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Law of Contracts Chapter quizzes

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The DTPA helps protect...?

a)

Agents

b)

Consumers

c)

Sellers

d)

Attorneys

2.

In order to help prevent the buyer from withdrawing their offer, when should a seller provide a prospective buyer with the property disclosure form...?

a)

After the contract is signed with the prospective buyer

b)

Before the prospective buyer makes an offer

c)

After the prospective buyer's offer is accepted

d)

After the prospective buyer's home inspector conducts their inspection of the property

3.

How can an agent avoid the unauthorized practice of law...?

a)

Refuse to provide legal advice

b)

Have their client's attorney perform any edits to the contract form

c)

Refer their client to an attorney for legal advice

d)

All of the above

4.

The duties and powers of TREC are described in which of the following documents...?

a)

RESPA

b)

TRELA

c)

DTPA

d)

NAR

5.

Who is authorized to provide legal advice to sellers...?

a)

Attorneys

b)

Brokers

c)

Agents

d)

All of the above

6.

Who oversees the Broker/Lawyer Committee...?

a)

The Texas Attorney General

b)

The Texas Real Estate Commission

c)

The Texas Governor

d)

The Texas Bureau of Real Estate

7.

Section 1101.155 of the Texas Real Estate License Act deals with which of the following...?

a)

Rules regarding independent contractors

b)

Rules regarding the Texas contract forms

c)

Rules regarding broker conduct

d)

Rules regarding agency relationships

8.

The moral principles that govern a person's or group's behavior are known as...?

a)

Ethics

b)

Statutes

c)

Guidelines

d)

Laws

9.

Where can agents and brokers look to find the most up to date promulgated contract forms...?

a)

Realtor.com

b)

TREC website

c)

BRE website

d)

All of the above

10.

Once TREC approves a form drafted or edited by the Broker/Lawyer Committee, the form is considered...?

a)

Void

b)

Promulgated

c)

Recorded

d)

Reviewed

11.

The individual who contributes real property to a trust is considered the...?

a)

Trustee

b)

Trustor

c)

Grantee

d)

Beneficiary

12.

Personal property that has become real property by having been permanently attached or adapted to real property is known as a...?

a)

Chattel

b)

Fixture

c)

Trade fixture

d)

Emblement

13.

Married couples in Texas typically own property as...?

a)

Community property

b)

Severalty ownership

c)

Tenancy by the entirety

d)

Joint tenancy

14.

Ownership in a cooperative consists of which of the following...?

a)

Proprietary lease

b)

Title

c)

Real property

d)

Deed

15.

Real estate is considered land plus...?

a)

Bundle of rights

b)

Surface rights

c)

Man-made improvements

d)

All of the above

16.

The rights of an owner of a freehold estate to possession, enjoyment, control, and disposition of real property is known as...?

a)

Real estate

b)

Title

c)

Bundle of rights

d)

Chattels

17.

Personal property is also known as...?

a)

Real estate

b)

Chattels

c)

Emblements

d)

Fixtures

18.

Items that are installed by a commercial tenant and are removable upon termination of the tenancy are considered...?

a)

Emblements

b)

Fixtures

c)

Trade fixtures

d)

Real property

19.

Real estate plus the bundle of rights is known as...?

a)

Land

b)

Real estate

c)

Real property

d)

Chattels

20.

A trust involves a trustor, trustee, and a...?

a)

Attorney

b)

Broker

c)

Grantor

d)

Beneficiary

21.

A contract that has been fully performed is considered a/an...?

a)

Void contract

b)

Closed contract

c)

Executory contract

d)

Executed contract

22.

Which of the following is an example of a unilateral contract...?

a)

Net listing

b)

Open listing

c)

Exclusive right to sell agreement

d)

Exclusive agency agreement

23.

Which of the following is considered a bilateral contract...?

a)

Net listing agreement

b)

Sales contract

c)

Exclusive right to sell agreement

d)

All of the above

24.

A valid contract must include which of the following...?

a)

Offer and acceptance

b)

Consideration

c)

Legal purpose

d)

All of the Above

25.

A State law requiring certain contracts to be in writing and signed before they will be enforceable at law is known as the...?

a)

Statute of Limitations

b)

Statute of Frauds

c)

Statute of Agency

d)

Statute of Contracts

26.

A contract in which something remains to be done by one or both of the parties is considered a/an...?

a)

Executed contract

b)

Executory contract

c)

Void contract

d)

Open contract

27.

An independent contractor agreement is considered what type of contract...?

a)

Unilateral contract

b)

Implied contract

c)

Bilateral contract

d)

Void contract

28.

Anything given or promised by a party to include another to enter into a contract is called...?

a)

Consideration

b)

Novation

c)

Conversion

d)

Assignment

29.

If a contract requires a party to not do something, it is referred to as...?

a)

Blocking

b)

Forbearance

c)

Consideration

d)

Performance

30.

If a contract requires a party to do something, it is referred to as...?

a)

Closing

b)

Performance

c)

Consideration

d)

Forbearance

31.

A freehold estate created for the duration of the life or lives of certain named persons is known as a...?

a)

Fee simple absolute estate

b)

Leasehold estate

c)

Fee simple determinable estate

d)

Life estate

32.

A right acquired by one party to use the land of another party for a special purpose is referred to as a/an...?

a)

Easement

b)

Encroachment

c)

Lien

d)

Homestead

33.

Utility companies typically hold what type of easement...?

a)

Easement by prescription

b)

Dominant easement

c)

Easement by necessity

d)

Easement in gross

34.

After a fee simple determinable estate ends, the interest in the property reverts back to the...?

a)

Remainderman

b)

Tenant

c)

Tenant

d)

Grantor

35.

There are two primary types of estate in land, freehold estates and...?

a)

Trust estates

b)

Absolute estates

c)

Temporary estates

d)

Leasehold estates

36.

Which of the following is an example of an involuntary lien...?

a)

Mechanic's lien

b)

Tax lien

c)

Judgment lien

d)

All of the Above

37.

This type of easement exists when a landowner has no access to roads and is landlocked...?

a)

Dominant easement

b)

Easement by prescription

c)

Easement in gross

d)

Easement by necessity

38.

Which of the following may impact an owner's interest in a property...?

a)

Easements

b)

Liens

c)

Encumbrance

d)

All of the above

39.

Which of the following acronyms can be used to describe the powers the government possesses over real property...?

a)

PETE

b)

PITI

c)

SADDLE

d)

RESPA

40.

Which of the following is an example of a voluntary lien...?

a)

Tax lien

b)

Mortgage lien

c)

Judgment lien

d)

All of the above

41.

An options agreement is included in which of the following contracts...?

a)

Exclusive Right to Sell Agreement

b)

Net Listing Agreement

c)

One to Four Family Residential Contract (resale)

d)

Residential Listing Contract

42.

Which of the following exists without a contract or lease, and is unspecified in duration or exchange of payment...?

a)

Estate for years

b)

Temporary estate

c)

Tenancy at sufferance

d)

Tenancy at will

43.

A tenant is also referred to as a...?

a)

Grantee

b)

Lessor

c)

Grantor

d)

Lessee

44.

A ready, willing, and able buyer means the buyer...?

a)

Is ready to sign the sales contract

b)

Has the financial means to close on the property

c)

Is ready to move towards closing on the property

d)

All of the above

45.

A landlord is also referred to as a...?

a)

Lessor

b)

Grantee

c)

Grantor

d)

Lessee

46.

A real estate developer may be interested in which of the following types of leases...?

a)

Net lease

b)

Percentage lease

c)

Gross lease

d)

Ground lease

47.

The buyer is the .....................in a Buyer Agency Agreement?

a)

Broker

b)

Principal

c)

Agent

d)

Customer

48.

A residential lease is typically what type of lease...?

a)

Ground lease

b)

Net lease

c)

Gross lease

d)

Percentage lease

49.

Which of the following leasehold estates will automatically renew...?

a)

Estate at sufferance

b)

Estate from period to period

c)

Estate at will

d)

Estate for years

50.

A percentage lease is typically used with what type of tenant...?

a)

Industrial tenant

b)

Retail tenant

c)

Office tenant

d)

Residential tenant

51.

What does the vendor offer a vendee in a transaction...?

a)

A property free of any cosmetic defects

b)

Equitable title

c)

Money

d)

All of the above

52.

A clause written in a sales contract that states the buyer must be allowed to terminate the contract if he/she cannot obtain financing is an example of which of the following...?

a)

Contingency

b)

Acknowledgement

c)

Notice

d)

Bulletin

53.

The commingling of funds may lead to which of the following...?

a)

Conversion

b)

Steering

c)

Blockbusting

d)

Redlining

54.

A home warranty is typically valid for up to how many months after a buyer purchases a property....?

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

12 months

d)

24 months

55.

If a party cannot close on the agreed upon closing date, and an amendment isn't made to the contract, the party is said to be in...?

a)

Rescission of contract

b)

Blocked contract

c)

Breach of contract

d)

Execution of contract

56.

Which of the following must be included in a valid sales contract...?

a)

Legal description of the property

b)

The signatures of buyer and seller

c)

The price and terms of the transactions

d)

All of the above

57.

Which of the following deeds is most commonly used to transfer residential property in Texas...?

a)

Quitclaim deed

b)

Bargain and sale deed

c)

Deed without covenants

d)

General warranty deed

58.

The party that receives a counter-offer is called the...?

a)

Counter-offeree

b)

Counter-offeror

c)

Offeror

d)

Offeree

59.

The party that receives the offer is called the...?

a)

Grantee

b)

Offeree

c)

Grantor

d)

Offeror

60.

The buyer's earnest money is normally held by which of the following...?

a)

The County Clerk

b)

The escrow agent

c)

The seller themselves

d)

The buyer's attorney

61.

How do addendums affect a contract...?

a)

They add content to the existing contract

b)

They void the contract

c)

They modify the existing content of the contract

d)

All of the above

62.

Which of the following addenda are used when the buyer is obtaining a conventional mortgage to purchase a property...?

a)

Sellers financing addendum

b)

Reverse mortgage addendum

c)

Loan assumption addendum

d)

Third party financing addendum

63.

Which of the following is the most common type of contingency found in sales contracts...?

a)

Insurance contingency

b)

1031 Exchange contingency

c)

Seller financing contingency

d)

Mortgage contingency

64.

Amy is negotiating the purchase of a new house. What contingencies may Amy add to the sales contract...?

a)

Mortgage contingency

b)

Mortgage contingency

c)

Title contingency

d)

All of the above

65.

Ely is in the process of purchasing a new house and needs to obtain a mortgage. In addition to a mortgage contingency, what other contingency may Ely add to the sales contract...?

a)

Appraisal contingency

b)

Credit contingency

c)

Disclosure contingency

d)

Moving contingency

66.

Who selects the appraiser to be used to appraise a property under contract...?

a)

The buyer's broker

b)

The lender

c)

The seller's broker

d)

An independent third party service

67.

The amount that a bank will lend on a property is based on which of the following...?

a)

The contract price only

b)

The appraised value only

c)

The higher of the contract price or the appraised value

d)

The lesser of the contract price or the appraised value

68.

Which of the following contingencies ensures that the buyer will receive clear title to the property...?

a)

Appraisal contingency

b)

Title contingency

c)

Mortgage contingency

d)

Inspection contingency

69.

Which of the following contingencies allows a buyer to get out of a sales contract if he/she cannot sell their existing home...?

a)

Property sale contingency

b)

Inspection contingency

c)

Exchange contingency

d)

Mortgage contingency

70.

Lisa recently signed a sales contract to purchase a new house. In the contract, Lisa needed to add a mortgage contingency. This contingency makes the contract a/an ................contract?

a)

Executed

b)

Unenforceable

c)

Assigned

d)

Voidable

71.

Non-judicial foreclosure favors which of the following...?

a)

The broker

b)

The Trustee

c)

The Lender

d)

The borrower

72.

Which of the following operates in the primary mortgage market...?

a)

Credit unions

b)

Commercial banks

c)

Savings and loans

d)

All of the Above

73.

A mortgagee is typically the...?

a)

Seller

b)

Buyer

c)

Lender

d)

Borrower

74.

Which of the following operates in the secondary mortgage market...?

a)

Fannie Mae

b)

Ginnie Mae

c)

Freddie Mac

d)

All of the above

75.

The taking of a title to property by a grantee wherein the grantee assumes liability for payment of an existing note secured by a mortgage or deed of trust against the property, is known as...?

a)

Release of a mortgage

b)

"Subject-to" a mortgage

c)

Assumption of mortgage

d)

Alienation of a mortgage

76.

Mark recently obtained a mortgage and signed a promissory note with the lender. Which of the following is most likely included in Mark's promissory note...?

a)

The amount of the debt

b)

The interest rate of the loan

c)

The time and method of payment of the debt

d)

All of the above

77.

When is an acceleration clause typically executed...?

a)

At the assignment of mortgage

b)

When the property is leased

c)

When the property is taxed

d)

At the Sale of the Property

78.

This occurs when monthly installment payments are insufficient to pay the interest accruing on the principal balance, so that the unpaid interest must be added to the principal due...?

a)

Inflation

b)

Deflation

c)

Negative amortization

d)

Amortization

79.

A mortgagor is also referred to as a...?

a)

Lender

b)

Seller

c)

Borrower

d)

Creditor

80.

Judicial foreclosure favors which of the following...?

a)

The broker

b)

The lender

c)

The Trustee

d)

The borrower

81.

The seller in a residential sales transaction is considered the...?

a)

Trustor

b)

Trustee

c)

Grantee

d)

Grantor

82.

A suit to quiet title is used to do which of the following...?

a)

Remove an owner from title

b)

Fix a defect in title

c)

Add on to a title

d)

Record a title

83.

Which of the following is required in a valid deed...?

a)

Habendum clause

b)

Consideration

c)

A granting clause

d)

All of the above

84.

Who conducts a title search...?

a)

A title abstractor

b)

A real estate broker

c)

A lender

d)

A property owner

85.

Which of the following deeds offers the most amount of protection to the buyer...?

a)

General warranty deed

b)

Bargain and sale deed

c)

Special warranty deed

d)

Quitclaim deed

86.

This form of involuntary alienation involves the taking of property through the open, notorious, continuous, and hostile occupancy of the property...?

a)

Adverse possession

b)

Foreclosure

c)

Condemnation

d)

Eminent domain

87.

David recently lost his property through a foreclosure sale. This is an example of...?

a)

Voluntary grant

b)

Voluntary alienation

c)

Improper transfer

d)

Involuntary alienation

88.

Which of the following is obtained as a result of a title search...?

a)

Record of title

b)

Abstract of title

c)

Survey of title

d)

Summary of title

89.

The transfer of title freely by the owner is referred to as...?

a)

Voluntary alienation

b)

Granting

c)

Trustor

d)

Involuntary alienation

90.

Liens are generally prioritized based on which of the following...?

a)

Liens are not prioritized over one another

b)

The amount of the lien

c)

The desire of the property owner

d)

The date when the lien was recorded

91.

Which of the following should be done if the seller agrees to offer the buyer a credit for defects found during the property inspection...?

a)

Provide an addendum to the original contract

b)

Provide a bulletin to the original contract

c)

Amend the original contract

d)

Draft a new contract

92.

Which of the following Acts helps prevent consumers from getting charged higher than anticipated fees by lenders at closing...?

a)

Mortgage Disclosure Improvement Act

b)

Lender Disclosure Act

c)

Mortgage Settlement Act

d)

Financing Disclosure Act

93.

Title which is not encumbered or burdened with defects is known as...?

a)

General title

b)

Clear title

c)

Clouded title

d)

Effective title

94.

The division of certain settlement costs between a buyer and seller is known as...?

a)

Escrow

b)

Settlement

c)

Proration

d)

Conversion

95.

An appraiser will document the appraised value of a house on the...?

a)

Uniform Residential Appraisal Report

b)

Texas Appraisal Report

c)

National Appraisal Report

d)

HUD Appraisal Form

96.

What should a buyer do in preparation for closing...?

a)

Conduct the final walk-through

b)

Obtain a cashier's check

c)

Compare the good faith estimate to the HUD-1 form

d)

All of the Above

97.

When representing a seller, what is the very first form the broker must have the seller review and sign...?

a)

Purchase contract

b)

Disclosure of Agency

c)

Information About Brokerage Services

d)

Listing contract

98.

How does a pre-approval letter from a lender help a buyer...?

a)

It gives the buyer an estimated closing date

b)

It determines what size house a buyer can purchase

c)

It gives the buyer an idea of how much they can afford

d)

It determines where a buyer can purchase a house

99.

Which of the following is included in a lender's good faith estimate...?

a)

A survey of the property

b)

The lender's loan origination fee

c)

An appraisal of the property

d)

All of the above

100.

The escrow agent typically serves as the...?

a)

Closing agent

b)

Attorney

c)

Seller's agent

d)

Lender representative

101.

The Special Provisions part of a contract are to be used for...?

a)

Legal description of the property

b)

Subjective details

c)

Factual statements and business details

d)

All of the above

102.

When added to a contract, which of the following should be included in parenthesis...?

a)

Middle name

b)

First name

c)

Nicknames

d)

Last name

103.

Which of the following is a common mistake found in contracts...?

a)

The parties do not initial each page of the contract

b)

The parties are not listed by their legal names

c)

The legal description of the property is not included

d)

All of the above

104.

The seller must deliver which of the following at closing...?

a)

Defective title

b)

Clouded title

c)

Marketable title

d)

Un-marketable title

105.

The party's signatures in a contract must match which of the following...?

a)

The Legal Names Listed at the Beginning of the Contract

b)

The name they are commonly referred to

c)

The last name of each party

d)

The first name of each party

106.

Items that are considered personal property should be included in the...?

a)

Real property addendum

b)

Non-realty addendum

c)

Chattel addendum

d)

Itemized addendum

107.

James is in the process of finalizing a contract to purchase a new house. What must James complete with the seller in order to use e-signatures to sign the contract...?

a)

Electronic Agreement Form

b)

Electronic Addendum

c)

Electronic Consent Form

d)

E-signature Form

108.

When should the buyer and seller negotiate between real and personal property items...?

a)

At closing

b)

Just before closing

c)

At the very beginning of the transaction

d)

Right after closing

109.

Which of the following items may be difficult to distinguish as real or personal property...?

a)

Chandeliers

b)

Stoves

c)

Door hardware

d)

Rugs

110.

How should a property be described in a typical sales contract...?

a)

Using the name of the legal entity

b)

Using the legal description of the property

c)

Using the block number only

d)

Using the address of the property