wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Semester 2 review

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
2.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
3.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
4.
Which of the following must happen first in order for DNA replication to occur?
a)
DNA polymerase binds to the leading strand
b)
DNA is unwound
c)
Hydrogen bonds form between bases
d)
chromosomes condense
5.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
6.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
7.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
8.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
9.
order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
10.
Why is it crucial that living things are able to replicate their DNA?
a)
Each cell must have its own DNA
b)
Less copies of DNA are needed when a new cell is created
c)
A cell needs multiple copies of DNA
d)
Only muscle cells need DNA 
11.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
12.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
13.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
14.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
15.
In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular
a)
nucleotide
b)
enzyme
c)
amino acid
d)
promoter
16.
The process of making proteins on the ribosome based on instructions from messenger RNA is called
a)
transcription
b)
transformation
c)
translation
d)
molecular biology
17.
Changes is DNA sequences that affect genetic information are known as
a)
replications
b)
mutations
c)
transformations
d)
translations
18.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
19.

What is the process that makes a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA strand?

a)

protein synthesis

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

DNA Polymerase

20.
What does mRNA do?
a)
provides information from DNA to ribosomes
b)
transfers amino acids to the ribosomes
c)
makes up ribosomes
d)
builds proteins
21.

The first step of protein synthesis is.....

a)

replication

b)

mitosis

c)

translation

d)

transcription

22.
In a strand of DNA, if it contains 20% of Thymine, then how much Guanine would be present?
a)
30%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
10%
23.

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

a)

RNA-protein-DNA

b)

RNA-DNA-protein

c)

DNA-protein-RNA

d)

DNA-RNA-protein

24.
How many nucleotides make a codon?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
25.
What is the product of translation?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
26.
In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular
a)
nucleotide
b)
enzyme
c)
amino acid
d)
promoter
27.
tRNA can be found in 
a)
cytoplasm or ribosomes
b)
nucleus
28.
rRNA
a)
supply truck
b)
forms ribosomes
29.
tRNA is
a)
like a supply truck; it brings amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
b)
codes
30.

What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?

a)

anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA

b)

anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA

c)

tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence

d)

mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence

31.

The following codon is translated into which amino acid?


AUG

a)

Methionine

b)

Isoleucine

c)

Histidine

d)

Arginine

32.

The following codon is translated into which amino acid?


AUU

a)

Methionine

b)

Isoleucine

c)

Histidine

d)

Arginine

33.

WHERE does TRANSLATION occur?

a)

ribosome

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

d)

cell

34.

Which organelle makes proteins?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

chloroplast

35.

What is translation?

a)

the process in which DNA is copied to make another molecule of DNA

b)

the process in which DNA is coded into mRNA

c)

the process in which mRNA is decoded into a protein

d)

the process in which enzymes break down mRNA

36.

The correct sequence of mitosis:

a)

metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

d)

telophase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase

37.

After mitosis the number of chromosomes in the newly created cells will be:

a)

Half the number of the original cell

b)

The same number as the original cell

c)

Twice as much as the original cell

38.

Uncontrolled growth can result in:

a)

G0 phase

b)

S phase

c)

Replication

d)

Cancer

39.
The structure labeled A is a(n)
a)
chromatid
b)
centriole
c)
centromere
d)
chromophere
40.
The structures labeled B are
a)
centrioles
b)
chromatids
c)
centromeres
d)
chromopheres
41.
During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the most time?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
42.

In the image, what is represented by F?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

43.

In the image, what is represented by I?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

44.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
45.

In which phase does a cell spend most of its life?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

46.
What do the cells look like at the end of mitosis?
a)
different from original cell
b)
similar to the original cell
c)
identical to the original cell
d)
none of these
47.

What mutation has occurred here?

Original DNA strand - T-G-A-C-C-A

Replicated DNA strand - A-C-A-G-G-T

a)

Point mutation

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

48.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

49.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

50.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

51.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
52.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

53.

Which of the following is the best definition for MEIOSIS?

a)

the process of two haploid cells uniting

b)

the counting of chromosomes within a diploid cell

c)

a two-step process that reduces the number of chromosomes in half such that there is only one copy of all the chromosomes

d)

the equational division of a cell into two identical copies

54.

How many cells are formed at the end of Meiosis II?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

8

55.

Which of the following are CORRECT observations about the differences between MITOSIS and MEIOSIS? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Mitosis produces cells that identical to the parent cell.

b)

Meiosis produces cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

All cells go through INTERPHASE as part of the cell cycle, whether it goes to mitosis or meiosis next.

d)

In both types of cell division, the chromosomes are only duplicated once.

e)

Only in Mitosis, do you see chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad.

56.

What effect does crossing over has in terms of traits of offspring?

a)

Results in identical traits of offsprings.

b)

Causes variation in the traits of offsprings.

c)

It really does nothing to the traits of offspring.

57.

The four cells that are produced after Meiosis are _______.

a)

haploid because they contain just half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

b)

diploid because they contain as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

diploid because they contain twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

58.

If an organism has 24 chromosomes in a body cell, how many will each daughter cell have at the end of meiosis?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

23

d)

24

59.

The daughter cells produced by meiosis are also called __________.

a)

somatic cells

b)

stem cells

c)

germ cells

d)

gametes

60.

How many chromosomes do sperm cells have?

(a)  

61.
Meiosis produces cells with a haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
62.
Body cells have diploid or haploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
63.
Gametes have haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
64.

What is the mutation in this persons chromosomes?

a)

There is only one X

b)

7 is shaped like a hockey stick

c)

There's an extra 21

d)

1 is too curved

65.

What is the primary cause of genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

"crossing over" of chromosomes

c)

separation of chromosomes

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

66.

The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate "normally" during meiosis is called _____________________.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

67.

In pea plants, tall (T) plant alleles are dominant to short (t) plant alleles. If two tall plants (each with the genotype Tt) are crossed, what is the probability that the cross would result in a short pea plant?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

68.

Patrick Star recently married Patti. He is considered a purebred for his tall head shape (T), which is dominant over a short head (t). If Patti is a short-headed woman, what type of heads would their children have? (HINT: do a Punnett Square on a piece of paper)

a)

75% Tall and 25% short

b)

25% Tall and 75% short

c)

50% Tall and 50% short

d)

100% Tall

69.

Which statement below describes DOMINANT alleles?

a)

expressed when at least one is present

b)

only expressed when 2 are present

70.

In pea plants, tall (T) is dominant over short (t). If two heterozygous tall pea plants are mated, what is the the expected genotypic ratio of their offspring?

a)

3 tall : 1 short

b)

1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt

71.

The alleles for different traits are sorted separately and don't affect one another.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Conservation of Matter

d)

Law of Segregation

72.

A parent's 2 alleles for a trait are separated during meiosis to produce gametes.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Conservation of Matter

d)

Law of Segregation

73.

The alleles for different traits are sorted separately and don't affect one another.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Conservation of Matter

d)

Law of Segregation

74.

One allele is stronger and will be expressed over another.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Conservation of Matter

d)

Law of Segregation

75.

New traits usually occur due to:

a)

Random genetic mutations

b)

An organism adapting

c)

Effects from the environment

76.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
77.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
78.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
79.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
80.

Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis (hip) bone. Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)

a)

vestigial structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

homologous structure

81.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment 
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
 fitness
82.
Where humans have bred organisms together based on traits we like.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction 
d)
Artificial Selection
83.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
84.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
85.

What is the function of the excretory system?

a)

to take in oxygen and excrete carbon dioxide

b)

to excrete wastes from the body

c)

to pump blood throughout the body

d)

to break down food into useful nutrients

86.

What is the function of the digestive system?

a)

to take in oxygen and excrete carbon dioxide

b)

to excrete wastes from the body

c)

to pump blood throughout the body

d)

to break down food into useful nutrients

87.

What is the function of the respiratory system?

a)

to take in oxygen and excrete carbon dioxide

b)

to excrete wastes from the body

c)

to pump blood throughout the body

d)

to break down food into useful nutrients

88.

Which system carries messages to and from different parts of the body?

a)

the digestive system

b)

the circulatory system

c)

the muscular system

d)

the nervous system

89.

Protects the body, regulates body temperature

a)

Integumentary

b)

Nervous

c)

Skeletal

d)

Muscular

90.

Allows movement in the body

a)

Integumentary

b)

Nervous

c)

Skeletal

d)

Muscular

91.

Receives stimuli and transports impulses, coordinates actions and reactions in the body

a)

Integumentary

b)

Nervous

c)

Circulatory

d)

Respiratory

92.

Supports and provides structure for the body

a)

Skeletal

b)

Muscular

c)

Circulatory

d)

Respiratory

93.

The ________ system is made of glands that secrete hormones into the blood to maintain homeostasis (balance)

a)

excretory

b)

endocrine

c)

digestive

d)

circulatory

94.
Which is a function of the cardiovascular system?
a)
to move water throughout the body
b)
to transport gases throughout the body 
c)
to eliminate waste from the body
d)
to provide structural support for the body 

Similar Resources on Wayground

Circulatory, Digestive, Respiratory, and Excretory Systems

98 questions

Circulatory, Digestive, Respiratory, and Excretory Systems

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th - 9th Grade

Assessment: Nuclear Energy

98 questions

Assessment: Nuclear Energy

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

LVA Bio Semester 1 Review

98 questions

LVA Bio Semester 1 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Classification GVMS Armstrong

94 questions

Classification GVMS Armstrong

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

Sinh Học 10 giữa kì 2

95 questions

Sinh Học 10 giữa kì 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Biology Final Exam

97 questions

Biology Final Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 10th Grade

Nervous System Review

96 questions

Nervous System Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Hon Bio-Ch 2- Exam Review

99 questions

Hon Bio-Ch 2- Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade