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APHY 102 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In order for a hormone to effect it's target cell that cell must....

a)

produce it's own hormone.

b)

must have receptors for that hormone.

c)

must be accessible through the blood.

d)

secrete hormones it receives.

2.

Which hormone triggers the adrenal glands to produce hormones?

a)

Prolactin-inhibiting factor

b)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

c)

Growth hormone (GH)

d)

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

3.

What hormone opposes glucagon's effect?

a)

prolactin

b)

melatonin

c)

insulin

d)

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

4.

Normally an increase in thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) causes a/an...

a)

increase in the production of growth hormone.

b)

increase in the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

c)

decrease in the production of triiodothyronine (T3).

d)

decrease in the production of thyroxine (T4).

5.

If a child is lacking or deficient in _______________________ they will experience a failure of bone and muscle enlargement.

a)

luteinizing hormone

b)

melatonin

c)

aldosterone

d)

growth hormone

6.

Which statement about hormones is correct?

a)

Oxytocin is secreted by the ovaries.

b)

Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex.

c)

Glucagon is secreted by the thyroid gland.

d)

Growth hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.

7.

This condition leads to the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH).

a)

Cold temperatures

b)

Low basal metabolic rate (BMR)

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypocalcemia

8.

Consider the following pathway concerning secretion of hormones: hormone A stimulates the release of hormone B. Then hormonr B stimulates the release of hormones C. Hormones C inhibit the release of both hormone A and hormone B. Hormones C action is an example of _____.

a)

negative feedback

b)

endocrine resistance

c)

translation

d)

neural communication

9.

Formation of a platelet plug is caused by these cell fragments.

a)

basophils

b)

neutrophils

c)

erythrocytes

d)

thrombocytes (platelets)

10.

This protein, found in erythrocytes, binds and helps deliver oxygen.

a)

beta globulin

b)

hemoglobin

c)

hemostasis

d)

albumin

11.

What is considered normal blood pH

a)

7.1

b)

7.4

c)

7.5

d)

7.85

12.

All formed elements come from this cell.

a)

erythroblast

b)

reticulocyte

c)

hematopoietic stem cell

d)

lymphoid stem cell

13.

What are lymphocytes major function?

a)

phagocytize damaged cells.

b)

produce enzymes that dissolve blood clots.

c)

release substances that initiate blood clots.

d)

act against foreign substances.

14.

In healthy people, this leukocyte ( a small phagocytic granulocyte with a lobed nucleus) is most numerous.

a)

basophils

b)

neutrophils

c)

erythrocytes

d)

eosinophils

15.

What are carbohydrate groups that determine blood types known as?

a)

tissue factors

b)

antibodies

c)

antigens

d)

agglutinins

16.

When a wrong blood type is received it causes antibodies to bind to the foreign antigens and clump. This is called:

a)

agglutination

b)

coagulation

c)

granulation

d)

activation

17.

Persons with Type O blood exhibit these types of antibodies.

a)

Anti-A & Anti B antibodies.

b)

Only Anti-A antibodies.

c)

Only Anti-B antibodies.

d)

Only Anti-O antibodies.

18.

After oxygen poor blood moves from the heart to the lungs oxygenated blood re-enters this heart chamber?

a)

left atrium

b)

left ventricle

c)

right atrium

d)

right ventricle

19.

From the inside moving outward in an artery the first layer is the __________________________.

a)

tunica interna

b)

tunica media

c)

tunica externa

d)

smooth muscle

20.

These vessels that provide, that provide blood to the heart, are the first two branches of the aorta.

a)

coronary arteries

b)

pulmonary trunk

c)

chordae tendineae

d)

inferior vena cava

21.

Which statements about veins is TRUE?

a)

Their walls are thinner than arteries.

b)

Their lumens are smaller than arteries.

c)

They are more elastic than arteries.

d)

They have more smooth muscle than arteries.

22.

These vessels typically carry blood away from the heart?

a)

arteries

b)

veins

c)

capillaries

d)

venules

23.

The name for the muscular layer of the heart?

a)

myocardium

b)

endocardium

c)

pericardium

d)

epicardium

24.

Pulmonary blood flow involves the:

a)

lungs

b)

liver

c)

brain

d)

kidneys

25.

Valve found between the right ventricle and the right atrium?

a)

tricuspid valve

b)

mitral valve

c)

pulmonary valve

d)

aortic valve

26.

These muscles in the ventricles anchor atrioventricular valves by contracting and pulling chordae tendinae tight.

a)

papillary muscles

b)

ligamentum arteriosum

c)

semilunar valves

d)

trabelculae carneae

27.

The force that blood exerts outwardly on the walls of blood vessels.

a)

blood pressure.

b)

cardiac output.

c)

resistance.

d)

blood flow.

28.

Vasoconstriction is defined as...

a)

a blood vessel becoming smaller in diameter.

b)

blood becoming thicker or more viscous.

c)

peripheral resistance becoming low.

d)

cardiac output increasing.

29.

Where is the blood in the inferior vena cava going?

a)

right atrium

b)

lungs

c)

left atrium

d)

right ventricle

30.

In a healthy heart the pacemaker for the entire heart is the ______________.

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) node

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) bundle

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) node

d)

Purkinje fiber system

31.

What does the red pulp of the spleen do?

a)

filter pathogens out of the blood.

b)

filter pathogens out of the lymph.

c)

house leukocytes and dendritic cells.

d)

house macrophages that destroy old erythrocytes

32.

Activated B cells can become plasma cells, that produce and secrete large globular proteins called ______ or immunoglobulins.

a)

antibodies

b)

natural killer (NK) cells

c)

interferons

d)

complement

33.

Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier serving as the first line of defense?

a)

antibody

b)

oil

c)

keratin

d)

mucus

34.

The upper limbs deliver lymph to which trunks?

a)

subclavian trunks

b)

lumbar trunks

c)

jugular trunks

d)

bronchomediastinal trunks

35.

Juanita's mosquito bite is red, warm and swollen this indicates:

a)

an inflammatory response.

b)

interleukins.

c)

interferons.

d)

tumor necrosis factor (TNF).

36.

Vaccinations are exposure to an antigen and cause:

a)

a primary immune response.

b)

passive immunity.

c)

a severe allergic reaction.

d)

a secondary immune response.

37.

Where is T cells formation completed?

a)

thymus

b)

spleen

c)

red bone marrow

d)

lymph nodes

38.

Pictured is a lymphatic structure that has germinal centers, nodules, and afferent and efferent vessels. It is a/an ________________.

a)

lymph node

b)

tonsil

c)

thymus

d)

spleen

39.

These cells help regulate the immune response:

a)

Helper T cells.

b)

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules

c)

CD8 cells.

d)

Cytotoxic T cells.

40.

Angus experienced an ulcer affecting the innermost epithelium of his stomach towards the lumen. The _________________ is ulcerated?

a)

Mucosa

b)

Submucosa

c)

Muscularis Externa

d)

Serosa

41.

These relatively thin and blade-shaped teeth used for biting and located in the anterior of the mouth are _______________.

a)

incisors

b)

molars

c)

vestibular

d)

uvular

42.

This enzyme catalyzes the reaction that initiates carbohydrate digestion?

a)

salivary amylase

b)

pepsin

c)

trypsin

d)

pancreatic amylase

43.

This controls the passage of chyme from the last region of the stomach to the first region of the small intestine?

a)

Pyloric sphincter

b)

Ileocecal valve

c)

Upper esophageal sphincter

d)

Gastroesophageal sphincter

44.

As a child Gemma had the mumps and experienced swelling of the salivary glands located in the cheeks, just in front of her ears. Which salivary glands are these?

a)

Parotid glands

b)

Submandibular glands

c)

Sublingual glands

d)

Pharyngeal tonsils

45.

Where is chyme mixed with pancreatic juice and bile?

a)

duodenum

b)

ileum

c)

fundus

d)

cecum

46.

What is the roll of the pharynx in the digestive system?

a)

Propulsion

b)

Segmentation

c)

Mechanical digestion

d)

Absorption

47.

What is the digestive function of the bile stored in the gallbladder?

a)

emulsifies fats into smaller droplets.

b)

enzymatically break starch into disaccharides

c)

increases the volume of the stomach.

d)

carries many enzymes to the large intestine.

48.

Digested material moves from the ileum to this portion of the alimentary canal:

a)

cecum

b)

esophagus

c)

pharynx

d)

rectum

49.

Pancreatic acinar cells release:

a)

pancreatic juice

b)

glucagon

c)

cholecystokinin

d)

insulin

50.

This digestive enzyme will help breakdown proteins?

a)

Pepsin in the stomach.

b)

Salivary amylase.

c)

Nucleases in the small intestine.

d)

Pancreatic lipase.

51.

In which layer is connective tissue in the wall of the alimentary canal that contains several glands, lacteals, and blood vessels located?

a)

submucosa

b)

mucosa

c)

muscularis externa

d)

serosa

52.

The lowermost (inferior) section of the pharynx is the ______.

a)

laryngopharynx

b)

oropharynx

c)

nasopharynx

d)

parotid pharynx

53.

Rings of muscle in the wall of the alimentary canal are called _______. They regulate the progress of materials. Examples include pyloric, ileocecal, and anal.

a)

sphincters

b)

gastric folds

c)

mesentary

d)

rugae

54.

The fundus, pylorus, and cardia are all parts of this organ.

a)

stomach

b)

small intestine

c)

large intestine

d)

liver

55.

The first section of the colon.

a)

ascending colon

b)

cecum

c)

sigmoid colon

d)

ileum

56.

Breathing through the nose rather than the mouth provides this advantage.

a)

The nose warms, humidifies, and filters inhaled air.

b)

The nose provides a more direct route over which air will travel.

c)

The nose provides a site for initial gas exchange.

d)

The nose is a less turbulent environment than the mouth.

57.

The order of inhaled air through the nose from superior to inferior?

a)

Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

b)

Oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx

c)

Laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx

d)

Nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx

58.

This type of epithelium forms the alveoli?

a)

Simple squamous epithelium

b)

Simple columnar epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous epithelium

d)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

59.

The contraction of the diaphragm muscle causes inferior movement which allows:

a)

inhalation to occur as the thoracic cavity becomes larger.

b)

the epiglottis to move away from the top of the trachea.

c)

type I alveolar cells to become activated.

d)

the lobes of the lungs to decrease in size as air is expelled.

60.

Air forcibly expired after a normal tidal expiration is known as the:

a)

expiratory reserve volume.

b)

tidal volume.

c)

inspiratory reserve volume.

d)

vital capacity.

61.

When the pressure inside the lungs is __________________ air moves out of the lungs.

a)

greater than atmospheric pressure.

b)

less than atmospheric pressure

c)

equal to atmospheric pressure

d)

less than intrapleural pressure.

62.

This determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

a)

partial pressure gradient

b)

gas solubility in water

c)

temperature

d)

molecular weight of the gas molecule

63.

Oxygen will diffuse out of the lungs and enter the blood when the :

a)

partial pressure of oxygen is higher in the lungs than in the blood.

b)

partial pressure of oxygen is lower in the lungs than in the blood.

c)

partial pressure of carbon dioxide is higher in the lungs than in the blood.

d)

partial pressure of carbon dioxide is lower in the lungs than in the blood.

64.

An overwhelming majority of oxygen in the blood is transported...

a)

by attaching to hemoglobin in erythrocytes.

b)

by attaching to magnesium ion in leukocytes.

c)

by dissolving into the plasma.

d)

by macrophages.

65.

Which of the following factors allows quiet expiration?

a)

Recoil of elastic tissue in the lungs.

b)

Decrease in intrapulmonary pressure.

c)

Increase in lung volume.

d)

Contraction of expiratory muscles.

66.

Fissures divide the lungs into parts that are called _____. Three in the right two in the left.

a)

lobes

b)

conchae

c)

pleura

d)

vestibular folds

67.

On the medial surface in each lung this triangular depression allows the entry of blood vessels and the primary bronchi:

a)

hilum.

b)

apex.

c)

base.

d)

lobule.

68.

This is how the majority of CO2 is transported.

a)

as part of a bicarbonate ion

b)

attached to hemoglobin

c)

dissolved in the plasma

d)

carried by macrophages

69.

This flap of elastic cartilage prevents food and liquids from entering the larynx when swallowing?

a)

epiglottis

b)

glottis

c)

arytenoid cartilage

d)

thyroid cartilage

70.

Which is NOT a kidney function?

a)

Hematopoiesis.

b)

Regulation of acid-base balance.

c)

Regulation of blood volume and blood pressure.

d)

Removal of metabolic wastes.

71.

Tube that moves urine using peristalsis to the outside of the body from the urinary bladder is the _____.

a)

urethra

b)

ureter

c)

collecting duct

d)

nephron loop

72.

This capillary bed is fed by the afferent arteriole and drained by the efferent arteriole.

a)

glomerulus

b)

peritubular capillaries

c)

vasa recta

d)

macula densa cells

73.

The smooth muscle in the wall of the urinary bladder is known as the _______.

a)

detrusor muscle

b)

trigone

c)

nephron loop

d)

peritubular muscle

74.

Glomerular filtration rate is:

a)

the amount of filtrate formed by both kidneys in one minute.

b)

the percent of blood plasma that passes through the filtration membrane.

c)

the amount of filtrate that is reabsorbed during a 24-hour period.

d)

the rate at which the kidneys removed a substance from the blood.

75.

In a nephron, if a substance is present in initial filtrate, but absent in the urine. That substance was:

a)

reabsorbed.

b)

not secreted because hydrostatic pressure inside the glomerulus was too high.

c)

secreted into the lumen of the tubule.

d)

retained do to the absence of the peritubular capillaries.

76.

This hormone promotes water reabsorption?

a)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b)

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

c)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

d)

Calcitonin

77.

When does the reduction in the number of chromosomes to half the normal count occur?

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

fertilization

d)

crossing over

78.

By this time of development all oogonia are formed in females? (choose answer closest to the life stage)

a)

Before birth

b)

During infancy

c)

At puberty

d)

During adulthood

79.

What does luteinizing hormone (LH) do in the male?

a)

LH stimulates interstitial cells of the testes to produce testosterone.

b)

LH stimulates the secretion of interstitial-cell stimulating hormone (ICSH).

c)

LH stimulates the secretion of inhibin.

d)

LH stimulates the sustentacular cells of the testes to secrete androgen-binding protein (ABP.

80.

Sperm travel from the epididymis immediately to the:

a)

ductus (vas) deferens

b)

urethra

c)

seminiferous tubules

d)

ejaculatory duct

81.

What feature allows sperm to propel itself forward?

a)

flagellum

b)

in the nucleus in the head

c)

in the midpiece

d)

in the microtubules

82.

Muscles in the wall of the male ______ provide temperature regulation during spermatogenesis.

a)

scrotum

b)

ductus (vas) deferens

c)

ejaculatory duct

d)

seminal glands

83.

This portion of the uterus is composed of smooth muscle. During childbirth it contracts rhythmically:

a)

myometrium

b)

perimetrium.

c)

endometrium.

d)

uterometrium.

84.

This structure receives the embryo and sustains it throughout development until birth:

a)

uterus

b)

vagina

c)

ovary

d)

uterine (fallopian) tubes

85.

Ovulation is triggered by positive feedback which resultins in a surge of this hormone:

a)

luteinizing hormone.

b)

inhibin.

c)

follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).

d)

progesterone.