosome which assembles proteins out of amino acids.
d)
RNA is the blueprint for an organism. It copies its information onto DNA, which takes amino acids (like lego building blocks) and assembles those acids into proteins.
92.

Which of the following would most likely cause a mutation?

a)

the placement of ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum

b)

the insertion of a nucleotide into DNA

c)

the movement of transfer RNA out of the nucleus

d)

the release of messenger RNA from DNA

93.

A diagram of a cellular process is shown above.


Which of the following identifies the process shown at point Z?

a)

translation

b)

translocation

c)

replication

d)

transcription

94.

During transcription the DNA base sequence is transcribed into a complimentary mRNA sequence. A codon table like the one shown below lists the amino acids coded for by particular triads of mRNA bases. A segment of DNA has undergone a mutation in which one nucleotide has been changed. The original sequence was ACG and the new sequence is ACA. Use the codon table to determine whether or not this mutation will cause a change in the phenotype of the organism.

a)

yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because a new amino acid will be coded for.

b)

yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because any change in the DNA sequence will cause a change in phenotype.

c)

Even though the DNA sequence changed, the sequence still codes for the same amino acid, so no change in phenotype will occur.

d)

It is impossible to determine if a change in phenotype will occur using only the DNA sequence.

95.
 Which sequence depicts the correct order of protein synthesis within a cell? 
a)
DNA → mRNA → amino acids → proteins
b)
DNA → amino acids → mRNA → proteins
c)
 DNA → mRNA → proteins → amino acids
d)
DNA → proteins → amino acids → mRNA
96.

Adenine (A) of a DNA molecule will only join to _______ of an mRNA molecule.

a)

Cytosine (C)

b)

Guanine (G)

c)

Thymine (T)

d)

Uracil (U)

97.

Which type of mutation causes changes of individual nucleotide in the DNA

a)

Chromosome Mutation

b)

Gene Mutation

98.

This type of mutation changes the DNA sequences but does not change the amino acid sequences and has no effect on an organism.

a)

Chromosome Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Point Mutation

d)

Frameshift Mutation

99.

The type of mutation changes only one nucleotide in the DNA sequence which results in the amino acid changing.

a)

Chromosome Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Point Mutation

d)

Frameshift Mutation

100.

This type of mutation either inserts or deletes a nucleotide in a DNA sequence. Causes MAJOR changes to amino acid sequences.

a)

Silent Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

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