Worksheets4th sem EEM COMP.IT PRE-GTU EXAM MCQ1552020
Total questions: 83
Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
____________defines Economics as a science which studies human behavior as a relationship betweenends and scarce means which have alternative uses.
a)
Adam Smith
b)
Alfred Marshall
c)
Lionel Robbins
d)
Paul Samuelson
2.
___define economics is the study of how men and society choose, with or without the use of money, to employ limited productive resources which could alternative usest,o produce various commodities over time, and distribute them for consumption, now and in the future among various people and groups of society
a)
Adam Smith
b)
Alfred Marshall
c)
Lionel Robbins
d)
Paul Samuelson
3.
The science of economics centers on _______________
a)
Unlimited want - effort - satisfaction
b)
limited want-effort -satisfaction
c)
limtied want - limited effort
d)
limited want and unlimited resourece
4.
________ is known as the Father of Economics,
a)
Adam Smith
b)
Alfred Marshall
c)
Lionel Robbins
d)
Paul Samuelson
5.
The satisfaction of human wants through the use of goods and services is called ______________
a)
consumption
b)
production
c)
Exchange
d)
Distribution
6.
______ would mean the creation of utility or producing (or creating) things for satisfying human wants.
a)
consumption
b)
production
c)
Exchange
d)
Distribution
7.
The process of buy and sell is ________
a)
consumption
b)
production
c)
Exchange
d)
Distribution
8.
Economics is best defined as the study of how people, businesses, governments, and societies
a)
make choices to cope with scarcity
b)
attain wealth.
c)
choose abundance over scarcity.
d)
use their infinite resources
9.
As an economic concept, scarcity applies to
a)
neither time nor money.
b)
both money and time.
c)
time but not money.
d)
money but not time.
10.
Which of the following is a macroeconomic issue?
a)
how federal government budget deficits affect interest rates
b)
the cause of a decline in the price of peanut butter
c)
what determines the amount a firm will produce
d)
how a rise in the price of sugar affects the market for sodas
11.
__________________ wrote 'The Wealth of Nations?
a)
Adam Smith
b)
Michael Parkin
c)
Thomas Jefferson
d)
Karl Marx
12.
The variable cost of a firm vary in direct proportion to the
a)
Volume of its output
b)
Extent of its profits
c)
Volume of its sale
d)
All of the above
13.
In the case of diminishing returns to scale, a given proportionate increase in all factors causes
a)
A more than proportionate increase in output
b)
An equal proportionate increase in output
c)
A less than proportionate increase in output
d)
None of the above
14.
The cause for diminishing returns to scale is:
a)
Improper proportion of factors of production
b)
Difficulty in the combination of certain factors
c)
Excess combination of certain factors
d)
All of the above
15.
The law of Diminishing returns is applicable to:
a)
Agriculture only
b)
Industry only
c)
In short-run only
d)
Universally
16.
Let a firm employs 5 labourers and produces 120 units of output. When<br />6 labourers are employed the firm produces 136 units of output. Then<br />the marginal product is ---
a)
120
b)
136
c)
6
d)
16
17.
Other things remaining the same, the quantity of a product demanded increases with ------------ in price
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Variation
d)
None of the above
18.
When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is:
a)
Maximum
b)
One
c)
Zero
d)
Infinite
19.
For complementary goods, the cross elasticity of demand:
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
Zero
d)
None
20.
Relation between price of a commodity and demand for another commodity is measured by:
a)
Price elasticity
b)
Income elasticity
c)
Cross elasticity
d)
Elasticity of substitution
21.
Demand varies ------------- with price.
a)
Directly
b)
Positively
c)
Inversely
d)
None
22.
Income elasticity of demand for inferior good is:
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
c)
Zero
d)
Unity
23.
A market is ____________________________
a)
Necessarily refers to a meeting place between buyer and sellers
b)
Does not necessarily refers to a meeting place between buyer and sellers
c)
Extends over the entire country
d)
Extends over a city
24.
When there are only few sellers of the commodity, the market is called:
a)
Monopoly
b)
Duopoly
c)
Oligopoly
d)
Monopsony
25.
In which of the following market, advertisement is absent:
a)
Monopolistic competition
b)
Perfect competition
c)
Oligopoly
d)
None of the above
26.
Per capita income is equal to:
a)
Population/National income
b)
National income/population
c)
National income/GDP
d)
NNP/GNP
27.
Which of the following is true:
a)
GDP is a geographical concept
b)
GDP is not a geographical concept
c)
GDP and GNP are same
d)
None of them
28.
National Income doesn’t include:
a)
Interest on unproductive national debt
b)
Income for government expenditure
c)
The payments by the household to firm for the purchase of goods and services
d)
Undistributed profit
29.
Opportunity cost is:
a)
Direct cost
b)
Total cost
c)
Accounting cost
d)
Cost of foregone opportunity
30.
A firm’s average fixed cost is Rs 20 at 6 units of output what will it be at 4 units of output?
a)
Rs 60
b)
Rs 30
c)
Rs 40
d)
Rs 20
31.
If total cost at 10 units is Rs 600 and Rs 640 for 11th unit. The marginal cost of 11th unit is:
a)
Rs 20
b)
Rs 30
c)
Rs 40
d)
Rs 50
32.
______ are often used for measuring poverty in relative sense:
a)
HDI
b)
Gini co-efficient
c)
Planning Commission
d)
All of these
33.
Increase in population can be caused by_______________
a)
High birth rate
b)
Low death rate
c)
Immigration
d)
All the above
34.
M2 is defined as:
a)
M1 + net time deposits
b)
M1 + total deposit with post office
c)
M1 + saving deposit with post office
d)
Currency plus demand deposits in banks
35.
M3 is:
a)
Currency with public + demand deposits of the public
b)
M1 + M2
c)
M1 + Time deposits of the public with bank
d)
All of these
36.
_____ is the rate at which the central bank discounts the bills of commercial banks:
a)
SLR
b)
Bank rate
c)
CRR
d)
Wong
37.
_______ is the Banker’s Bank in India :
a)
SBI
b)
PNB
c)
RBI
d)
OBC
38.
Who recognizes/recognize only four functions, organizing, planning, leading and controlling.
a)
Harold Koontz
b)
Newman and summer
c)
Henry Fayol
d)
Luther Gulick
39.
_______________ is a function of manning the organization and keeping it manned
a)
organizing
b)
planning
c)
staffing
d)
directing
40.
_________ is considered life-spark of the enterprise which sets it in motion.
a)
organizing
b)
planning
c)
staffing
d)
directing
41.
What may be defined as a process by which manager guides and influences the work of subordinates in desired direction?
a)
Leadership
b)
communcation
c)
supervision
d)
motivation
42.
Which is NOT the characteristic of Management?
a)
intangible
b)
goal-oriented
c)
scientific
d)
individual
43.
Taylor suggested that the work should be planned by a ____________
a)
worker
b)
foreman
c)
management
d)
supervisor
44.
Which is the first level of Maslow's NEED HIERARCHY THEORY?
a)
safety
b)
social
c)
esteem
d)
physiological
45.
Which is the fifth level of Maslow's NEED HIERARCHY THEORY?
a)
esteem
b)
self-actualization
c)
social
d)
safety
46.
Management should obtain ________________ in work through suitable organization of men and materials.
a)
safety
b)
coordination
c)
equity
d)
orderliness
47.
According to ___________, a senior manager should be regarded as playing 10 different roles.
a)
Maslow
b)
Mintzberg
c)
Koontz
d)
Fayol
48.
we can place management in the category of the _____________ science.
a)
experimental
b)
behavioural
c)
managerial
d)
social
49.
The governance of business institutions is generally called ______________________
a)
control
b)
coordination
c)
administration
d)
management
50.
________________ is arguably more important than manufacturing sector.
a)
Human resource
b)
innovation
c)
management
d)
Legitimacy
51.
" when the management insists on following a certain way of doing things and praises or punishes employees on the basis of their adherence to that prescribed work , ____________________ takes place.
a)
administration
b)
Managerial Process
c)
professional automation
d)
correspondence
52.
______________is an intellectual process which requires a manager to think before acting.
a)
Coordinting
b)
staffing
c)
Planning
d)
Organizing
53.
_______________ tactical or housekeeping decisions are those which are supportive of, rather than central to, the company’s operations.
a)
group
b)
Routine
c)
strategic
d)
individual
54.
_______________ is a limit to the number of persons that can be supervised effectively by one boss.
a)
departments
b)
strategies
c)
chain of command
d)
Span of control
55.
The maximum span of management of super manager, whose functions involve only broad policy control rather than direct supervision can be _________ subordinates.
a)
50
b)
25
c)
6
d)
8
56.
Each major function of the enterprise is grouped into a ________
a)
functions
b)
department
c)
multiple directions
d)
Geographic location
57.
In ____________ accounting, it is difficult to judge whether the activities of a particular department are worth their cost.
a)
cost pot
b)
clear pot
c)
common pot
d)
crystal pot
58.
_________ departmentalization is the logical pattern to follow when each product requires raw materials, manufacturing technology, and marketing methods
a)
function
b)
Product
c)
purpose
d)
planning
59.
________departmentalization may result in underutilization of resources and facilities in some departments.
a)
Customer
b)
Product
c)
purpose
d)
planning
60.
In departmentalization by ____________, activities are grouped on the basis of timing of their performance.
a)
time
b)
customer
c)
geographical
d)
purpose
61.
With which skills, can the manager recognize the feelings and sentiments of others?
a)
technical
b)
innovative
c)
HR
d)
team-spirit
62.
_______________ of organization considers where the locus of decision-making authority lies.
a)
centralization
b)
Formalization
c)
complexity
d)
management
63.
In this type of structure, the content of communication is information and advice and not commands and instructions.
a)
organic
b)
narrow
c)
sandwich managers
d)
mechanistic
64.
According to ___________, the three major bases of legitimacy are tradition, rationality-legality and charisma.
a)
Maslow
b)
Max Weber
c)
Newman and Summer
d)
Henry Fayol
65.
The line and staff departments of an organisation are generally found to be at ___________ with each other.
a)
arguments
b)
loggerheads
c)
agreement
d)
hand-in-hand
66.
Decentralization unclogs the communication process and improves the organisation's efficiency.
a)
The statement is correct.
b)
The statement is incorrect
c)
cannot say
d)
I do not know
67.
In determining the amount of decentralization appropriate for an organisation, the ________ situational factors are usually considered.
a)
6
b)
7
c)
8
d)
5
68.
According to which theory,the individual wants to "test" himself against other members to determine whether or not his opinions, ideas and judgments correspond to those of others in the group?
a)
similarity
b)
social comparison
c)
interactive
d)
complimentary
69.
_____________ is the process by means of which a description is developed of the present methods and procedures of doing a job
a)
job specificaton
b)
planning
c)
Job analysis
d)
Job description
70.
__________ is the process of identifying the sources for prospective candidates and to stimulate them to apply for the jobs.
a)
Job analysis
b)
Recruitment
c)
job description.
d)
job specification
71.
This test measures the applicant's capacity to learn the skill required for a job.
a)
intelligence Test
b)
Interest Test
c)
Attitude Test
d)
Aptitude Test
72.
Which of the factors does nt affect the organzational climate?
a)
Organisational policies
b)
Managerial norms
c)
Economic condition
d)
entrepreneurs
73.
A task or a group of tasks to be performed that contribute to the mission or purpose of an organisation is called ______ .
a)
function
b)
purpose
c)
ideology
d)
process
74.
The ___________- organizational culture exhibits the values of bureaucracy and feudalism.
a)
participative
b)
authoritarian
c)
mechanistic
d)
organic
75.
The_______________ culture believes in an engineering approach to management.
a)
participative
b)
management systems
c)
mechanistic
d)
organic
76.
Welfare of society is not the corporation's business. Its business is to make money. This is the ____________ view.
a)
capitalist
b)
communist
c)
pragmatic
d)
trusteeship
77.
A social __________ is a systematic study and evaluation of the organisation’s social performance as distinguished from its economic performance.
a)
audit
b)
performance
c)
speculation
d)
analysis
78.
A firm’s average fixed cost is Rs 20 at 6 units of output what will it be at 4 units of output?
a)
Rs 60
b)
Rs 30
c)
Rs 40
d)
Rs 20
79.
The satisfaction of human wants through the use of goods and services is called ______________
a)
consumption
b)
production
c)
Exchange
d)
Distribution
80.
The cause for diminishing returns to scale is:
a)
Excess combination of certain factors
b)
Improper proportion of factors of production
c)
Difficulty in the combination of certain factors
d)
All of the above
81.
Write your enrollment number
4 lines
82.
Write you name
4 lines
83.
Please write your department
4 lines
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