A______ identifies the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in terms of their relationship to the Air Force mission.

Under which Career Group category does Cyber Operations fall under?

What are the 4 operations career fields?

The AF uses _______________ to assign and track personnel based on their skills and knowledge. It consists of an alphanumeric code consisting of five characters describing the various jobs in the AF.

________ specifies the specific degree of experience an individual obtains within a particular AFSC.

A _____ skill level identifies an Airmen who has obtained basic knowledge within an AFSC through graduation of a technical training course.

What are the requirements of the 5 skill level or Journeyman?

Which skill level requires sewing on Staff Sergeant and completing the CDCs appropriate for their next skill level?

What are the WAPS factors used for selecting Airman for rank promotion to Staff Sergeant (E-5) and Technical Sergeant

How many points is the SKT worth?

How many points is the PFE worth?

How many points is the EPR worth?

How many points are the Military Decorations and awards worth?

_____________is provided to inexperienced employees supervised at the work site during the initial stages of employment.

_______________is an instructional course designed for use at the unit to qualify or aid qualification in a duty position, program or on a piece of equipment.

The _________________ is a comprehensive core training document identifying lifecycle training, education requirements, support resources and minimum core task requirements for an AFSC. This plan is essentially a training “road map” for the career field.

The core competencies of the 3D0X2 career field include:

This team provides boundary protection at the enterprise level. They manage firewalls, Web proxies, and boundary equipment for non-AF bases Global Command and Control System (GCCS) sites. Their responsibilities include analyzing traffic, monitoring for anomalies, identifying possible malicious activity and providing situational awareness.

This team is responsible for the managing daily operations and directions.

This team manages the AF-level Domain Name Server (DNS) naming convention, maintain name server records and provide technical support for the AF domain and subdomains

This team coordinates circuit upgrade requests, monitor bandwidth utilization and network trends, provide commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) software and develop tools providing analysis reports for all customers.

This team constantly ensures the security posture of the AF network enabling confidentiality, integrity, availability, non-repudiation and authentication. They also are responsible for the certification and accreditation of the networks.

This team assists in the designing, testing and implementing new infrastructure for the AF networks. They perform evaluations of new solutions and recommendations.

This team monitors and maintains the service delivery points and service delivery systems on all AF networks. They assist in troubleshooting and resolving issues.

This team ensures operational training and operators meet all AF and unit standards. They accomplish standardizations and evaluations; identifying deficiencies in training, processes and procedures.

This team manages systems across the networks in support of AF network operations. They provide 24/7 support on the AF networks and ensures all assets are functioning, secure and remains up-to-date. They are also responsible for developing custom software applications.

Which specific responsibility of the 3D0X2 career field maintains and implements security fixes, updates, operating system patches, and anti-virus software?

__________________ is an Information Assurance (IA) strategy in which multiple layers of defense are placed throughout an information system.

The ________________ safety guidance mandates workers are provided a safe and healthy workplace.

The Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instructions for the 3D0X2 AFSC dictate what must be accomplished in the workplace, but not necessarily how it will be accomplished or by whom.

Under the Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instructions, AF units must comply with applicable safety guidance during all operations.

Approximately of all accidents are due to human error

The following will be notified for each incident/mishap resulting in damage to Air Force property or injury to personnel: Unit’s Safety Representative and Wing Safety Office.

Maintaining proper situational awareness assists you in preparing and recognizing a threat.

a mishap is an unplanned event or series of events

Risk management was originally called operational risk management

_________stores data read by the BIOS at initial startup and provides the CPU an inventory list of all the components comprising the computer

Which type of memory is used for immediate access of data by the Central Processing Unit (CPU)? It is sub-divided into two types: Random Access and Read Only.

This type of RAM increases a computer’s performance by storing frequently used program code or data to be accessed later by the CPU. This memory is much faster than normal RAM and as a result is more expensive

_________is memory not directly accessible by the computer (ex: hard drive, optical disk, magnetic tape).

This form of memory is initially blank. The user can write data to it through special devices. Once the data is written to it however, it cannot be changed.

A/An _______________ is a signal from a device attached to a computer or from a program within the computer. It causes the operating system to stop what it is doing and to prepare for a new task.

A _______________ is a software program written to control a particular type of device attached to the computer (example: printers, displays, CD-ROM readers, diskette drives, etc.). Many are pre-built into the operating system.

The Operating System is the fundamental link between the _______________and the ___________________.

What is the process called that examines a system to identify, model, and document the different activities that transforms data, stores data, external entities that send data into the system or receive data from a system, and the routes data has taken?

_______is a sequence of events (input, processing, output, storage) involved in the data flow process

Which user interface used by the operator to interact with electronic devices through icons, menus, and other visual indicators and is manipulated by pointing devices like mouse, trackball, stylus, or finger on a touch screen?

There are two basic components of programming languages: syntax and semantics

_______________ is the way symbols, words and characters are formed within each programming language.

meaning each set of characters convey when arranged in a particular way.

__________________ programming languages are more user-friendly and offer a larger portability across various platforms. They are not limited by the computer hardware. This type of language must be executed through programs such as interpreters or compilers. Examples are C++, Java or Visual Basic.

This code is easily and readily executed by the computer without any assistance from any other program.

The 2 types of high level languages are Interpreted Programming Languages and Compiled Programming Languages

This language was developed to be used on the UNIX platform.

This language is built off of the C language

This is a general purpose, object-oriented language developed by Sun Microsystems in 1991 and can be utilized on virtual machines. This language consists of many features and is considered a program well suited to be used by the World Wide Web. It can be utilized as a stand-alone application or placed inside a Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) document.

This is Microsoft’s command line shell and scripting language.

a markup language used for creating documents for web pages. It defines the structure and layout of a Web document by using a variety of tags and attributes.

Which type of I/O port is a versatile interface used on modern computers. It can be used to connect mice, keyboards, printers, scanners, external hard drives, wireless, etc. (up to 127 devices)?

Port is used for networking on most modern computers.

______ is a type of Input/Output technology consisting of a parallel bus interface connecting many devices at the same time in a daisy chain.

SCSI chains use (a) termination to put a resistive load on the end of the wire in order to prevent signal “reflections”

REDUNDANT ARRAY OF INDEPENDENT DISKS (RAID) is a collection of disks providing fault tolerance for shared data and applications. It increases performance by “striping” and fault-tolerance by redundancy

Which type of Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is less expensive overall to implement?

_________is a specialized storage device providing for centralized fault-tolerance for large amounts of data, has fast access to files as well as data, and it has its own IP address.

Which commonly used data storage architectures that is not directly attached to servers consists of a shared pool of extremely fast storage devices supporting centralized storage management and is accessible by multiple servers?

_______________is defined as a design blueprint or framework for applications within an enterprise. This type of architecture allows a collection of services or business processes to communicate with each other in one central location. These services may include functionalities such as filling out applications, viewing online statements, or booking online reservations.

_______________ in a Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) is a function that is well defined and is self-contained. It is the endpoint of a connection. It is what you connect together using Web Services to support interoperable machine-to-machine interaction over a network.

What type of network design has a “server” used to facilitate communications and resource sharing between other computers on the network known as “clients”?

. A refers to a computer relying heavily on another system to perform its operations (the computer acts as an interface and the server is doing all the real work).

A workstation computer in a Client-Server configuration functioning independent of the server called? Many applications are installed locally on the client hard drive.

What is a personal computer that may or may not be connected to a network?

What are some advantages to implementing a Client-Server architecture?

What type of server acts as a mediator between a client and an external server filtering requests in order to improve performance as well as share previous connections with other clients on the network? Can also be used to hide the addresses of all devices on the network from the internet as well as prohibit network users from gaining access to unauthorized sites, download files, etc.

What type of server is at another location shared by multiple web site owners? It allows each owner to use and administer the system’s services as if they have complete control of the server. When using this type of server, the device may not realize there is another virtual machine running on the server.

Designed for or dedicated to run specific applications, such as word processing, spreadsheets, and desktop publishing programs, etc.

Provides multimedia capabilities to websites by assisting the user to broadcast streaming multimedia contents.

Designed to reduce configuration time by automatically assigning each computer an Internet Protocol (IP) address from a list of available addresses. It also logs and tracks Internet and network connections.

Provides a translation or resolution of domain names to Internet Protocol (IP) addresses. SW E3AQR3D032 00BB-I 4-18 In other words a computer does not understand where the human readable WWW.CNN.COM is. The DNS finds the machine readable IP address for WWW.CNN.COM.

Provides a secure file transfer between computers while ensuring file security and transfer control.

Transfers and stores mail over corporate networks through Local Area Networks (LANs), Wide Area Networks (WANs), and across the Internet.

Enables the users to remotely log on to a host computer and execute tasks

Provides static content to a web browser by loading a file from a disk and transferring it across the network to the user’s web browser. This exchange is intermediated by the browser and the server communicating using Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

A popular method for gaining remote access to Local Area Networks (LANs). In terminal services, multiple remote computers can connect to a terminal server on the LAN. The terminal server is a computer running specialized software allowing it to act as a host (a computer enabling resource sharing by other computers on the same network) and supply applications and resource sharing to remote clients.

Web applications reside on a server but are meant for use by customers and utilize web pages as a presentation layer. All interactions with the customer takes place within the browser but the data is stored and manipulated on the server

Which web application category would sociable sites like Facebook fall under?

Computer or device on the network requesting resources or services from another computer or device within the network. Clients usually take the form of personal computers also known as workstations.

Any computer or device on the network enabling resource sharing by other computers on the same network.

_____________ are devices used to connect computers or other electronic devices together for sharing of files and resources. Examples include routers, switches, hub, and bridges.

The generic term for any device connected to a network having a unique address and is capable of sending or receiving data is known as a ____________.

Powerful computer providing specific resources or services to other computers (clients).

Various channels data is transmitted and received either on or through. Transmission media may be physical (wires/cables) or wireless (radio waves/satellite).

Which type networked system is defined as having NO dedicated servers - every computer can communicate directly with every other computer and by default, no computer on this type of network has more authority than the others?

The physical interface allowing the computer to become a network node giving it the ability to participate in the passing and receiving of network data.

commonly used to connect devices within network segments to one another. It doesn’t have any intelligence (ie able to decide how to route data packets) and any data sent to it is forwarded to all nodes on the network.

learns which computer (node) is connected to what port saving the information in an internal table. This permits it to determine the proper path to flow traffic through thereby lessening the congestion to the other nodes on the network. The switch establishes the connection and then terminates it when no longer needed

provide connections for two or more network segments. It operates similar to a switch in it will learn which port a computer is connected to and internally switch traffic to the proper port.

internetworking device used to connect networks of different types (ie with different MAC methods and media). They monitor network traffic learning addresses of computers on the network as well as other routers and bridges, switches, etc.

simple add-on device for extending a network by boosting the cable’s signal (refreshing). As electrical signals are transmitted on a cable, they tend to degenerate in proportion to the length of the cable (called attenuation).

combinations of network hardware and software connecting two dissimilar networks. Specifically, they may connect two systems using different communications protocols or architectures.

Which interface protocol was developed to protect and secure our information using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)? Port 443 is used for its server services.

The protocol is utilized to transfer mail messages enabling delivery of outbound email traffic. It uses Port 25 for its server services.

Used to send and receive files via TCP/IP using Ports 20 and 21

Enables file transfers between computers but it is simpler than FTP. TFTP communicates via Port 69. It relies on UDP meaning it is connectionless and does not guarantee reliable delivery of data.

Functions as a type of tunneling mechanism providing terminal-like access to remote computers. It sets up a secure session similar to Telnet over a standard TCP/IP connection. It uses Port 22 for its server services.

Collects and manipulates valuable network information. It utilizes Port 161 for its server services.

Used to manage communications between web browsers and web servers; opening the right resources when requested. In order for a browser to display a web page, it must find the exact server having the right web page plus the exact details identifying the information requested. This information must then be sent back to the browser. Basically each URL defines the protocol used to transfer data, the name of the server and the particular web page on that server. It uses Port 80 for its server services.

The ______________ is a network segment separated from the rest of the internal networks. It is designed to act as a buffer between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN.

Takes large blocks of information from an application and breaks them into segments.

Basically a scaled-down model of TCP. It transfers information not requiring reliable delivery thereby using less network resources.

essentially the Internet layer. The other protocols found here merely exist to support it.

framework for a set of protocols for security at the network layer. It does this by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session using Port 1293.

management protocol and messaging service provider for IP. Its messages are carried as IP datagrams.

a technique for mapping a 32 bit IP address to a 48 bit MAC address. ARP finds the hardware address of a host from a known IP address. It essentially converts an IP network address to the Media Access Control (MAC) address on a specific cable segment.

_______ is a DoD network system utilized for unclassified information exchange. It is also known as “Sensitive but Unclassified IP (SBU IP) Data”.

designed to provide a network for data falling under the “secret” classification. This network is specifically designed to allow SW E3AQR3D032 00BB-I 5-59 compartmentalization based on security classification. It also supports traditional applications such as email and web traffic. It is marked or distinguished from other networks by a red “SECRET” sticker or banner

Top Secret/Sensitive Compartmented Information Data (TS/SCI IP Data). It is the Top Secret/Sensitive Compartmental Information (TS/SCI) component of the Defense Information System Network used by DoD and other federal operators. It transmits up to Top Secret classified information by using packet switching and TCP/IP technology in a secure environment.

The Cross Domain Solution (CDS) allowing a user to have an individual login session to their choice of security domain (ex. unclassified and secret) from the same workstation.

Most common solution. This type of CDS is used to move data from one security domain to another. When data is moved, it must meet the security classification of the target system

Allows user to initiate multiple simultaneous login sessions to differing security domains

Which phase of the AEF employment concept Unit Deployment Phases involves all the day-to-day activities, monitored and accomplished, to ensure combat and defense forces are ready to respond to any crisis? This phase supports the training and prepositioning of equipment within every operational level.

Which phase of the AEF employment concept Unit Deployment Phases provides force packages for rapid response to a contingency?

Which phase of the AEF employment concept Unit Deployment Phases starts off with a Warning Order?

Means to increase the level of support when the scope or duration of the conflict increases.

Involves communication equipment possessing the capacity to transmit, receive and manipulate high volumes of digital information. In the theater, unit level communication support provides minimum essential communications and wing level support to the high tempo flying operations. In essence, the smaller lower-capacity initial communication system will be augmented by larger sustainment systems with more capacity

Strategy will be imperative to ensure a coordinated withdrawal can be accomplished while maintaining theater communications integrity. Communication systems must have the capability of being rapidly reconfigured to support orderly force structure draw-downs with continuous en-route status of forces as they redeploy.

At this point, your unit will begin organizing the equipment for transport, checking everyone’s bags, reviewing procedures and ensuring all of your personal affairs are in order

The alert order tells your unit it has been selected as a part of the force mix and it will be deploying. At this point, final inspection checks are accomplished on the equipment. Quality assurance personnel will inspect the mobilized gear for any issues and personal gear is normally collected in preparation to palletize it. Personnel are usually either restricted to base or put on “three ring” telephone standby at their residence. Most of the time no information is officially known about deployment time, date or location.

your unit will be given information concerning times, dates and location relating to the deployment. This information will be passed along in the form of a Concept of Operations (CONOPS) briefing.

This order will begin the process of physically loading personnel and equipment on the aircraft, truck, train or whatever means of transportation is being used.

Initial communications teams are part of the first support units to enter a deployed location

As part of the Expeditionary Communications packages, the duties of 3D0X2 involve installation, configuration, operations, managing and maintaining network communications at that deployed location. It does not include implementing Field Change Orders or Technical Orders.

The _______________ is a state-of-the-art mobile, modular, deployable ground communications infrastructure designed to provide deployed units in hostile areas with the same type of communications tools as their home unit. It transmits and receives voice, data and video communications securely to and from wireless, satellite or hard-wired sources.

In what Communications Support Implementation Phase does the communications infrastructure on the deployment base become similar to permanent communications infrastructures as seen at fixed military bases?

In what deployment phase is defined as the transfer of forces and materiel to support another Joint Force Commander’s operational requirements or to return personnel, equipment and material to home/de-mobilization stations for reintegration or outprocessing?

In what deployment phase is your unit in if you and/or your equipment is no longer needed at the current deployed location and is either returned to home base or Forward Deployed?