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15.4 -15.7 Psychological Disorders

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes fear from anxiety in everyday experience?

a)

Anxiety always indicates mental disorder

b)

Fear involves cautious future avoidance

c)

Anxiety is instantaneous to imminent threat

d)

Fear is instantaneous to imminent threat

2.

Which feature most strongly signals pathological anxiety rather than normal anxiety?

a)

Temporary worry about finances

b)

Occasional nervousness before exams

c)

Brief, mild, situational

d)

Excessive, persistent, disproportionate

3.

Which description defines a specific phobia most accurately?

a)

Excessive, distressing, persistent fear

b)

Occasional mild dislike of objects

c)

Rational avoidance of danger cues

d)

General worry without triggers

4.

People with specific phobias often recognize their fear as irrational. What behavior may still occur?

a)

Going to great lengths to avoid stimulus

b)

Seeking constant exposure to stimulus

c)

Showing no avoidance and indifference

d)

Developing rational fear proportional

5.

Which example illustrates a phobia's disruptive impact on daily life and career?

a)

Refusing jobs requiring frequent air travel

b)

Feeling nervous before a single flight

c)

Preferring window seats on airplanes

d)

Reading safety instructions carefully

6.

Which learning pathway is proposed for acquisition of phobias involving pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus?

a)

Operant modeling

b)

Cognitive restructuring

c)

Classical conditioning

d)

Observational reinforcement

7.

Which scenario best illustrates classical conditioning in developing a phobia?

a)

Teen hears rumors then fears elevators

b)

Friend reads warnings then fears thunderstorms

c)

Child bitten by dog later fears all dogs

d)

Student watches sibling panic then fears bees

8.

In vicarious learning, what directly leads to acquiring a fear?

a)

Observing another’s fearful reactions

b)

Reading safety guidelines repeatedly

c)

Experiencing mild discomfort personally

d)

Imagining danger without evidence

9.

What defines social anxiety disorder most precisely?

a)

Generalized anxiety about environmental disasters

b)

Short-lived stress before academic examinations

c)

Periodic worry about physical injury during sports

d)

Persistent fear of negative evaluation in social situations

10.

Which situation is most characteristic of social anxiety disorder?

a)

Avoiding thunderstorms due to loud noises

b)

Avoiding flying due to fear of turbulence

c)

Avoiding hiking due to fear of wild animals

d)

Avoiding public speaking due to fear of embarrassment

11.

Which symptom commonly accompanies social anxiety disorder?

a)

Blushing when interacting with others

b)

Sweating during high temperatures

c)

Sneezing in dusty environments

d)

Yawning during long lectures

12.

Which coping choice increases comorbidity risk in social anxiety disorder?

a)

Engaging in cognitive restructuring practice

b)

Self-medicating with alcohol during social events

c)

Scheduling gradual exposure sessions

d)

Joining supportive peer discussion groups

13.

Which rationale explains human readiness to fear snakes and heights?

a)

Urban planning reducing wildlife exposure

b)

Recent media emphasis on modern dangers

c)

Evolutionary predispositions toward ancient threats

d)

Cultural rules about polite behavior

14.

Which criterion best distinguishes panic disorder from isolated panic attacks?

a)

Attacks triggered by specific phobias

b)

Symptoms limited to sweating alone

c)

Unexpected recurrent panic episodes

d)

Single brief episode in a lifetime

e)

Attacks only during stressful events

15.

Which symptom is commonly present during a panic attack within the first 10 minutes?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Slow breathing pattern

c)

Accelerated heart rate

d)

Gradual mood improvement

e)

Persistent joint pain

16.

What cognitive pattern often maintains panic disorder after an attack?

a)

Accurate symptom appraisal

b)

Trust in medical reassurance

c)

Complete symptom ignorance

d)

Misinterpretation of bodily sensations

e)

Focus on external distractions

17.

Which physical manifestation is frequently reported during a panic attack?

a)

Reduced body temperature

b)

Steady blood pressure levels

c)

Muscle hypertrophy growth

d)

Chest pain or palpitations

e)

Improved coordination skills

18.

Which comorbidity is commonly associated with panic disorder?

a)

Asthma alone

b)

Major depressive disorder

c)

Osteoarthritis changes

d)

Color blindness traits

e)

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

19.

Which neurotransmitter activity is hypothesized to be abnormal in panic disorder?

a)

Dopamine in nucleus accumbens

b)

Serotonin transporter flux

c)

Gamma-aminobutyric acid levels

d)

Norepinephrine in locus coeruleus

e)

Acetylcholine in motor cortex

20.

Which statement reflects heritability evidence for panic disorder?

a)

No familial aggregation exists

b)

Risk only in nonrelatives

c)

Heritability estimated around 43%

d)

Genes fully identified and mapped

e)

Twin studies show zero concordance

21.

Which cognitive response might send someone with panic disorder to the emergency room?

a)

Interpreting palpitations as harmless

b)

Viewing dizziness as normal exertion

c)

Thinking chest pounding signals heart attack

d)

Assuming trembling is due to caffeine

e)

Attributing shortness of breath to cold air

22.

Which scenario best illustrates the everyday, diffuse worrying typical of generalized anxiety disorder?

a)

Persistent worries about routine family safety

b)

Occasional stress before major exams

c)

Single traumatic flashback episode

d)

Brief panic tied to specific phobias

23.

A valid diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder requires worry that persists for at least how long?

a)

Two months exactly

b)

Three weeks total

c)

Six months or more

d)

One year minimum

24.

Which combination lists common associated symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder?

a)

Compulsions and rituals

b)

Restlessness and sleep difficulties

c)

Hallucinations and delusions

d)

Euphoria and grandiosity

25.

Which criterion helps distinguish generalized anxiety disorder from other anxiety conditions?

a)

Worry not confined to specific triggers

b)

Obsessions about contamination

c)

Fear only of social evaluation

d)

Panic exclusively during exercise

26.

Generalized anxiety disorder is highly comorbid with which categories of disorders?

a)

Mood disorders and other anxiety disorders

b)

Somatic and dissociative disorders

c)

Psychotic and neurodevelopmental disorders

d)

Substance use and eating disorders

27.

Which statement best captures the role of genetic factors in generalized anxiety disorder?

a)

Genetics play a modest role

b)

Genetics are the primary cause

c)

Genes determine the disorder

d)

No heritable influence exists

28.

Which cognitive account explains worry in generalized anxiety disorder as a strategy to avoid powerful negative emotions?

a)

Worry as emotional avoidance

b)

Worry as memory enhancement

c)

Worry as physiological training

d)

Worry as social reinforcement

29.

Which set of symptoms would most strongly support a diagnosis when present alongside pervasive worry for most days over six months?

a)

Auditory hallucinations, disorganized speech, apathy

b)

Difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, irritability

c)

Seasonal mood swings, increased appetite, hypersomnia

d)

Compulsive handwashing, checking, hoarding

30.

If a person experiences catastrophic misinterpretations of minor bodily sensations, which anxiety problem is most directly described in cognitive theories, and how might it relate to generalized anxiety disorder?

a)

Obsessive thoughts and rituals; GAD involves compulsive behaviors

b)

Specific phobia from conditioning; GAD involves targeted fear

c)

Social anxiety from scrutiny; GAD involves performance fear

d)

Panic attacks due to misinterpretations; GAD involves diffuse worry

31.

Which statement best distinguishes obsessions from compulsions in obsessive-compulsive disorder?

a)

Obsessions are temporary habits; compulsions are rare behaviors

b)

Obsessions are pleasant urges; compulsions are enjoyable rituals

c)

Obsessions are external triggers; compulsions are passive reactions

d)

Obsessions are intrusive thoughts; compulsions are repetitive acts

32.

Which example most clearly illustrates a compulsion typical in obsessive-compulsive disorder?

a)

Repeatedly checking that a door is locked

b)

Occasionally recalling a rude remark

c)

Preferring spoons arranged in a tray

d)

Feeling anxious about layoffs at work

33.

Which feature is most characteristic of obsessions in OCD?

a)

Rational concerns about daily responsibilities

b)

Persistent, intrusive, and distressing thoughts

c)

Brief, pleasurable, and calming images

d)

External events that force behavior changes

34.

Which behavior would NOT typically qualify as a compulsion in OCD?

a)

Repetitive hand washing after contact with germs

b)

Counting or praying to reduce distress

c)

Ritualistic checking of appliances

d)

Repetitive hand washing after passing a person with flu

35.

In body dysmorphic disorder, the core preoccupation typically involves which focus?

a)

Irresistible urges to check locks repeatedly

b)

Avoidance of discarding old personal possessions

c)

Fear of contamination from germs or dirt

d)

Perceived physical defects that seem hideous or deformed

36.

Which repeated action is most commonly associated with body dysmorphic disorder?

a)

Constantly checking one’s appearance in mirrors

b)

Counting objects to prevent feared events

c)

Rechecking appliances to reduce anxiety

d)

Arranging items in perfect symmetry

37.

Which description most accurately captures hoarding disorder?

a)

Intrusive thoughts about moral responsibility

b)

Preoccupation with imagined physical defects

c)

Repetitive washing to remove contamination fears

d)

Persistent difficulty discarding possessions regardless of value

38.

Which outcome is commonly observed in severe hoarding disorder cases?

a)

Living spaces become unusable due to clutter

b)

Compulsions are carried out for pleasure

c)

Only valuable items are saved and organized

d)

Symptoms resolve quickly without treatment

39.

A person spends hours each day washing hands and knows the fear is irrational but cannot stop. Which concept best applies?

a)

Compulsions directly fix the feared source

b)

Obsessions are enjoyable and self-rewarding

c)

Compulsions reduce distress from obsessions

d)

Obsessions are always brief and intentional

40.

Which misconception about OCD language is highlighted by the material?

a)

Casual use of the word obsession can be insensitive

b)

Checking behaviors are performed for pleasure

c)

OCD is a temporary habit that everyone has

d)

Intense activity is always a compulsion

41.

Which scenario best differentiates OCD from everyday repetitive behavior?

a)

Rituals that are unrealistic solutions to feared events

b)

Occasional pacing when feeling nervous at school

c)

Setting utensils neatly during a formal dinner

d)

Cleaning hands before a meal with family

42.

Which set correctly pairs disorder with a hallmark feature?

a)

OCD—mirror comparisons; BDD—door checking; Hoarding—organized minimalism

b)

OCD—pleasurable rituals; BDD—lock checking; Hoarding—valuables collecting

c)

OCD—appearance concerns; BDD—germ fears; Hoarding—ritual hand washing

d)

OCD—compulsions like checking; BDD—appearance preoccupation; Hoarding—difficulty discarding

43.

Which neurotransmitters are most implicated in OCD according to genetic studies?

a)

Serotonin, dopamine, glutamate

b)

GABA, norepinephrine, acetylcholine

c)

Oxytocin, vasopressin, endorphins

d)

Histamine, melatonin, epinephrine

44.

Why do researchers caution against inferring causation from brain imaging findings in OCD?

a)

Correlational relationships cannot prove causation

b)

Only animal brains can be imaged reliably

c)

Imaging lacks any spatial resolution

d)

Imaging always misidentifies active regions

45.

Which brain region becomes hyperactive during symptom provocation in many people with OCD?

a)

Amygdala within the limbic system

b)

Orbitofrontal cortex in the frontal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe visual cortex

d)

Hippocampus memory circuits

46.

In classical conditioning models of OCD, what initially becomes associated with anxiety?

a)

Neutral stimulus paired with aversive event

b)

Unconditioned response paired with reward

c)

Extinction paired with spontaneous recovery

d)

Reinforcer paired with operant behavior

47.

Which best illustrates negative reinforcement in OCD rituals?

a)

Ritual produces external punishment

b)

Ritual increases anxiety over time

c)

Ritual adds pleasant sensory rewards

d)

Ritual removes discomfort from anxiety

48.

From a learning perspective, why might compulsions persist despite being maladaptive?

a)

They are extinguished by nonuse

b)

They lack any consequences at all

c)

They are negatively reinforced repeatedly

d)

They are punished by authority figures

49.

Which treatment principle aligns with breaking negative reinforcement cycles in OCD?

a)

Nutritional supplementation alone

b)

Exposure with response prevention

c)

Deep brain stimulation surgery

d)

Psychoanalytic dream analysis

50.

Which description best defines posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

a)

A disorder following exposure to extreme trauma

b)

A mood disorder without external triggering events

c)

A psychotic disorder marked by hallucinations only

d)

A personality disorder caused by long-term habits

51.

Which event type meets the traumatic event criterion for PTSD diagnosis?

a)

Actual or threatened death or serious injury

b)

Routine workplace stress without danger

c)

Minor life changes without physical threat

d)

Financial loss without physical harm

52.

Which set lists core symptom clusters of PTSD?

a)

Somatic pain, fatigue, appetite change

b)

Mania, grandiosity, pressured speech, flight

c)

Hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thought

d)

Intrusion, avoidance, negative mood, arousal

53.

Which is an example of an intrusion symptom in PTSD?

a)

General sadness after daily hassles

b)

Occasional daydreaming about vacations

c)

Persistent fear of future exams

d)

Distressing flashbacks of the traumatic event

54.

Which example fits the arousal/reactivity symptom cluster?

a)

Exaggerated startle response and irritability

b)

Calm mood and improved concentration

c)

Elation and increased goal-directed activity

d)

Detached amusement in social situations

55.

Which experiences are commonly recognized as traumatic exposures associated with PTSD?

a)

Routine illnesses, dietary changes, exams

b)

Online criticism, minor conflicts, boredom

c)

Public speaking, long commutes, deadlines

d)

Combat, sexual assault, terrorist attacks

56.

Which factor increases PTSD risk through cumulative life stress after trauma?

a)

Participation in leisure clubs weekly

b)

Lack of immediate social support

c)

High-quality mentoring programs

d)

Balanced diet and regular stretching

57.

Which finding best captures social support’s impact on PTSD outcomes after trauma?

a)

Social support has no measurable relation to mental health

b)

Social support increases symptoms by encouraging rumination

c)

Social support always prevents trauma from occurring

d)

Greater social support reduces risk and aids remission

58.

Which statement best illustrates classical conditioning in PTSD after a plane crash?

a)

Fear when hearing any loud music

b)

Extreme fear when seeing or hearing airplanes

c)

Relief when watching aviation documentaries

d)

Calmness when visiting crowded airports

59.

In PTSD, what term describes stimuli like the sight of an airplane that trigger distress?

a)

Operant reinforcer

b)

Unconditioned stimulus

c)

Neutral baseline cue

d)

Conditioned stimulus

60.

According to cognitive models, why might some trauma memories be fragmented?

a)

They were enhanced by social support

b)

They were recorded with photographic detail

c)

They were poorly encoded during the event

d)

They are over-rehearsed and elaborate

61.

Which example shows intrusive fragments due to memory disturbances?

a)

Forgetting all details permanently

b)

Remembering only the attacker’s repeated insult

c)

Recalling a complete timeline calmly

d)

Writing a coherent narrative quickly

62.

Negative appraisals such as self-blame most likely lead to which consequence?

a)

Enhanced contextual understanding

b)

Reduced vigilance and avoidance

c)

Dysfunctional behavioral strategies

d)

Immediate symptom remission

63.

Avoiding social places after trauma primarily maintains PTSD by preventing what?

a)

Access to professional diagnosis

b)

Exposure to positive distractions

c)

Formation of new supportive relationships

d)

Change in problematic appraisals and memory

64.

Which integrated explanation best connects conditioning and cognition in PTSD?

a)

Conditioned cues trigger fear, fragmented memories give them meaning

b)

Operant rewards create calm, detailed memories reduce triggers

c)

Neutral cues erase fear, complete memories cause avoidance

d)

Classical extinction strengthens fear, coherent recall removes anxiety

65.

Which statement best distinguishes normal mood fluctuations from mood disorders?

a)

Normal moods never include sadness, mood disorders do

b)

Normal moods shift with events, mood disorders are extreme

c)

Normal moods cause impairment, mood disorders rarely do

d)

Normal moods are stable daily, mood disorders never change

66.

Which category includes conditions where depression is the defining feature?

a)

Somatic symptom group

b)

Depressive disorders group

c)

Anxiety disorders group

d)

Personality disorders group

67.

Which category features mania as the defining feature?

a)

Trauma and stressor disorders

b)

Neurodevelopmental disorders

c)

Depressive disorders only

d)

Bipolar and related disorders

68.

What best characterizes mania?

a)

Extreme elation and agitation

b)

Persistent worry without cause

c)

Chronic mild sadness

d)

Low energy and slow speech

69.

Which symptom pattern is required for major depressive disorder by DSM-5?

a)

Occasional irritability with good sleep

b)

Elation alternating weekly with calm

c)

Short sadness after stressful events

d)

Depressed mood most days, nearly every day

70.

Which example illustrates loss of interest associated with major depressive disorder?

a)

A tennis player stops playing entirely

b)

A student studies longer for exams

c)

A runner adds extra weekly miles

d)

A chef experiments with new recipes

71.

Which set lists common experiences in depression?

a)

Feeling empty, hopeless, tearful

b)

Constant euphoria, risk-taking, giddy

c)

Hallucinations, delusions, disorganized

d)

Persistent anger, physical aggression

72.

How do mood disorders affect functioning compared to everyday moods?

a)

They improve focus and decision-making

b)

They eliminate sadness during stress

c)

They mildly shift feelings without impact

d)

They impair function with distorted outlook

73.

Which scenario most suggests mania rather than depression?

a)

Feeling worthless, crying daily, hopeless outlook

b)

Sleeping more, low energy, reduced appetite

c)

Avoiding hobbies, withdrawing from social events

d)

Staying up all night, rapid speech, reckless shopping

74.

Which distinction aligns with DSM-5 mood disorder categories?

a)

Personality disorders vs. psychotic disorders

b)

Anxiety disorders vs. somatic symptom disorders

c)

Depressive disorders vs. bipolar and related disorders

d)

Substance disorders vs. neurocognitive disorders

75.

Which observation by friends may indicate major depressive disorder?

a)

Temporary dislike of one social event

b)

Complete abandonment of previously enjoyed activities

c)

Occasional boredom with routine tasks

d)

Brief pause in hobbies during travel

76.

Which factor is listed as a risk factor associated with major depressive disorder?

a)

High-income professional employment

b)

Living in rural areas exclusively

c)

Unemployment or homemaking status

d)

Being single without prior relationships

77.

Which comorbid conditions are commonly associated with major depressive disorder?

a)

Anxiety disorders and substance abuse

b)

Neurological and gastrointestinal disorders

c)

Autoimmune and metabolic syndromes

d)

Dermatologic and endocrine disorders

78.

Which description accurately defines the DSM-5 seasonal pattern specifier for depression?

a)

Symptoms occur only after major life events

b)

Symptoms occur following daily circadian changes

c)

Symptoms occur only during a particular season

d)

Symptoms occur randomly across different months

79.

Peripartum onset depression most commonly applies to which time frame?

a)

During adolescence or the first year of college

b)

During menopause or within one year afterward

c)

During pregnancy or within four weeks postpartum

d)

Six to twelve months after any surgery

80.

Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) is best described as which pattern of mood?

a)

Episodic severe depression lasting one month

b)

Intermittent mania alternating weekly with depression

c)

Chronic depressed mood for most days over two years

d)

Stable mood with rare short depressive dips

81.

Which economic factor is identified as increasing risk for major depressive disorder?

a)

Owning a home outright

b)

Receiving a mid-career promotion

c)

Earning less than $20,000 per year

d)

Earning more than $100,000 per year

82.

Strategic scenario: A new mother reports intense anxiety, guilt, and tearfulness two weeks after delivery, with no prior episodes. Which condition best fits and what is a key concern for care planning?

a)

Persistent depressive disorder; expect chronic course

b)

Peripartum depression; assess caregiving difficulties

c)

Bipolar disorder; monitor for hypomania onset

d)

Adjustment disorder; avoid discussing safety risks

83.

Which criterion is required to diagnose bipolar disorder under DSM-5?

a)

At least one manic episode in lifetime

b)

Cyclothymic mood fluctuations for years

c)

Recurrent depressive episodes only

d)

Multiple hypomanic episodes without mania

84.

During mania, which pattern illustrates "flight of ideas"?

a)

Abruptly switching topics while talking rapidly

b)

Speaking slowly with careful pauses

c)

Remaining silent to avoid errors

d)

Repeating a single phrase monotonously

85.

Which behavior during mania most increases the need for hospitalization?

a)

Talking to strangers with excessive cheerfulness

b)

Buying many unnecessary items impulsively

c)

Working extra hours without sleep for a week

d)

Reckless actions posing physical danger to self or others

86.

What defines the rapid-cycling subtype of bipolar disorder?

a)

Two depressive episodes without mania

b)

A single manic episode followed by remission

c)

Continuous mild mood changes for two years

d)

At least four mood episodes within one year