wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

General Microbiology

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most microorganisms pathogenic for humans grow best in the laboratory when cultures are incubated at

a)

15–20°C

b)

20–30°C

c)

30–37°C

d)

38–50°C

e)

50–55°C

2.

Which of the following is NOT assimilated by eukaryotic cells?

a)

Glucose

b)

Lactate

c)

Sulfate

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Phosphate

3.

Which of the following terms best describes a microorganisms that grows at 20°C?

a)

Neutralophile

b)

Psychrotroph

c)

Mesophile

d)

Osmophile

e)

Thermophile

4.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for generating metabolic energy by microorganisms?

a)

Fermentation

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

e)

C and D

5.

Polymerization of building blocks (eg, amino acids) into macromolecules (eg, proteins) is achieved largely by

a)

Dehydration

b)

Reduction

c)

Oxidation

d)

Assimilation

e)

Hydrolysis

6.

The major effect of a temperature of 60oC on the growth of a mesophile such as Escherichia coli is to

a)

Destroy the cell wall

b)

Denature proteins

c)

Destroy nucleic acids

d)

Solubilize the cytoplasmic membrane

e)

Cause formation of endospores

7.

The process by which microorganisms form ATP during the fermentation of glucose is characterized by

a)

Coupling of ATP production with the transfer of electrons

b)

Denitrification

c)

The reduction of oxygen

d)

Substratephosphorylation

e)

Anaerobic respiration

8.

Mutations in bacteria can occur by which of the following mechanisms?

a)

Base substitutions

b)

Deletions

c)

Insertions

d)

Rearrangements

e)

All of the above

9.

The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial virus is

a)

Transformation

b)

Conjugation

c)

Transfection

d)

Transduction

e)

Horizontal transfer

10.

The enzyme DNAse degrades naked DNA. If two strains of bacteria from the same species were mixed in the presence of DNAse, which method of gene transfer would be most likely inhibited?

a)

Conjugation

b)

Transduction

c)

Transformation

d)

Transposition

e)

All of the above

11.

Why do bacteria contain restriction enzymes?

a)

To cleave RNA for incorporation into ribosome

b)

To extend the length of bacterial chromosomes

c)

To prevent foreign DNA from incorporating into a bacterial genome

d)

To process the exons from prokaryotic mRNA

e)

To proteolytically cleave nuclear promoters

12.

Replication of which of the following requires physical integration with a bacterial replicon?

a)

Single-stranded DNA bacteriophage

b)

Double-stranded DNA bacteriophage

c)

Single-stranded RNA bacteriophage

d)

Plasmid

e)

Transposon

13.

The central autoclave for sterilization received nutrient media with substances that change at temperatures above 100˚C, media containing native proteins, Petri dishes, pipettes. Which method of sterilization would you choose for environments with substances that change at temperatures above 100˚C?

a)

Chemical

b)

Boiling

c)

Dry heat

d)

Current steam

e)

Steam under pressure.

14.

In pharmaceutical practice are widely used: asepsis, antiseptics, disinfection, sterilization. Give the correct definition of the term "asepsis".

a)

Use of substances that kill microorganisms on the skin and mucous membranes

b)

Destruction of pathogenic microbes in the environment

c)

Complete destruction of all forms of microbes in an object

d)

Prevention of microbes entering an object

e)

Use of substances that kill pathogenic microbes in the internal environment of the body

15.

In the fight against infectious diseases and for their prevention, disinfection is of great importance. What should be understood by this term?

a)

Destruction of microorganisms in the environment

b)

Destruction of pathogens in the internal environment

the patient’s body

c)

Destruction of pathogens on the surface of the skin

and mucous membranes

d)

Destruction of insect vectors of infectious agents

e)

Killing rodents - sources of infection

16.

Immunofluorescence response is widely used for the rapid diagnosis of many bacterial and viral infections. Select a condition that cannot be determined by the response.

a)

Serum of the patient

b)

The presence of an electron microscope

c)

The presence of an immersion microscope

d)

Selected pure culture of the pathogen

e)

The presence of a fluorescent microscope

17.

In the laboratory for the purpose of accelerated sterilization of sugar-containing media with liquid steam, it was carried out in one day: in the morning, afternoon and evening for 30 minutes. How should the environment be sterilized?

a)

Sterilize for 1 hour

b)

Sterilize for 15 minutes

c)

Sterilize for 45 minutes

d)

The medium should be sterilized three times with an interval of 24 hours

e)

Sterilize twice a day

18.

Which method of sterilization should be used for dental instruments that do not deteriorate from the effects of temperature and humidity for the guaranteed destruction of viruses, vegetative and spore forms of microorganisms?

a)

Tyndalization

b)

Pasteurization

c)

Glowing over a gas burner flame

d)

Autoclaving

e)

Boiling

19.

The dentist performed tooth extraction in an HIV-infected person. During this manipulation, the patient's blood got on the doctor's skin. What is the most appropriate treatment for skin disinfection?

a)

Chloramine

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Ethyl alcohol

d)

Formalin

e)

Lysol

20.

In microbiology practical training students are offered to paint a mixture of bacteria using the Gram method and to explain the mechanism of staining. What are the morphological structures of bacteria that cause gram-negative and gram-positive staining of bacteria?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Capsule

c)

Flagella

d)

Cytoplasm

21.

After completing the work in the educational bacteriological laboratory, the student must tidy up his workplace, decontaminate the table and other objects. What chemical compound should he use for this?

a)

Chloramine.

b)

Hydrochloric acid.

c)

Formalin.

d)

Chloroform.

e)

Ether.

22.

The laboratory carried out studies in which the patient was confirmed diagnosis of tetanus. Which method of sterilization should eliminate the isolated cultures of tetanus?

a)

Pasteurization.

b)

Boiling.

c)

Induction.

d)

Dry heat.

e)

Autoclaving.

23.

In the bacterioscopic method of laboratory diagnostics of infections, various methods of staining of microscopic preparations are used. What is the purpose of using the Gram method?

a)

For the detection of capsules

b)

To color the dispute

c)

For bacterial differentiation

d)

To detect flagella

e)

To detect plasmids

24.

Immunofluorescence reaction is widely used for the rapid diagnosis of many bacterial and viral infections. Choose a condition without which it is impossible to determine the result of the reaction.

a)

The presence of a luminescent microscope

b)

The presence of an electron microscope

c)

Presence of an immersion microscope

d)

The selected pure culture of the pathogen

e)

Serum sick

25.

With many infectious diseases in the patient's blood, antigens of the pathogen can be detected. What reaction should be applied, given that the level of antigenemia is low?

a)

Solid-phase immuno-fluorescence analysis

b)

Reaction to indirect hemagglutination

c)

Agglutination reaction

d)

The reaction of latex agglutination

e)

Immunoelectrophoresis

26.

In recent years, has found an application of the method of genoindication of pathogens, which allows detecting fragments of nucleic acids of pathogens in the samples under study. Choose from the reactions that are appropriate for this purpose.

a)

Polymerase chain reaction

b)

A reaction of titer phage growth

c)

Radioimmunoassay

d)

Reaction of precipitation

e)

Immunoenzyme analysis

27.

Serologic diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on the specific interaction of antibodies with antigens. What is the name of a serological reaction in which antibodies are used, labeled with fluorescents?

a)

Immunofluorescence reaction

b)

The reaction of enzyme-labeled antibodies

c)

Chain polymerase reaction

d)

Chain polymerase reaction

e)

The reaction of molecular hybridization

28.

Wide proliferation in virological studies has received ELISA. For what purpose in the diagnosis of viral infections IFA is used:

a)

Identification of the complement

b)

To detect specific antibodies

c)

To determine the antibody titer

d)

To isolate the virus

e)

To determine the virions assimilated by immune serum

29.

High sensitivity and specificity of the radioimmunological method. For what purpose use this method:

a)

To detect microorganism’s antigens

b)

To titrate toxins and toxins

c)

To detect toxoid

d)

To detect enzymes

e)

To detect allergens

30.

Direct response of immunofluorescence is widely used in the diagnosis of infectious diseases. Indicate why this reaction is applied:

a)

To identify pathogens of infectious diseases

b)

To study defective viruses

c)

To determine the type and level of antibodies in the serum of the patient's blood

d)

To determine the specificity of blood

e)

To study cellular immunity and differentiate the population of B-lymphocytes from other lymphoid cells

31.

The immunofluorescence reaction is among the widely used for the purpose of rapid diagnosis of infectious diseases. What are the properties of bacteria taken into account for their identification under conditions of use of this reaction?

a)

Morphological and antigenic

b)

Morphological and tinctorial

c)

Antigenic and immunogenic

d)

Cultural and antigenic

e)

Cultural and enzymatic

32.

The disadvantage of the microscopic method of diagnosing infectious diseases is its insufficient in formativeness due to the morphological similarity of many types of microorganisms, which immunological reaction allows precisely to determine the type of pathogen:

a)

reaction of precipitation

b)

immunoblotting

c)

Cumbus reaction

d)

opsonization reaction

e)

immunofluorescence reaction

33.

The method of fluorescing antibodies is widely used for the rapid diagnosis of most viral infections. What can be detected using RIF:

a)

Antibodies (IgM) in the serum of the patient

b)

Incomplete antibodies

c)

The growth of titer of antibodies in the blood serum of the patient

d)

Antibodies (IgA) in the serum of the patient's blood

e)

Number of DNA viruses

34.

For the study of saccharolytic properties, the isolated pure culture of the microbes was seeded in semi-liquid agar tubes containing the indicator and carbohydrates - glucose, lactose, mannitol, sucrose. What are the environments used in this case?

a)

Hissa

b)

Ressel

c)

Loeffler

d)

Endo

e)

Lowenstein – Jensen

35.

What are the nutrient media best to do the primary sowing when isolating a pure bacterial culture from a complex microbial mixture:

a)

Differential-diagnostic.

b)

Simple.

c)

Special.

d)

Elective.

e)

Canning.

36.

Nutrient media are used for the cultivation of microorganisms. Some of the media contain substances that inhibit the growth of other bacteria, but colonies of only a certain type of microorganisms grow. What are these nutrient environments called?

a)

Universal

b)

Special

c)

Selective

d)

Synthetic

e)

Differential-diagnostic

37.

In the study of the drug was isolated pure culture of gram-negative bacteria. What medium should be used to study the biochemical properties of bacteria to differentiate them by enzymatic activity?

a)

A multicolored of Gissa

b)

Blood agar

c)

Meat-peptone agar

d)

Meat-peptone broth

e)

Semi-liquid meat-peptone agar

38.

The wound discharge material was sent to the laboratory for bacteriological examination. What nutrient media should be used to isolate aerobic bacteria?

A. Levin's environment.

a)

Levin's environment.

b)

The environment of Kitt-Tarotzi.

c)

Blood agar.

d)

Alkaline water.

e)

MPA.

39.

For the laboratory diagnosis of many infectious diseases use the bacteriological method. What is the purpose of Step 1 of this method?

a)

Obtaining isolated colonies

b)

Sowing of the test material

c)

Microscopy of the material under study

d)

Selection and accumulation of pure culture

e)

Identification of the test culture

40.

What group of organisms have annular shape and linear DNA molecules that form chromosomes of simple structure (lacking histones)?

a)

Viruses

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteriophages

d)

Bacteria

e)

Protozoa

41.

Bacteria are unicellular organisms capable of being autonomous. What bacterial structures play a major role in protein synthesis?

a)

Mesosomes

b)

Cytoplasmic membrane

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Cytoplasm

e)

Cytoplasmic inclusions

42.

The structure of the bacterial cell, which provides increased resistance of the microbes to the effects of environmental factors and has the ability to persist for a long time, can be detected by staining smears by the method of Ozhek. What is it called?

a)

Capsule

b)

capsule

c)

Flagella

d)

Plasmid

e)

Pili

43.

In the course of microbiology, students were introduced to the microscopic method of diagnosis. What are the properties of bacteria studied by this method?

a)

Morphological, tinctorial

b)

Cultural

c)

Antigenic

d)

Toxigenic

e)

Biochemical

44.

Different staining methods are used to study the morphological features of microorganisms. For what purpose do they use simple methods?

a)

To color the capsules

b)

To study the shape and size of microorganisms

c)

To identify capsules

d)

To differentiate bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative ones

e)

To color flagella

45.

The process in which DNA isolated by the lysis of one bacterium penetrating another bacterium leads to a change in its phenotype is called:

a)

Conjugation.

b)

By sex.

c)

Transduction.

d)

Transformation.

e)

Transfection.

46.

In biotechnological processes for the production of therapeutic and prophylactic drugs the procedure of introducing human genes into the bacterial genome by means of bacteriophage is used. What is this process called?

a)

Transduction.

b)

Transformation.

c)

Broadcast.

d)

Conjugation.

e)

Deletion.

47.

Bacteria may also contain chromosomal inherited elements - plasmids. The presence of plasmid genes may be manifested by:

a)

Resistance to dyes

b)

Multiple drug resistance

c)

Resistance to physical factors

d)

Spore-forming ability

e)

Mobility

48.

During transduction, DNA is transferred from one cell to another by bacteriophages. There are three types of transduction:

a)

nonspecific, specific, abortive;

b)

nonspecific, integral, abortive;

c)

specific, abortive, virulent;

d)

virulent, nonspecific, specific;

e)

replication, mapping, integration.

49.

The issue of antibiotic prescribing is discussed at a medical convention in a patient with a septic condition. What property of the causative agent should be considered when administering the antibiotic to obtain antibiotic sensitivity data?

a)

The presence of aggression factors

b)

Capsule-forming ability.

c)

Acid resistance.

d)

Gram staining.

e)

Spore-forming ability.

50.

The patient has prescribed a course of etiotropic antibiotic therapy. What drugs can prevent dysbiosis when using antibiotics?

a)

Vitamins.

b)

Eubiotics.

c)

Immunomodulators.

d)

Hormonal drugs.

e)

Desensitizing drugs.

51.

An important characteristic of the efficacy and safety of chemotherapeutic drugs is the chemotherapeutic index (Ehrlich index), which is a ratio of two doses. Whose?

a)

Maximum tolerable and minimal therapeutic

b)

Minimum tolerated and maximal therapeutic

c)

Maximum tolerated and maximal therapeutic

d)

Minimum tolerable and minimal therapeutic

e)

Maximum intolerable and minimal therapeutic

52.

Specify the structure of the bacterial cell that controls the virulent properties of many species:

a)

mesosomes;

b)

mitochondria;

c)

plasmid pathogenicity;

d)

methochondria;

e)

flagella.

53.

Non-specific factors protecting the oral cavity from penetration of pathogenic microorganisms play an important role in the overall system of physiological stability of the organism. Which of the following components in the oral cavity is the most important factor in nonspecific protection?

a)

Complement

b)

Lysocim

c)

Properdin

d)

By Lysine

e)

Phagocytosis

54.

Patient has been diagnosed with acute respiratory infections. During an examination, the symptoms revealed by the doctor are characteristic of this disease. It is established that the patient secretes the pathogen into the external environment. Immunoglobulins of the class M. have been found in serum. What period of the infectious process in this case?

a)

Microorganism.

b)

Prodromal period.

c)

Incubation period.

d)

Convalescence.

e)

Acute period

55.

The patient was diagnosed with acute respiratory infections. During the examination, the symptoms revealed by the doctor revealed that are characteristic of this disease. It is established that the patient secretes the pathogen into the external environment. This picture corresponds to the acute period of the disease. Which class of immunoglobulins is likely to be present in the patient's blood?

a)

Ig M.

b)

IgG.

c)

Ig A.

d)

Ig E.

e)

Ig D.

56.

Serologic diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on the specific interaction of antibodies with antigens. What is the reaction of precipitation from a solution of antigen under the influence on it of immune serum and electrolyte?

a)

Reaction of hemadsorption

b)

Agglutination reaction

c)

Complement rejection reaction

d)

Reaction of precipitation

e)

Neutralization reaction

57.

For the purpose of serological diagnosis of an infection, a physician should perform a reaction of indirect (passive) hemagglutination. What should be used to make this reaction other than serum sick?

a)

Anatoxin

b)

Interferon

c)

Hemolytic serum

d)

Diagnostic serum

e)

Erythrocyte Diagnostic

58.

Serologic diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on the specific interaction of antibodies with antigens. What is the name of the serological reaction, based on the interaction of homologous antibodies and soluble antigens in the agar medium?

a)

Complication of the complement

b)

Agglutination reaction

c)

A reaction of precipitation in gel

d)

A reaction of ring prescription

e)

Neutralization reaction

59.

In the immune response of the body, a significant place belongs to the production of antibodies. Choose from the given, the interaction of which cells are needed for their synthesis:

a)

Macrophages, T-suppressors, B-lymphocytes

b)

Antigen-expressing cells, T-helper cells, B-lymphocytes.

c)

Fat- cells, T-helper cells, B-lymphocytes

d)

Macrophages, T-killers, B-lymphocytes

e)

Langerhans cells, T-killers, B-lymphocytes

60.

In the local immunity of the oral cavity, an important role is played by various cells of the mucous membrane and antimicrobial substances that are synthesized by them. Indicate which of the following factors are crucial in providing local immunity:

a)

Eosinophils

b)

B-lymphocytes

c)

IgG

d)

macrophages

e)

IgA