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Module 14-16 study guide

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the practical evidence, in comparison to intermittent compression, constant compression units are primarily used for what two purposes?

a)

Preventing swelling and assisting in venous return

b)

Preventing swelling and activating the lymphatic return mechanism

c)

Activating the lymphatic return mechanism and assisting in venous return

d)

Assisting in venous return and reduce ecchymosis

2.

According to the practical evidence, knee flexion and knee extension motion is increased only _________ when continuous passive motion is used following knee arthroplasty?

a)

2 to 3 degrees

b)

4 to 5 degrees

c)

6 to 7 degrees

d)

8 to 9 degrees

3.

After surgery, continuous passive motion is typically used for _______ hours a day.

a)

8 to 10

b)

2 to 4

c)

4 to 6

d)

6 to 8

4.

Cervical and lumbar traction applies a force that separates vertebrae and increases the intervertebral space and leads to what effects? Select all that apply.

a)

Reduces pressure on intervertebral disks

b)

Reduces pressure on spinal nerve roots

c)

Opens facet joints

d)

Elongates soft tissue

e)

Strengthens vertebral bone

5.

Circumferential compression applies an equal amount of pressure to all parts of the extremity simultaneously.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Compression units should not be used until what pathologies have been ruled out? Select all that apply.

a)

Fracture

b)

Compartment syndrome

c)

Acute sprain

d)

Acute strain

e)

Chronic arthritis

7.

Continuous passive motion can possibly provide pain reduction via the gate mechanism, which occurs from the stimulation of afferent nerves located in what tissues?

a)

Muscle and joint

b)

Skin and muscle

c)

Joint and skin

d)

Skin, joint, and muscle

8.

Continuous passive motion is more effective than static stretching when increasing range of motion due to soft tissue restriction.

a)

true

b)

false

9.

Excess fluids that build up within a joint can lead to what inhibitory reflex?

a)

Arthrogenic muscle inhibition

b)

Accessory muscle inhibition

c)

Altered muscle inhibition

d)

Arthrometric muscle inhibition

10.

In general, what percentage of the body weight will cause separation of the cervical spine when the patient is in a reclined position?

a)

5 percent

b)

10 percent

c)

20 percent

d)

30 percent

11.

In healthy vertebrae, approximately what percentage of the spine’s weight-bearing load is transmitted through the facet joint?

a)

5 percent

b)

10 percent

c)

20 percent

d)

30 percent

12.

In order to open the intervertebral space, approximately what degree of flexion should the cervical spine be placed in?

a)

5 to 10 degrees

b)

15 to 20 degrees

c)

25 to 30 degrees

d)

35 to 40 degrees

13.

In what position should the lumbar spine be placed to open the facet joints?

a)

Extension

b)

Flexion

c)

Neutral

d)

Rotation

14.

In what region(s) of the spine is stenosis most prevalent?

a)

Cervical and lumbar

b)

Cervical and thoracic

c)

Sacral and lumbar

d)

Thoracic and sacral

15.

Intermittent compression is substantially more effective at treating lymphedema than post-traumatic edema.

a)

False

b)

True

16.

Protein-rich matter is more responsive to intermittent compression than fluids

a)

False

b)

True

17.

Robert Salter originally proposed the use of continuous passive motion and hypothesized that its application would be beneficial in which ways? Select all that apply.

a)

Enhancing the nutrition and metabolic activity of articular cartilage

b)

Stimulating tissue remodeling and regrowth of articular cartilage

c)

Accelerating the healing of articular cartilage, tendons, and ligaments

d)

Accelerating the healing of muscle tissues

e)

Stimulating an increase in muscular strength and metabolic activity

18.

The application of continuous passive motion is thought to stimulate the circulation of synovial fluid, which enhances the uptake of nutrients by what tissue in the knee?

a)

Meniscal cartilage and articular cartilage

b)

Articular cartilage only

c)

Meniscal cartilage only

d)

Neither meniscal cartilage nor articular cartilage

19.

The decision to use continuous passive motion should be based on the specific pathology to be treated.

a)

False

b)

True

20.

The design of what continuous passive motion device is similar to manually moving the patient’s limb through a range of motion?

a)

Free linkage design

b)

Anatomic design

c)

Nonanatomic design

d)

Locked linkage design

21.

The effect and effectiveness of traction is related to which of the following? Select all that apply

a)

Position of the body part

b)

Position of the patient

c)

Force and duration of traction

d)

Angle of pull

e)

Force of friction

22.

The passive movements and elevation of the body part are components of continuous passive motion that increase which factors?

a)

Venous return

b)

Lymphatic and arteriole return

c)

Venous and lymphatic return

d)

Venous and arteriole return

23.

The primary contraindications to intermittent compression are associated with the significant increase in flow through the venous system.

a)

False

b)

True

24.

The pumping action created by continuous passive motion circulates synovial fluid and assists in the removal of what? Select all that apply.

a)

Joint hemarthrosis

b)

Periarticular edema

c)

Blood from tissue surrounding the joint

d)

Pitting edema

e)

Lymphedema

25.

There is an increase in venous blood flow from the leg when sequential compression is applied to the foot and leg when compared to intermittent compression of the calf alone.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Through what mechanism(s) does external compression reduce pain? Select all that apply.

a)

Decreasing mechanical pressure

b)

Restoring normal joint range of motion

c)

Restoring normal joint function

d)

Reducing secondary cell death

e)

Blocking the transmission of nociceptive signals

27.

Throughout a range of motion, when is joint volume normally at its greatest?

a)

Full extension

b)

Full flexion

c)

Midrange between flexion and extension

d)

Volume does not change throughout a range of motion

28.

Traction applied with unilateral tension at a sagittal angle is a useful setup in the treatment of what pathologies? Select all that apply.

a)

Unilateral facet joint pathology

b)

Unilateral nerve root impingement

c)

Unilateral muscle spasm

d)

Unilateral disk protrusion

e)

Spinal stenosis

29.

What continuous passive motion design is most suitable for use with the knee?

a)

Free linkage design

b)

Anatomic design

c)

Nonanatomic design

d)

Locked linkage design

30.

What do the fundamental effects of cervical and lumbar traction arise from?

a)

Distraction of the vertebral segments

b)

Rehydration of the disk

c)

Elongation of the soft tissue structures

d)

Opening of the facet joints

31.

What is the common treatment duration when using lumbar or cervical traction to treat muscle spasm?

a)

25 min

b)

10 min

c)

8 min

d)

20 min

32.

What is the normal pressure range when using intermittent compression to treat the upper extremity?

a)

30 to 60 mm Hg

b)

10 to 30 mm Hg

c)

60 to 100 mm Hg

d)

100 to 120 mm Hg

33.

What plane is associated with the use of either a flexion or extension traction angle?

a)

Transverse plane

b)

Frontal plane

c)

Sagittal plane

d)

Frontal and sagittal plane

34.

What type of traction is best suited for treating degenerative disk disease of the cervical spine?

a)

Sustained traction with a flexion angle

b)

Sustained traction with an extension angle

c)

Intermittent traction with a flexion angle

d)

Intermittent traction with an extension angle

35.

When applying intermittent compression for long periods of time, which of the following should be checked regularly?

a)

Capillary refill and unexpected pitting edema

b)

Capillary refill and limb girth

c)

Pitting edema and limb volume

d)

Limb volume and limb girth

36.

When compared to faster speeds, slower speeds of continuous passive motion are theorized to produce better tensile properties of healing tendons.

a)

False

b)

True

37.

When examining the evidence, the effect of what traction variables is clearly understood?

a)

Patient position and angle of pull

b)

Amount of tension and duration of treatment

c)

Amount of tension and angle of pull

d)

Duration of treatment and patient position

38.

When subacute or chronic conditions exist, what is an intermittent or sequential compression unit best used for? Select all that apply.

a)

Reducing edema

b)

Preventing edema

c)

Decreasing ecchymosis

d)

Preventing ecchymosis

e)

Increasing lymphatic return

39.

When treating lymphedema, what is the typical treatment time of intermittent compression?

a)

5 minutes

b)

20 to 30 minutes

c)

60 minutes

d)

Several hours

40.

When treating the cervical spine, you should question the patient about sensation in what region(s) of the spine?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

d)

Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

41.

When using external compression to treat lower leg edema, pressures of _______ have been shown to increase venous flow by 175 percent.

a)

35 to 55 mm Hg

b)

10 to 30 mm Hg

c)

65 to 95 mm Hg

d)

90 to 100 mm Hg

42.

When using intermittent compression to treat lymphedema, what is the common duration of treatment?

a)

20 min

b)

10 min

c)

30 min

d)

Several hours

43.

Where on the foot does external compression need to be applied to successfully reduce foot edema?

a)

Plantar aspect

b)

Dorsal aspect

c)

Medial aspect

d)

Lateral aspect

44.

Which are considered contraindications to the use of continual passive motion? Select all that apply.

a)

Unstable fracture

b)

Uncontrolled infection

c)

After joint debridement

d)

After osteochondral repair

e)

Tendon laceration

45.

Which are contraindications to the application of intermittent compression? Select all that apply.

a)

Primary and secondary lymphedema

b)

Prevention of deep-vein thrombosis

c)

Peripheral vascular disease

d)

Arteriosclerosis

e)

Thrombophlebitis

46.

Which are indications for the use of intermittent compression as a treatment? Select all that apply.

a)

Post-traumatic edema

b)

Postsurgical edema

c)

Prevention of deep-vein thrombosis

d)

Dermatitis

e)

Acute pulmonary edema

47.

Which form of continuous passive motion device allows for compensatory motion between the patient’s extremity and the carriage of the device?

a)

Free linkage design

b)

Anatomic design

c)

Nonanatomic design

d)

Locked linkage design

48.

Which form of traction allows the patient to self-administer the traction?

a)

Manual traction

b)

Intermittent traction

c)

Positional traction

d)

Sustained traction

49.

Which of the following are indications to the use of lumbar traction? Select all that apply

a)

Spinal cord compression

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Nerve root compression

d)

Acute injury

e)

Osteoarthritis

50.

Which of the following are indications to treat with continuous passive motion? Select all that apply.

a)

After joint arthroplasty

b)

Joint contracture

c)

Thrombophlebitis

d)

After meniscectomy

e)

Spastic paralysis

51.

Which of the following is considered a contraindication to the use of lumbar traction?

a)

Nerve root compression

b)

Radicular pain

c)

Lumbar muscle spasm

d)

Extruded disk fragmentation

52.

Which of the following is not a benefit realized through the use of continuous passive motion?

a)

Increased strength

b)

Decreased apprehension to joint movement after surgery

c)

Restoration of range of motion

d)

Decreased functional shortening of muscle

53.

Which of the following is reduced during the realignment of collagen that occurs with the use of continuous passive motion? Select all that apply.

a)

Functional shortening of collagen

b)

Cross-linking of collagen

c)

Capsular adhesions

d)

Tensile strength of tendon

e)

Tensile strength of allografts

54.

Which option below best represents the philosophy regarding the effects of continuous passive motion?

a)

Motion that is never lost need never be regained. It is the regaining of movement that is painful.

b)

Motion that is lost must be regained. It is the regaining of movement that is painful.

c)

Motion that is lost must be regained. It is the loss of movement that is painful.

d)

Motion that is never lost need never be regained. It is the loss of movement that is painful.

55.

Which pathology can eventually cause the formation of osteophytes, which can cause the vertebral column to straighten?

a)

Degenerative disk disease

b)

Disk protrusion

c)

Nerve root compression

d)

Facet joint pathology

56.

Which statement best describes sustained traction?

a)

It is applied with a relatively small force for 45 minutes or less.

b)

It is applied with a relatively small force for 60 minutes or more.

c)

It is applied with a relatively large force for 45 minutes or less.

d)

It is applied with a relatively large force for 60 minutes or more.

57.

Which statement is true concerning the evidence of intermittent compression?

a)

The efficacy of intermittent compression for increasing venous flow has not been substantiated.

b)

The efficacy of intermittent compression for lymphedema is widely accepted.

c)

Research has shown that intermittent compression is more effective than compression wrap and elevation for reducing pitting edema.

d)

Research on the optimal treatment duration and duty cycle for reducing lymphedema is inconclusive.

58.

Which statement is true concerning the pressure gradient created by the application of external compression?

a)

The gradient between the tissue hydrostatic pressure and the capillary filtration pressure is increased.

b)

A second pressure gradient is formed between the higher pressure in the proximal portion and the lower pressure in the distal portion.

c)

Elevating the extremity during the treatment does not alter the pressure gradients.

d)

Spreading solid edematous matter over a larger area with external compression allows more lymphatic ducts to absorb the wastes.

59.

While continuous passive motion can be used on many different joints, what joint is it predominantly used with?

a)

Knee

b)

Shoulder

c)

Ankle

d)

Elbow