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Summer Biology STAAR Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 2hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During the cell cycle, proteins called cyclins bind to enzymes that send signals for the cell to progress through stages of cell replication. At the end of this cycle, the cyclins degrade to prevent further signaling for the cell to divide.

Uncontrolled production of cyclins will most likely result in —

a)

the formation of tumors

b)

the immediate death of the cell

c)

the transfer of cyclins to other cells

d)

the formation of haploid cells

2.

The life cycle of a frog is illustrated in the diagram.

Which statement best explains how the cell cycle is important to the life cycle of the frog?

a)

It enables frogs to produce tadpoles that are clones.

b)

It allows frogs to grow, develop, and reproduce.

c)

It prevents overproduction of frog offspring.

d)

It ensures the best adapted frogs survive and pass on traits to offspring.

3.

Students created note cards comparing characteristics of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. Which set of note cards most accurately compares these cells?

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.

Which statement describes the process of osmosis in an animal cell?

a)

Sugar molecules move across the plasma membrane until the cell has enough energy to grow in size and divide.

b)

Water molecules move across the plasma membrane until solute concentrations are equal on both sides of the membrane.

c)

Ions move across the plasma membrane until the inside of the cell has a higher concentration of positive charges.

d)

Enzymes move across the plasma membrane until the cell has completed metabolism.

5.

Environmental factors typically activate genes in a cell by causing the cell to —

a)

produce identical daughter cells through mitosis

b)

form haploid gamete cells through meiosis

c)

fuse with another cell to increase the size of its genome

d)

transcribe specific DNA segments to mRNA for translation

6.

Materials are provided to students to build models of a prokaryotic cell, a eukaryotic cell, and a virus. The materials and the structures they represent are listed in the table shown.

Which material will students use in all three models?

a)

Yellow paper oval

b)

Gray paper hexagon

c)

Blue yarn

d)

Purple buttons

7.

Which table correctly identifies how the plasma membrane contributes to the maintenance of cellular homeostasis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.

The diagram shows the major stages of the cell cycle and the percentage of time spent in each phase.

Which statement best describes why a cell spends the majority of its time in interphase?

a)

The cell is growing and carrying out processes such as metabolism and DNA replication.

b)

The cell is aging and processes are stopping as lysosomes clear dead cell matter away.

c)

The cell needs time to synthesize spindle fibers to complete mitosis

d)

The cell needs time to complete cytokinesis.

9.

A diagram of an HIV infection is shown.

Which conclusion about the HIV infection of a host cell is best supported by the diagram?

a)

It takes place outside of living cells

b)

It relies on the host cell to reproduce.

c)

It involves the process of meiosis.

d)

It requires carbon dioxide.

10.

An illness caused by a certain virus includes fever, rash, joint pain, red eyes, and headache. The virus is transmitted to people by infected mosquitoes. Symptoms quickly occur within three to twelve days after contracting the virus. There is no vaccine for this virus.

Which description best explains the reproductive cycle of this virus?

a)

Lytic, because the virus is transmitted by mosquitoes

b)

Lysogenic, because there is no way to vaccinate against it

c)

Lytic, because of the quick incubation time

d)

Lysogenic, because the virus causes a fever

11.

When the skin comes in contact with an irritant, receptors in the skin send signals to the spinal cord. The signal is then sent to the brain for processing, and the individual begins to scratch the affected area. Which two systems are most likely interacting when a person experiences itching caused by a skin irritant?

a)

Circulatory and excretory

b)

Integumentary and nervous

c)

Digestive and muscular

d)

Respiratory and lymphatic

12.

Which graphic organizer best compares the energy inputs and outputs of cellular respiration and photosynthesis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.

Which statements best compare the function of an ATP molecule to a DNA molecule?

a)

ATP carries and transmits the genetic information of organisms. DNA serves as a biological catalyst that speeds up the rate of chemical reactions.

b)

ATP provides energy for chemical reactions in the cell. DNA carries and transmits the genetic information of organisms.

c)

ATP serves as a biological catalyst that speeds up the rate of chemical reactions. DNA acts as a structural sugar in the cell walls of plants.

d)

ATP acts as a structural sugar in the cell walls of plants. DNA provides energy for chemical reactions in the cell.

14.

For an enzyme to be able to catalyze a reaction, the active site must —

a)

be occupied by an inhibitor

b)

increase the activation energy level

c)

have a complementary shape to the substrate

d)

cause the enzyme to be destroyed in the reaction

15.

A flower that has both male and female reproductive structures is shown.

Which statement best describes an interaction that will allow a flowering plant to reproduce by self-pollination?An anther is transferred from a filament to another filament within the same flower.

a)

An anther is transferred from a filament to another filament within the same flower.

b)

An ovule is transferred from the ovary to a petal on a different flower.

c)

H A pollen grain is transferred from an anther to the stigma of the same flower.

d)

An ovary is transferred from a flower on one plant to a flower on a different plant.

16.

Breaking down food for nutrients involves many body systems. A student made a partial list of the processes that occur.

Which body systems interact most directly in the three listed processes?

a)

Digestive, Integumentary, Muscular

b)

Excretory, Immune, Muscular

c)

Circulatory, Excretory, immune

d)

Circulatory, DIgestive, Endocrine

17.

A student makes a Venn diagram to compare the functions of carbohydrates and lipids

Which cellular function of carbohydrates and lipids should be placed in the shared section of the Venn diagram?

a)

Hormone production

b)

Structural support of cell walls

c)

Energy storage

d)

Catalyst for chemical reactions

18.

Students construct a graphic organizer to illustrate the different levels of biological organization.

Which term does the letter X represent in the graphic organizer?

a)

Cell

b)

Organism

c)

Ecosystems

d)

Biosphere

19.

Students set up a controlled experiment by growing the same type of seedlings in two different locations. After a period of time, the students observed the seedlings and recorded their observations in the table shown

What caused the shoots of the seedlings on the windowsill to bend toward the window?

a)

Hormones produced in response to a light stimulus

b)

Sugars produced in response to a gravity stimulus

c)

Carbon dioxide produced in response to a water stimulus

d)

Water produced in response to a nitrogen stimulus

20.

The hormone adrenaline causes blood vessels to contract and send more blood to major muscles.

a)

The hormone adrenaline causes blood vessels to contract and send more blood to major muscles.

b)

Metabolic wastes generated by muscle cells are eliminated in urine.

c)

The diaphragm contracts causing the chest cavity to expand, which draws air into the lungs.

d)

Nutrients absorbed in the small intestine are transported in blood to the brain.

21.

Farmers spray pesticides on their plants to protect the plants from being eaten by insects. Some individual insects have a genetic mutation that makes them resistant to the toxins in the pesticides.

Which statement best describes how only a few resistant individuals resulted in the pesticide becoming ineffective?

a)

The resistant insects change the toxin on the plants, making it safe for others

b)

The resistant insects grow larger and eat less of the plants.

c)

The resistant insects eat the contaminated surface and leave the rest for others

d)

The resistant insects are able to survive to reproduce and create a population that is also resistant.

22.

A cladogram of five species is shown.

Based on the cladogram, the ancestral species most likely had —

a)

a vertebral column

b)

a vertebral column and hair

c)

sharp teeth and retractable claws

d)

the ability to purr

23.

The Mexican long-nosed bat roosts in Big Bend National Park in West Texas. The bat feeds on nectar and pollen and hovers while it feeds. Additionally, its tongue can extend up to eight centimeters. The features of Mexican long-nosed bats are evidence of natural selection because the features are adaptations that —

a)

lead to an increase in predation by other species of animals

b)

show that most DNA mutations are necessary and advantageous but do not increase survival or reproductive success

c)

help individuals outcompete other individuals for food resources to increase survival and reproductive success

d)

are the result of intentional breeding

24.

A researcher determines an organism to be eukaryotic, unicellular, and autotrophic. In which taxonomic group should this organism be classified?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protista

c)

Archae

d)

Animalia

25.

When multiple transitional fossils are found in many rock layers, they provide evidence of —

a)

seasonal variation in the diet of a species

b)

gradual change of a species over time

c)

DNA functioning as the genetic material of organisms

d)

an unchanging environment

26.

Students examine images of a certain species of bat commonly found in Texas. Using the bat dichotomous key, they conclude that the bat species is a Mexican free-tailed bat due to its large, round ears.

Based on the dichotomous key, in addition to the shape of the bat’s ears, which other set of features should the students look for to confirm the identity of the bat?

a)

Solitary with a wingspan greater than 35 cm

b)

Solitary with a wingspan less than 35 cm

c)

Colonial with a wingspan greater than 35 cm

d)

Colonial with a wingspan less than 35 cm

27.

The taxonomic classifications of four species of amphibians are shown.

Based on the information provided, which two species are most closely related?

a)

Northern cricket frog and bullfro

b)

Northern leopard frog and green treefrog

c)

Northern cricket frog and green treefrog

d)

Northern leopard frog and bullfrog

28.

The giant octopus lays 20,000 to 100,000 fertilized eggs. After hatching, most octopuses become prey to larger marine organisms, and less than 5% will reach adulthood to reproduce. One benefit of the giant octopus laying many eggs is to —

a)

increase the average body size for surviving individuals to avoid predation

b)

decrease competition between different octopus species to maintain resources in the population

c)

increase the chance that more individuals will survive to maintain the population

d)

decrease the likelihood of offspring being consumed by predators

29.

Researchers analyzed a mitochondrial gene of different bat species to determine relatedness. A cladogram of their results is shown.

Based on the cladogram, which set of bat species is the least related?

a)

Ptenochirus minor and Megaerops niphanae

b)

Dyacopterus spadiceus and Otopteropus cartilagonodus

c)

Haplonycteris fischeri and Ptenochirus jagori

d)

Cynopterus sphinx and Chironax melanocephalus

30.

Two scientists want to compare their research of fireflies. Which information must the two scientists provide to each other to determine if they studied the same type of fireflies?

a)

Size of the firefly populations

b)

Type of habitat in which the fireflies live

c)

Color of light produced by the fireflies

d)

Species name of the fireflies studied

31.

The four butterflies in the illustration represent the offspring in the F1 generation. Which statement is best supported by the phenotypes of these offspring?

a)

The F1 generation is composed only of males.

b)

Two of the offspring in the F1 generation will not be able to reproduce.

c)

The F1 generation is the result of a dihybrid cross.

d)

Two of the offspring in the F1 generation will experience a spontaneous mutation

32.

The 1918 influenza epidemic killed between 50 million and 100 million people worldwide. THis epidemic happened near the end of World War I. More people died from the influenza epidemic than were killed in the war. Which of the following explains why this virus was so deadly worldwide?

a)

Infected soldiers returning from the war spread the virus when they coughed.

b)

Food was scarce because of the war, so people were undernourished, and their immune systems were weakened.

c)

Medical personnel often became ill as a result of exposure to airborne virus particles.

d)

All of the above

33.

The amount of energy the producers in this energy pyramid provide the primary consumer is 54,000 joules. From this amount, 540 joules are provided to the tertiary consumers. Based on this model, how much of the energy was provided to secondary consumers?

a)

53,460 J

b)

5,400 J

c)

540 J

d)

54 J

34.

The survival of a species depends on its ability to adapt to changes in the environment. A species must be capable of surviving and reproducing despite changes to food sources, climate, or threats from predators. Which statement correctly describes a way that mutations increase the likelihood that a species will survive in a changing environment?

a)

Mutations are a source of variation in species.

b)

Mutations are the cause of disease in the species.

c)

Mutations are not harmful when they occur in somatic cells of the species.

d)

Mutations are always passed on to subsequent generations of the species.

35.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

36.

Four different nucleotides are used as building blocks of DNA. Which of the following can be used to distinguish one nucleotide from another?

a)

The nitrogenous base

b)

The shape of the deoxyribose sugar

c)

The length of the phosphate group

d)

The type of fatty acid

37.

The green frog (Lithobates clamitans clamitans) is found in many parts of the United States. The table contains some information about this frog. Why does the ability to lay 1,000 to 5,000 eggs increase the fitness of the species L. clamitans clamitans?

a)

It increases opportunities for offspring to compete for limited resources.

b)

It increases the probability that some offspring will survive long enough to reproduce.

c)

It increases the probability that moving water will promote gene flow from one population to another.

d)

It increases the chance of the recombination of alleles, leading to genetic drift in the population.

38.

Food webs such as the one shown were first used in 1927 by the animal ecologist Charles Elton. The food web below represents the feeding relationships among organisms in an Alaskan ecosystem. An environmental change that removed which of these organisms from the ecosystem would cause the most instability in the ecosystem?

a)

Auklets

b)

Foxes

c)

Salmon

d)

Zooplankton

39.

During the final stages of human gestation, receptors for the hormone oxytocin increase on the smooth muscle cells of the uterus. The release of oxytocin during labor stimulates the smooth muscle tissue in the wall of the uterus. The vigorous contraction of the uterine smooth muscle helps push the baby through the birth canal so that delivery can occur. This process involves the interaction of which organ systems?

a)

Endocrine and muscular only

b)

Endocrine and reproductive only

c)

Endocrine, muscular, and reproductive

d)

Endocrine, reproductive, and excretory

40.

In the early 1900s a scientist hypothesized a link between DNA and the production of protein in the cytoplasm. However, the fact that DNA could not be found outside the nucleus led scientists to believe that another substance was also involved in the synthesis of protein in the cytoplasm. In the 1940s scientists performed an experiment that ultimately identified the site of protein synthesis. They also identified the molecule responsible for transporting information from the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis. What was the newly identified molecule?

a)

a gene

b)

mRNA

c)

ATP

d)

thymine

41.

During meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material. This exchange of genetic material

a)

increases the genetic variation

b)

reduces the diploid number to the haploid number

c)

increases the haploid number to the diploid number

d)

reduces the probability of mutations

42.

As a fertilized egg divides, the cells differentiate because they

a)

contain a lipid bilayer

b)

can clump together

c)

metabolize sugars rapidly

d)

have specific genes activated

43.

The photograph shows monarch butterflies landing on plants where there are thousands of other monarch butterflies. These butterflies feed on milkweed plants as they travel south for the winter, covering distances of 5,000 km or more each year. However, the population of these butterflies has been steadily declining over the last 20 years. What is the most likely reason the population of these butterflies has been declining?

a)

The number of bird species evolving to prey on butterflies has increased.

b)

The butterflies are evolving to tolerate cold weather in the northern United States and southern Canada.

c)

The increase in yearly temperatures has warmed the northern habitats.

d)

The number of milkweed plants along the butterflies’ migratory route as decreased.

44.

Bactrian camels, dromedaries, llamas, and alpacas are all members of the same taxonomic family, Camelidae. Members of this family all have two toes, no hooves, true canine teeth, and a split upper lip. The family Camelidae originated in North America. The physical features of animals in this family and the family’s geographical origin provide evidence that all these animals

a)

live in the same type of ecosystem

b)

have slowly evolved to become herbivores

c)

have a common ancestor

d)

exchanged DNA at some point in the past

45.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy.

b)

The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells.

c)

The products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

d)

The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

46.

Health professionals sometimes recommend nutritional supplements that contain a variety of species of bacteria to promote good digestive health. The product label for one of these supplements is shown. Why does this type of bacteria-filled supplement benefit human health instead of causing illness?

a)

Stomach acids and digestive enzymes kill the bacteria in this type of supplement, protecting the person against future infections by live organisms.

b)

The human digestive system contains billions of beneficial bacteria that enhance digestion and nutrient absorption, synthesize vitamins, and help limit the growth of harmful bacteria

c)

These species of bacteria remove all other species of microorganisms living in the human digestive system and ensure that no microorganisms survive to contaminate the body.

d)

These bacteria are able to deactivate viruses that may inhabit the human digestive system and are used to protect against further viral infections.

47.

The initial steps in gene expression are modeled. Double-stranded DNA first unwinds into two strands. Which process and product are represented in the diagrams?

a)

Process: transcription; product: mRNA

b)

Process: translation; product: protein

c)

Process: replication; product: tRNA

d)

Process: recombination; product: polymerase

48.

During ecological succession, how does the growth of young hardwoods affect the organisms living in an ecosystem?

a)

Grasses and low shrubs are unable to obtain the amount of light they need to survive, so there are small numbers of them.

b)

The trees provide shelter and food for a variety of mammals, insects, and birds.

c)

In autumn, falling leaves provide a source of energy for decomposers such as fungi.

d)

All of These

49.

Human bone, muscle, and nerve cells all contain the same number of chromosomes with the same complement of genes. What enables these cells to perform specialized activities?

a)

The ability of some cells to remove unnecessary DNA sequences

b)

The regulation of gene expression within each cell type

c)

The mutation of genes within each cell type

d)

The use of different methods of cell division

50.

Some relationships between different organisms are shown in the table. Which table correctly identifies each type of interaction described?

a)
b)
c)
d)
51.

A sequence of a DNA template strand is shown.

3' TAC AAT GGC TTA TTT ATC 5'

Which of these is the correct amino acid chain produced from the DNA template strand?

a)

Tryptophan - Phenylalanine - Leucine - Glycine - Asparagine - Phenylalanine

b)

Methionine - Tyrosine - Phenylalanine - Leucine - Proline - Lysine - Stop

c)

Methionine - Leucine - Proline - Asparagine - Lysine - Stop

d)

Arginine - Leucine - Proline - Asparagine - Lysine- Arginine

52.

The Himalayan rabbit’s habitat has cold, snowy winters and mild summers. The body is typically covered in white fur except for the nose, feet, tail, and ears, which are covered in black fur.

A scientist shaved an area of white fur on the back of a Himalayan rabbit and placed an ice pack over the shaved area. The shaved area grew black fur. Which of these best explains why the hair that grew back where the ice pack was placed was black and not white?

a)

The coat color changed from white to black with the age of the rabbit.

b)

The genes for black hair were activated by specific temperatures.

c)

White hair only grows during certain times of the year.

d)

The white hair mutated to black hair as the rabbit’s body temperature decreased.

53.

Enzymes are proteins that have two primary functions. Which answer below has the correct paring of functions?

a)

Raises activation energy and slows rate of reaction

b)

All of the above

c)

Lowers activation energy and increases the rate of reaction

d)

None of the above

54.

Which of the following changes will denature an enzyme from optimal conditions?

a)

Increase in temperature.

b)

Increase in pH.

c)

Decrease in pH.

d)

All of the above.

55.

This organelle is responsible for organizing the microtubials during cell division.

a)

small vacuole

b)

Peroxisome

c)

Ribsomes

d)

Centrioles

56.

Which of the following are in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? Select all that apply.

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Genetic Material

d)

Large Vacuole

e)

Mitochondria

57.

What is letter A pointing at?

a)

Deoxyribose Sugar

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Nitrogenous Base

d)

Covalent bonds

58.

What is letter D pointing at?

a)

Hydrogen Bonds

b)

Phosphate Group

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Covalent bonds

59.

At the cellular level, what causes a tumor?

a)

Uncontrolled or unregulated cell growth

b)

G1 phase

c)

DNA replication

d)

Bacterial infection

60.

What does the process of mitosis create?

a)

Two genetically different cells

b)

Two gametes (sex cells)

c)

Two genetically identical somatic cells

d)

1 identical cell, 1 different cell

61.

Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?

a)

interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase

b)

interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

62.

If a parent cell has 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would each somatic (body cell) have?

a)

24

b)

48

c)

12

d)

72

63.

Using the sequence below, write each complementary base pair. ATC GCA TTA CAC CCA AAG

a)

TAG CGT AAT GCC GGT TTC

b)

TAG CGT AAT GTG GGT TTC

c)

TAG GGT AAT GCC GGT TTC

d)

TAG CGT ATT GCC GGT TTC

64.

What does A represent? What does B represent?

a)

G1; G2

b)

Prophase; Metaphase

c)

S phase; cytokinesis

d)

M Phase; Cytokinesis

65.

What does arrow 1 represent?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

M phase

66.

What elements are in DNA?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

c)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorus

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Sulphur

67.

Differences in traits between individuals are determined by...

a)

sugars attached to the DNA

b)

number of nitrogenous bases

c)

phosphate groups

d)

sequence of nucleotides

68.

Lipids and Carbohydrates are similar in that they both ...

a)

are a source of energy

b)

increase the rate of reaction

c)

are made up of amino acids

d)

provide instructions to make a protein

69.

Which of the following are true? Select all that apply.

a)

Carbs and lipids are made up of the elements C, H, O

b)

Carbs serve as protection by coating internal organs

c)

Carbs have 4 cal/g and lipids have 9 cal/g

d)

Carbs and lipids both have structure and energy storage as a function.

70.

An individual who participates in a long-distance run on a hot day will produce large quantities of sweat. As a result of the excessive sweating, the amount of urine produced by the kidneys will change. How will the kidneys respond to help the individual’s body maintain homeostasis?

a)

The kidneys will decrease urine production so the body can maintain blood pH.

b)

The kidneys will increase urine production to eliminate excess salt in the body.

c)

The kidneys will decrease urine production to allow the body to conserve water.

d)

The kidneys will increase urine production so the body can absorb more nutrients.

71.

Saprophytes are fungi that feed on dead and decomposing organisms. They secrete enzymes that digest components of cell walls, such as cellulose and lignin.

a)

Saprophytes transport nutrients through the xylem and phloem in autotrophs

b)

Saprophytes return organic material to the soil for use by living organisms.

c)

Saprophytes extract minerals from living tissue to recycle them back into the soil.

d)

Saprophytes perform gas exchange that assists the cellular activities of autotrophs.

72.

The relationships among different orders of millipedes are shown in the cladogram. Based on this cladogram, which statement best describes relationships among millipede orders?

a)

Stemmiulida is more closely related to Merocheta than Penicillata is to Merocheta

b)

Spirostreptida is more closely related to Glomerida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomerida.

c)

Polyzoniida is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomeridesmida.

d)

Merocheta is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Glomerida is to Glomeridesmida.

73.

Which of the following best describes these biomolecules?

a)

Molecule X and Molecule Y are both carbohydrates.

b)

Molecule X is a nucleic acid, and Molecule Y is a carbohydrate.

c)

Molecule X and Molecule Y are both nucleic acids.

d)

Molecule X is a carbohydrate, and Molecule Y is a nucleic acid.

74.

A partial meadow food web is shown.

Based on this food web, which organisms are direct sources of energy for secondary consumers?

a)

Aphid Bird Rabbit

b)

Ladybug Fox Dragonfly

c)

Frog Butterfly Berries

d)

Mouse Snake Hawk

75.

The diagrams show some of the levels of biological organization.

In what order are the levels in the diagrams?

a)

Population --> community --> ecosystem

b)

Organism -> Community -> population

c)

Organism -> population -> community

d)

Ecosystem -> population -> community

76.

A student used a microscope to study four members of the phylum Ciliophora. Members of this phylum move when propelled by hundreds of tiny cilia.

Although these organisms belong to the same phylum, they are classified as different —

a)

families

b)

kingdom

c)

species

d)

orders

77.

A model of a DNA molecule is shown. The arrow indicates-

a)

the sequence of nucleotides

b)

the hydrogen bond between a phosphate group and sugar molecule.

c)

the pentose sugar

d)

the covalent bond between adjacent phosphate and deoxyribose molecules

78.

A remora is a fish that has an adhesive disk on the back of its head that it uses to attach itself to a large shark. When food floats away from the shark’s mouth as it feeds, the remora collects the scraps. Drawings of a shark with a remora attached and a remora’s adhesive disk are shown.

The relationship between the remora and the shark is an example of —

a)

predation

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

d)

compeition

79.

Invasive plant species affect the interactions of living and nonliving components of an ecosystem, so the removal of invasive plants is often necessary. The goal of most plant-control methods is to disrupt or inhibit the function of different plant systems. For example, insects can be used to chew through roots in order to reduce a plant’s ability to absorb water. Which of these functions would be most immediately affected by a reduction in water uptake by roots?

a)

Disease resistance

b)

Seed dispersal

c)

Sunlight absorption

d)

Photosynthesis

80.

Albinism is an autosomal recessive condition. What shows the genotype probability when an albino female mates with a male that is heterozygous for the albinism trait?

a)

50 % aa and 50 % Aa

b)

100% Aa

c)

25% aa, 25% AA and 50% Aa

d)

100% aa

81.

Which of these is not a function of the integumentary system?

a)

Barrier against infection

b)

Helps regulate body temp

c)

Protects against the suns rays

d)

Protect organs, provide shape, produce blood cells, store and release materials

82.

Peristalsis the involuntary movement of food through parts of the body. Which two systems below are working together to make this happen?

a)

Digestive & muscular

b)

Nervous & integumentary

c)

Endocrine & circulatory

d)

Digestive & sensory

83.

This diagram demonstrates why the ocean is a large carbon sink.

An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere can cause atmospheric temperatures to increase. Which statement explains how this could affect the ocean as a carbon sink?

a)

Less atmospheric carbon dioxide would be available to phytoplankton.

b)

Dissolved carbon dioxide gas in the ocean would increase because surface winds would cause a deeper circulation pattern, making more room for the gas.

c)

Less carbon dioxide gas would be contained in the ocean because increasing precipitation would dilute the carbon entering the ocean.

d)

Less carbon dioxide would be dissolved in the ocean because increasing atmospheric temperatures would cause ocean temperatures to increase.

84.

The diagram demonstrates a feedback process involving antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH increases the permeability of parts of the nephrons of the kidney, resulting in less water in the urine.

This feedback loop is likely to be activated when —

a)

blood glucose levels are stable

b)

body temperature drops

c)

the urinary tract is infected

d)

the body experiences dehydration

85.

A researcher determines an organism to be eukaryotic, unicellular, and autotrophic. In which taxonomic group should this organism be classified?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protista

c)

Archaea

d)

Animalia

86.

When multiple transitional fossils are found in many rock layers, they provide evidence of —

a)

seasonal variation in the diet of a species

b)

gradual change of a species over time

c)

DNA functioning as the genetic material of organisms

d)

an unchanging environment

87.

Students examine images of a certain species of bat commonly found in Texas. Using the bat dichotomous key, they conclude that the bat species is a Mexican free-tailed bat due to its large, round ears.

Based on the dichotomous key, in addition to the shape of the bat’s ears, which other set of features should the students look for to confirm the identity of the bat?

a)

Solitary with a wingspan greater than 35 cm

b)

Solitary with a wingspan less than 35 cm

c)

Colonial with a wingspan greater than 35 cm

d)

Colonial with a wingspan less than 35 cm

88.

When a new mutation occurs in a somatic cell of a sexually reproducing organism, what percentage of the individual’s offspring are likely to inherit the mutation?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

25%

d)

0%

89.

Plant hormones serve as chemical messengers between cells and tissues. Auxin is a plant hormone that causes the cells on the shady side of a plant shoot to elongate. The response enabled by auxin is known as —

a)

geotropism

b)

transpiration

c)

phototropism

d)

photosynthesis

90.

What are the tropisms identified by #1 and #2?

a)

1 = positive gravitropism, 2 = negative gravitropism

b)

1 = positive thigmotropism, 2 = negative thigmotropism

c)

1 = negative gravitropism, 2 = positive gravitropism

d)

1 = negative thigmotropism, 2 = 1 = positive thigmotropism