WorksheetsNutrition Exam 4
Total questions: 225
Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins
Which condition is defined as dry mouth caused by reduced salivary flow?
xerostomia
halitosis
dysphagia
achalasia
With which type of swallowing impairment does a person have difficulty passing materials through the esophageal lumen into the stomach due to an obstruction in the esophagus or a motility disorder?
reflux esophagitis
esophageal dysphagia
oropharyngeal dysphagia
atrophic gastritis
Caused by a degenerative nerve condition that weakens peristalsis and impairs relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, the most common motility disorder that hinders the passage of both solids and liquids through the esophagus is ____.
dyspepsia
xerostomia
achalasia
hiatal hernia
Which condition is characterized by the frequent backward flow of the stomach's acidic contents into the esophagus?
xerostomia
achalasia
gastric output obstruction
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
Which condition associated with GERD involves damaged esophageal cells being gradually replaced by cells that resemble those in gastric or intestinal tissues, sometimes leading to esophageal cancer?
xerostomia
achalasia
Barret's esophagus
Sjogren's syndrome
General symptoms of pain or discomfort in the upper abdominal region, such as stomach pain, nausea, or bloating, are referred to as ____.
dyspepsia
dysphagia
dyspnea
gastritis
A general term that refers to inflammation of stomach tissue is ____.
reflux
dysphagia
gastritis
achlorhydria
Which condition is characterized by abnormally low gastric secretions that impair absorption of nonheme iron and vitamin B12?
achlorhydria
hypochlorhydria
acidosis
hypoxemia
What type of infection is a primary factor in peptic ulcer development?
a parasitic nematode infection by an Anisakis sp.
a viral infection by a Cytomegalovirus sp.
a bacterial infection by a Streptococcus sp.
a bacterial infection by Helicobacter pylori
Bleeding caused by peptic ulcers, which in severe cases can cause death, occurs in up to ____ percent of ulcer cases.
5
10
15
20
A total gastrectomy involves the surgical removal of ____.
the entire duodenum
part of the stomach
the entire stomach
part of the esophagus and part of the stomach
Which group of symptoms, which results from a large amount of food passing rapidly into the small intestine, is a risk of some gastric surgeries?
dumping syndrome
gastric outlet obstruction
atrophic gastritis
Sjögren's syndrome
Following a gastrectomy, supplementation of both calcium and vitamin D is often recommended to prevent ____.
dumping syndrome
atrophic gastritis
anemia
osteoporosis
With which bariatric surgical procedure does a surgeon remove 70 to 85 percent of the stomach tissue and then staple the remaining portions together to create a vertical, tube-shaped stomach with limited capacity?
gastric banding
gastric bypass
sleeve gastrectomy
total gastrectomy
The bariatric surgical procedure involving the construction of a small gastric pouch that reduces stomach capacity and thereby restricts meal size is referred to as the ____ procedure.
gastic banding
gastric bypass
sleeve gastrectomy
total gastrectomy
Dental caries are caused by ____.
increased salivary production
inflammation of the gums
a virus that causes acid erosion of tooth enamel
acids produced by bacteria that attack tooth enamel
Most cariogenic foods, those that are conducive to the development of dental caries, are those that contain ____.
proteins
carbohydrates
fats
dairy
A dental calculus is a thickened plaque deposit on the tooth surface that has become filled with ____.
Iron and magnesium
Phosphorus and magnesium
Calcium and phosphorus
Iron and calcium
Chronic inflammation caused by periodontal disease can exacerbate insulin resistance, which can ultimately lead to ____.
Type 2 Diabetes
Heart Disease
Pneumonia
Emphysema
A deficiency in this nutrient is associated with increased susceptibility to enamel demineralization and reduced protection against decay-causing bacteria.
Calcium
Protein
Fluoride
Vitamin D
A patient who suffers from xerostomia should be given which suggestion to help manage dry mouth?
Take frequent sips of coffee, tea, or soda.
Consume foods with low fluid content.
Increase the use of flavorings and salt with foods.
Chew sugarless gum to stimulate saliva.
Which food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet?
plain yogurt
oatmeal
peanut butter
cottage cheese
Which condition is most closely associated with a high rate of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
pregnancy
anorexia
hypertension
diabetes mellitus
A patient suffering from nausea and vomiting should be counseled to do which activity to help alleviate his symptoms?
Drink beverages during meals.
Avoid dry, starchy foods.
Avoid lying down for 30 minutes after meals.
Avoid greasy or spicy foods.
What condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis?
low salt intake
bile reflux
hypophosphatasia
gallstones
Which food would most likely be included as part of a post-gastrectomy diet?
hot dogs
chocolate milk
corn
beverages sweetened with artificial sweetners
Following bariatric surgery, a patient would initially be given which type of diet?
regular diet
pureed diet
clear liquid diet
soft diet
To best prevent gastric outlet syndrome following bariatric surgery, the patient would avoid which food?
ice cream
cottage cheese
tuna
asparagus
Protein deficiency would most likely have which effect on dental tissues?
decreased resistance to dental caries
increased tooth size
delayed tooth development
increased enamel mineralization
Which chronic disease has been associated with increased risks of dental problems?
diabetes mellitus
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Addison's disease
asthma
If a patient with dysphagia has difficulty swallowing solids but can easily swallow liquids:
the problem is most likely a motility disorder.
the patient may have achalasia.
the problem is probably an esophageal obstruction.
the patient most likely has oropharyngeal dysphagia.
The clinician working with a patient with dysphagia should recognize that:
the patient should eat only pureed foods to minimize the risk of aspiration.
the foods allowed are those that can be comfortably and safely chewed and swallowed.
highly seasoned foods are often restricted.
regular diets do not meet nutrient needs, so supplements are required.
Possible consequences of GERD include all of the following except:
reflux esophagitis.
dysphagia
Barrett's Esophagus
Gastric Ulcers
Treating GERD with proton-pump inhibitors is effective because they:
reduce gastric acid secretion.
reduce pressure within the stomach.
strengthen the lower esophageal sphincter.
provide a protective barrier between gastric acid and the esophageal mucosa.
For the patient with persistent vomiting, the major nutritionrelated concern(s) is/are:
dehydration and malnutrition
dyspepsia
peptic ulcers
reflux esophagitis
Chronic gastritis may increase risk of:
Dumping Syndrome
Gall Bladder Disease
Bone Disease
Iron and Vitamin B12 Deficiency
The primary cause of most peptic ulcers is:
Helicobacter pylori infection.
consumption of spicy foods.
psychological stress.
smoking cigarettes.
The main dietary recommendation for patients with gastritis or peptic ulcers is to consume foods that:
neutralize stomach acidity.
are well tolerated and do not cause discomfort.
coat the stomach lining.
promote healing of mucosal tissue.
Following a gastrectomy, patients can greatly minimize the risk of dumping syndrome by:
increasing intake of carbohydrates and avoiding fatty foods.
consuming liquids between meals and avoiding foods that supply sugars.
consuming a high-fiber diet and minimizing meat and cheese intake.
including milk products with each meal to provide protein.
After a gastric bypass operation, the patient should be monitored for all of the following conditions except:
anemia
bone disease
hiatal hernia
fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies
A diagnosis of constipation is based, in part, on a defecation frequency of fewer than ____ bowel movements per week.
7
5
4
3
Which foods are particularly helpful for promoting regular bowel movements?
High-fiber
Low-fiber
Low-fat
High-fat
Unlike many other fiber supplements, Citrucel and Fiber-Lax do not increase intestinal gas because they contain which active ingredients?
lactulose and psyllium
polycarbophil and psyllium
polycarbophil and lactulose
methylcellulose and polycarbophil
To avoid or relieve constipation, people are discouraged from skipping ____, because colonic motility is highest after eating this.
breakfast
lunch
dinner
a mid-morning snack
The sensation of swelling in the abdominal area is referred to as ____.
achalasia
bloating
flatulence
dysphagia
Which nutrient is most frequently malabsorbed since both digestive enzymes and bile must be present for its digestion?
protein
fat
fiber
iron
Excessive fat in the stool due to fat malabsorption is known as ____.
xerostemia
hypochlorhydria
hypercapnia
steatorrhea
If fat malabsorption causes calcium in the small intestine to bind to fatty acids or bile acids instead of oxalates, plant compounds found in certain vegetables and other foods, the oxalates can be absorbed into the blood and increase the risk of developing ____.
kidney stones
peptic ulcers
atrophic gastritis
lactose intolerance
At least half of chronic pancreatitis cases are caused by _____.
recurring kidney stones
excessive alcohol consumption
environmental toxins
elevated blood triglyceride
Pancreatic enzyme replacement drugs that treat chronic pancreatitis can sometimes decrease the absorption of which dietary nutrients?
Folate and Iron
Folate and Calcium
Iron and Calcium
Iron and Vitamin B12
Which immune disorder is characterized by an abnormal immune response to wheat protein and related proteins?
Celiac Disease
Cystic Fibrosis
Crohn's Disease
Ulcerative Colitis
Which substance is the water-soluble component of wheat gluten that is toxic to individuals who are sensitive to gluten?
giladin
oxalate
lactose`
glutenin
Which foods does a gluten-free diet eliminate?
only wheat
only wheat and rye
wheat, rye, and barley
wheat, barley, rye, and corn
Which condition is an inflammatory bowel disease characterized by abnormal immune responses to microbes that inhabit the GI tract and usually occurs in the lower portion of the small intestine and the colon?
Cystic Fibrosis
Ulcerative Colitis
Crohn's Disease
Celiac Disease
Abnormal passages between organs or tissues that allow the passage of fluids or secretions are referred to as ____.
fistulas
fissures
strictures
blind loops
What condition would most likely be diagnosed in a person experiencing chronic and recurring intestinal symptoms that cannot be explained by specific physical abnormalities?
short bowel syndrome
gastric outlet obstruction
irritable bowel syndrome
Ulcerative colitis
Which intestinal condition is characterized by the presence of small herniations in the intestinal wall and occurs in over half of people who are 80 years old and older?
hiatal hernai
diverticulosis
xerostemia
Crohn's disease
What is the name of the surgical procedure that creates a passage through the abdominal wall into the large intestine so dietary wastes can be eliminated?
gastrectomy
resection
ileostomy
colostomy
The medications often prescribed for irritable bowel syndrome that specifically reduce pain by relaxing GI muscles are called ____.
antidepressants
antibiotics
antidiarrheals
antisplasmotics
If a person with an ileostomy wishes to eat a food that may help reduce odors, which of the following foods may be suggested for them to try?
parsley
asparagus
cabbage
cauliflower
Most bacterial cells of the gastrointestinal tract reside in a person's ____.
colon
duodenum
jejunum
ileum
Live, nonpathogenic microorganisms that may be useful for preventing or treating various medical conditions are called ____.
prebiotics
gastrobiotics
probiotics
postbiotics
Certain nondigestible substances in food that can stimulate the growth or activity of the resident bacteria within the large intestine are referred to as ____.
gastrobiotics
synbiotics
prebiotics
probiotics
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of probiotics?
weight loss
reduced cancer risk
improved immune response
altered susceptibility to food allergies
Which is a main dietary source of probiotics?
sauerkraut
pickles
olives
fermented milk products
The action of osmotic laxatives can best be described as that of _____.
increasing stool weight
acting as an irritant to colonic tissue
attracting water and increasing liquidity of stools
stimulating peristalsis
Which type of bread, cereal, or pasta would most likely be recommended for a patient on a fat-restricted diet?
popcorn
fried rice
english muffins
granola
A patient with fat malabsorption wants to use MCT oil with food preparation. Which suggestion is most appropriate when using MCT oil?
MCT oil can be used when baking some foods
MCT oil is cost effective and often cheaper than vegetable oil.
MCT oil should only be used when frying foods.
MCT oil should replace all forms of oils and fats in the diet.
A patient with cystic fibrosis would most likely benefit from which type of diet?
low-sodium
low-fat
high-kcalorie, high-protein
pureed
A gluten-free food choice that would be most appropriate for a patient with celiac disease would be _____.
eggs
oatmeal
scalloped potatoes
flour tortillas
A patient with Crohn's disease who is suffering from malabsorption would most likely benefit from which nutrition intervention?
a low-fat diet
fluid and electrolyte replacement
tube feedings
nutrient supplements
Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome are most likely associated with disturbed defecation, bloating, and _____.
rectal bleeding
abdominal pain
rectal fissures
esophageal paralysis
Prebiotics include some of the carbohydrates found in which foods?
shellfish and tuna
ice cream and milk
oranges and lemons
leeks and onions
Much of the research investigating probiotics and intestinal illness has focused on the prevention and treatment of _____.
IBS
Crohn's Disease
Diverticulitis
Infectious Diarrhea
The health practitioner advising an elderly patient with constipation encourages the patient to:
consume a low-fat diet low in sodium.
consume a high-protein diet rich in calcium.
eliminate gas-forming foods from the diet.
gradually add high-fiber foods to the diet.
Osmotic diarrhea often results from:
excessive colonic contractions.
excessive fluid secretion by the intestines
nutrient malabsorption.
viral, bacterial, or protozoal infections.
Nutrition problems that may result from fat malabsorption include all of the following except:
weight loss.
essential amino acid deficiencies.
bone loss
oxalate kidney stones
Common nutrition problems associated with bacterial overgrowth in the stomach and small intestine include:
sensitivity to gluten
fat malabsorption and vitamin deficiency.
constipation
permanent loss of digestive enzymes
Chronic pancreatitis and cystic fibrosis are both treated with:
intestinal resection
postural drainage
enzyme replacement therapy
stool softeners
Despite the intestine’s capacity for adaptation, removal of which section of the intestine will likely result in fat malabsorption and multiple nutrient deficiencies?
duodenum
jejunum
ileum
colon
Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome most often include:
nausea and vomiting
weight loss and malnutrition
strong odors and obstructions
constipation and diarrhea/abdominal pain
Diverticulosis is most often associated with:
aging
inadequate exercise
intestinal surgery
high-fiber diet
After an ileostomy, the most serious concern is that:
the diet is too restrictive to meet nutrient needs.
waste disposal causes frequent daily interruptions.
fluid restrictions prevent patients from drinking beverages freely
incompletely digested foods may cause obstructions.
Liver inflammation associated with fatty liver is referred to as ____.
xerostemia
achalasia
steatohepatitis
hepatomegaly
Which type of hepatitis has infected one-third of the world population and is caused by a viral infection transmitted by infected blood or needles, by sexual contact with an infected person, or from mother to infant during childbirth?
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
The hepatitis A virus is primarily spread through ____.
sexual contact
blood transfusions
fecal-oral transmission
injection drug use
Hepatitis can sometimes cause a yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes due to an accumulation of bilirubin, a condition called ____.
cirrhosis
varices
acidosis
jaundice
Consequences of fatty liver disease include all of the following except:
steatohepatitis
hepatomegaly
fatigue
hepatitis A
Which condition is defined as an advanced stage of liver disease in which extensive scarring replaces healthy liver tissue, causing impaired liver function and liver failure?
Cirrhosis
steatohepatitis
hepatomegaly
hepatitis C
The blood vessel that conducts nutrient-rich blood from the digestive tract to the liver is called the ____.
hepatic artery
hepatic portal vein
collateral vessel
inferior vena cava
Advanced liver disease often leads to hepatic encephalopathy, a disorder that primarily affects the functions of which organ(s)?
lungs
heart
brain
eyes
Advanced liver disease often leads to an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, the condition known as ____.
ascites
hepatomegaly
varices
hypercapnia
Accounting for about 50 percent of liver transplant cases, the most common illnesses that precede liver transplantation are ____.
hepatitis A, B, and C
Hepatitis B and alcoholic liver disease
Hepatitis C and alcoholic liver disease
Hepatitis C and nonalcoholic fatty liver disease
Where in the body does most alcohol metabolism take place?
liver
pancreas
stomach
small intestine
An average adult can metabolize the amount of alcohol contained in one drink in approximately ____.
10 mins
30 mins
1 hour
2 hours
The main product of alcohol metabolism, which can be used as a source of energy by most tissues, is ____.
glutamate
aspartate
ethanol
acetate
Persons who abuse alcohol are often deficient in numerous nutrients, including ____, which plays a central role in cell division and influences the absorption of other nutrients.
Biotin
Folate
Iron
Calcium
Light to moderate alcohol intake may reduce the risk of developing which chronic disease?
hepatitis C
fatty liver
ulcerative colitis
artherosclerosis
In cases unrelated to alcohol, the primary risk factor for fatty liver disease is _____.
hepatitis A
hypertension
liver cancer
insulin resistance
Which individuals would most likely benefit from hepatitis A vaccination?
newborns, infants, or children
healthcare employees
international travelers
HIV-positive individuals
Ninety percent of _____ with hepatitis B infection in the United States will develop chronic disease.
older adults
newborn infants
pregnant women
adolescents
Most individuals with hepatitis infection require what form of nutrition therapy?
fluid and electrolyte replacement
high protein, high fat diet
typically, no diet changes
a low sodium diet
The chief causes of cirrhosis in the United States are alcoholic liver disease and _____.
liver cancer
chronic hepatitis C infection
type 2 diabetes
obesity
The most common illnesses that precede liver transplantation are chronic hepatitis C infection and _____.
hepatitis A infection
alcoholic liver disease
esophageal varices
hepatic encephalopathy
Which metabolic effect is most closely associated with immunosuppressant drugs administered following liver transplantation?
hypoglycemia
hyperlipidemia
elevated uric acid
hypothyroidism
One of the more common causes of death following liver transplant is which condition?
stroke
aortic aneurysm
infection
myocardial infarction
According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, women should limit their intake of alcohol to how many drinks per day?
none
1
2
3
According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, women should limit their intake of alcohol to how many drinks per day?
bronchiectasis
glaucoma
epilepsy
type 2 diabetes
Which of the following statements about hepatitis is true?
Chronic hepatitis can progress to cirrhosis.
Whatever the cause of hepatitis, symptoms are typically severe.
Vaccines are available to protect against hepatitis A, B, and C viruses.
HCV infection can be spread through contaminated foods and water.
Which blood test values often indicate the presence of liver disease?
increased albumin levels
increased liver enzyme levels
decreased bilirubin levels
decreased alkaline phosphatase levels
Esophageal varices are a dangerous complication of liver disease primarily because they:
interfere w/ food intake
divert blood flow from the GI tract
can lead to massive bleeding
contribute to hepatic encephalopathy
A complication of cirrhosis that contributes to the development of ascites is:
portal hypertension
insulin resistance
elevated serum albumin levels
bile obstruction
Lactulose, a nonabsorbable disaccharide, is generally prescribed to patients who develop which complication of cirrhosis?
Portal Hypertension
Hepatic encephalopathy
Ascites
Bile Insufficiency
With respect to protein intake, patients with hepatic encephalopathy should:
consume a high protein diet
restrict protein intake
spread protein intake throughout the day
use formulas enriched w/ amino acids
People with ascites must often restrict dietary intake of:
fat
protein
sugars
sodium
Dietary concerns after a liver transplant include all of the following except:
Severe protein restrictions that are difficult to adhere to
increased risk of foodborne illness.
gastrointestinal side effects of medications.
altered appetite and taste perception from medications.
nsulin regulates glucose metabolism and is produced in which glandular organ?
pancreas
thyroid
liver
kidney
The actions of insulin are countered mainly by which hormone?
glucose
glucagon
glucosamine
glycogen
If blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold, the kidneys begin to pass glucose into the urine, resulting in ____.
gangrene
glycosuria
albuminuria
claduication
Which symptom of diabetes is defined as excessive thirst?
polyphagia
ketonuria
ketosis
polydipsia
Type 1 diabetes is defined as ____.
insulin resistance coupled with insufficient insulin secretion
plasma glucose levels that are 100–125 mg/dL when fasting
absolute insulin deficiency
abnormally high levels of insulin in the blood
Individuals with which type of diabetes always require insulin therapy for survival?
type 1 diabetes
type 2 diabetes
gestational diabetes
adult-onset diabetes
Conventional therapy for type 1 diabetes involves blood glucose monitoring ____, as well as ____ insulin injection(s).
at least three times daily; three or more daily
at least three times daily; one or two daily
once weekly; one weekly
once daily; three or more daily
once daily; one or two daily
What is one advantage of using intensive therapy as compared to conventional therapy for type 1 diabetes?
Intensive therapy allows for less blood glucose monitoring and fewer insulin injections than conventional therapy does.
Intensive therapy does not require daily dosage adjustments of blood glucose like conventional therapy does.
Intensive therapy delays the progression of neuropathy, nephropathy, and retinopathy more than conventional therapy does.
Intensive therapy is associated with less weight gain than conventional therapy.
Diabetes treatment is predominantly evaluated by monitoring ____.
insulin status
glycemic status
blood pressure
heart rate
Health care providers periodically evaluate long-term glycemic control by specifically measuring ____ levels.
albumin
hematocrit
glycated hemoglobin
C-reactive protein
When maternal hyperglycemia induces excessive insulin production in the fetus, which stimulates growth and fat deposition in the fetus and results in an abnormally high birth weight, the condition is referred to as ____.
polydipsia
ketoacidosis
macrosomia
acromegaly
To ensure that appropriate treatment is offered, physicians routinely test pregnant women for gestational diabetes between ____ weeks of gestation.
12 & 16
16 & 20
20 & 24
24 & 28
Which disorder is present in a patient if a laboratory test reveals the value of very low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) in their blood is greater than 150 mg/dL?
hypertriglyceridemia
hyperglycemia
hypertension
elevated HDL cholesterol
Obesity is associated with the reduced secretion of which hormone that is produced by fat cells and improves insulin sensitivity and glucose tolerance?
resistin
adiponectin
fibrinogen
plasminogen
The enlarged adipose cells of obese individuals activate local immune cells that secrete signaling proteins, called ____, inducing inflammation and leading to multiple metabolic changes that reduce insulin responsiveness.
fibrinogens
triglycerides
cytokines
steroids
A lowering of blood pH that results from the excessive production of ketone bodies is known as _____.
glycosuria
ketonuria
ketoacidosis
hyperglycemia
Which criterion would be used to diagnose diabetes?
a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load of 400 mg/dL or higher
a HbA1C higher than 5 percent
Which feature is more likely associated with type 1 diabetes than with type 2 diabetes?
onset at age over 40 years
prevalent in up to 95 percent of cases of diabetes
does not require insulin therapy
caused by destruction of the pancreatic beta cells
Which of the following best describes prevention measures for type 2 diabetes?
blood pressure control
weight management
increased sleep
decreased protein intake
Which before-meal glucose level is an example of appropriate glycemic control for an adult with diabetes?
55- 80 mg/dL
80-130 mg/dL
135-150 mg/dL
160-190 mg/dL
Which best describes an appropriate recommendation for sugar consumption for adults with diabetes?
Minimize food and beverages that contain added sugars.
Avoid all forms of sugar completely
Avoid using artificial sweetners
include table sugar but avoid fruit sugar
Which of the following is an example of a 15 g serving of carbohydrate?
1 cup of yogurt
1 slice of bread
1 cup of cooked pasta
1 large peach
Which outcome is most commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes during pregnancy?
infant hyperglycemia
miscarriage
microsomia
hypercalcemia
Which risk factor is most closely associated with development of gestational diabetes?
Caucasian ethnicity
Previous history of anorexia
Family history of Diabetes
Previous birth of twins
Which value is most likely associated with metabolic syndrome?
waist circumference over 35 inches in women
fasting plasma glucose over 60 mg/dL
HDL levels less than 90 mg/dL
VLDL levels over 80 mg/dL
Which of the following is true about type 2 diabetes?
It is usually an autoimmune disease.
The pancreas makes little or no insulin.
Diabetic ketoacidosis is a common complication.
Chronic complications may develop before it is diagnosed.
Most chronic complications associated with diabetes result from:
altered kidney fxn
infections that deplete nutrients
weight gain and hypertension
damage to blood vessels and nerves
Regarding dietary carbohydrate, a patient with diabetes should be most concerned about:
consuming an appropriate quantity of carbohydrate at each meal or snack.
consuming the correct proportion of sugars, starches, and fiber in meals.
avoiding added sugars and kcaloric sweeteners.
choosing meals with ideal proportions of protein, carbohydrate, and fat.
Which of the following is true regarding the general use of alcohol in diabetes?
A serving of alcohol is considered part of the carbohydrate allowance.
Alcohol contributes to hyperglycemia and should be avoided completely.
Alcohol can cause hypoglycemia and should therefore be consumed with food if patients use insulin or medications that stimulate insulin secretion.
Patients can use alcohol in unlimited quantities unless they are pregnant.
The most effective meal-planning strategy for managing diabetes is:
carbohydrate counting.
an eating plan based on food lists created for persons with diabetes.
following menus and recipes provided by a registered dietitian.
the approach that best helps the patient control blood glucose levels.
A patient using intensive insulin therapy is likely to follow a regimen that involves:
twice-daily injections that combine short-, intermediate-, and long-acting insulin in each injection.
a mixture of intermediate- and long-acting insulin injected between meals.
multiple daily injections that supply basal insulin and precise insulin doses at each meal and snack
the use of both insulin and oral antidiabetic agents.
In a person who has previously maintained good glycemic control, hyperglycemia can be precipitated by:
infections or illness.
chronic alcohol ingestion
undertreatment of hypoglycemia
prolonged exercise.
Which dietary adjustment may be helpful for women with gestational diabetes?
Consuming most of the day’s carbohydrate allotment in the morning.
Restricting carbohydrate to about 30 grams at breakfast.
Avoiding food intake after dinner.
Reducing energy intake to about 50 percent of the calculated requirement.
Atherosclerosis is a disease characterized by the ____.
inadequate blood supply to the heart muscle that results in discomfort in the chest region
sudden death of brain cells due to impaired blood flow to the brain
formation or presence of a blood clot in blood vessels
buildup of lipids and fibrous scar tissue on the inner walls of arteries
A heart attack is defined as death of the heart muscle caused by a sudden obstruction in blood flow to heart and is technically referred to as ____.
myocardial infarction
peripheral artery disease
coronary thrombosis
angina pectoris
Of the blood lipids listed below, which one helps remove cholesterol from the bloodstream by transporting it to the liver for reuse or disposal?
low-density lipoproteins
high-density lipoproteins
very low-density lipoproteins
blood triglycerides
Which condition is defined as the obstruction of a blood vessel by an abnormal particle, such as a blood clot or air bubble, that travels in the blood and causes sudden tissue death?
thrombosis
aneurysm
embolism
sheer stress
Which of the following accounts for most deaths from cardiovascular disease?
Coronary Heart Disease
Stroke
Heart Failure
High Blood Pressure
Which condition, caused by inadequate blood supply in the heart muscle, results in discomfort or dull pain in the chest region that often radiates to the left shoulder, arms, neck, back, or jaw?
cardiac cachexia
intermittent claudication
angina pectoris
pulmonary edema
Which risk factor for coronary heart disease is a major nonmodifiable variable?
alcohol overconsumption
abdominal obesity
family history
physical activity
What is the desirable level of total blood cholesterol (mg/dL) for an adult?
200-239
40-59
<100
<200
An adult woman may be classified as having borderline risk for coronary heart disease if a blood lipid profile indicates that her LDL cholesterol is ____mg/dL and her HDL cholesterol is ____mg/dL.
200–239; 40–49.
130–159; 50–59
150–199; <40
200–499; <60
Once a person's level of risk has been identified, most of the treatment focuses on ____ because these levels are directly related to the development of atherosclerosis.
lowering levels of LDL cholesterol
lowering levels of HDL cholesterol
increasing levels of LDL
increasing levels of VLDL
The large majority of strokes are caused by the obstruction of blood flow to the brain, referred to as ____.
cardiac arrhythmias
transient ischemic attacks
hemorrhagic strokes
ischemic strokes
Short-lived strokes that occur suddenly and are usually indicative that a more severe stroke may follow are called ____.
hemorrhagic strokes
ischemic strokes
transient ischemic attacks
Peripheral resistance, the resistance the blood encounters in the arterioles, increases mostly due to ____.
increased heart rate or increased arteriole diameters
increased heart rate or increased volume of blood pumped from the heart
decreased arteriole diameters or blood becoming thicker
increased arteriole diameters or blood becoming thinner
Severe malnutrition that develops in heart failure patients, characterized by weight loss and tissue wasting, is known as ____.
myocardial infarction
cardiac cachexia
intermittent claudication
coronary thrombosis
The left side of the heart normally receives blood from the lungs, so a weakened left heart may allow fluid to build up in the lungs, a condition called ____.
Myocardial infarction
intermittent claudication
Pulmonary edema
Coronary Thrombosis
In what way would a speech pathologist most likely provide help in determining a treatment plan for an individual who has a feeding disability?
by assessing the individual's abilities to grasp and use utensils
by evaluating the individual's chewing and swallowing abilities
by measuring the individual's gastrointestinal functions noninvasively
by calculating an individual's dietary needs
Providing utensils that have modified handles, such as flatware with built-up handles, is one measure used to assist people with which type of feeding disability?
inability to suck
inability to chew
inability to swallow
inability to grasp
Which feeding measure is most useful for assisting a person with impaired vision?
correct posture and head position
supply foods of different textures
place foods in similar locations
provide liquids
Which factor has been shown to increase the risk of development of atherosclerosis?
menopause
age greater than 35
increased levels of arachidonic acid
elevated HDL cholesterol
What laboratory value would be considered a high-risk measure for coronary heart disease assessment?
triglycerides >150 mg/dL.
BMI >31
LDL cholesterol <128 mg/dL
blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg
What food is most likely a source of trans fats in the diet?
red meat
peanut oil
corn chips
salmon
What type of drug would most likely be given to a patient following a myocardial infarction?
antiemetic
anticoagulant
anticonvulsant
antibiotic
Which symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?
confusion and difficulty speaking
headache and blurred vision
chest pain and pressure
claudication and peripheral edema
What systolic blood pressure measurement would be classified as prehypertension?
106 mmHg
119 mmHg
130 mmHg
148 mmHg
Mrs. Harris suffers from hypertension and routinely has blood pressure levels greater than 150/90 mmHg. What lifestyle recommendation would be most appropriate to give to Mrs. Harris?
Reduce body weight to maintain BMI <30
Adopt a diet that emphasizes protein intake through red meat.
Limit alcohol consumption to two drinks per day.
Engage in moderate physical activity four days per week.
Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for a patient with heart failure?
fluid volume excess
risk for infection
impaired body temp
ineffective airway clearance
Ischemia in the coronary arteries is a frequent cause of:
angina pectoris
hemorrhagic stroke
aneurysm
hypertension
Risk factors for atherosclerosis include all of the following except:
smoking
hypertension
diabetes mellitus
elevated HDL cholesterol
Dietary lipids with the strongest LDL cholesterol-raising effects are:
saturated fats
polysaturated fats
monounsaturated fats
plant sterols
Moderate alcohol consumption can improve heart disease risk, in part, because it:
lowers blood pressure
increases HDL cholesterol
offsets smoking damage
improves nutrition
Patients with mild hypertriglyceridemia may improve their triglyceride levels by:
reducing sodium intake
reducing cholesterol intake
consuming moderate alcohol
limiting intakes of refined carbohydrates
Which medications reduce cholesterol synthesis in the liver?
Bile acid sequestrants
Statins
ACE inhibitors
Fibrates
Hemorrhagic Stroke:
most common type of stroke
results from obstructed blood flow in brain tissue
comes on suddenly and lasts 30 mins
results from bleeding within the brain and damages brain tissue
Hypertensive patients can benefit from all of the following dietary and lifestyle modifications except:
reducing total fat intake
reducing sodium intake
including fat-free or low-fat milk products in the diet.
consuming generous amounts of fruit, vegetables, legumes, and nuts.
Nutrition therapy for a patient with heart failure often includes:
weight loss
reducing total fat
sodium restriction
cholesterol restriction
Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome caused by significant loss of ____.
erythropoietin as a result of severe damage to the glomerulus
urea as a result of severe damage to the Bowman's capsule
urinary protein as a result of severe damage to the Bowman's capsule
urinary protein as a result of severe damage to the glomerulus
When acute kidney injury causes an abnormally low amount of urine production, often less than 400 mL/day, the condition is called ____.
uremia
diuresis
azotemia
oliguria
Factors that cause a severe reduction in blood flow to the kidneys, such as heart failure, shock, or substantial blood loss, are classified as ____ factors.
prerenal
intrarenal
extrarenal
interrenal
Reduced urine production resulting from acute kidney injury can elevate ____ levels in the blood, the condition referred to as hyperkalemia, which can alter heart rhythm and result in heart failure.
phosphate
potassium
magnesium
calcium
What are the most common causes of chronic kidney disease?
alcohol abuse and cirrhosis
diabetes mellitus and hypertension
atrophic gastritis and cirrhosis
alcohol abuse and hypertension
Which laboratory measure is considered the best index of overall kidney function?
blood serum electrolyte levels
glomerular filtration rate
degree of albuminuria
ratio of albumin to creatinine in urine
In chronic kidney disease, the increased secretion of parathyroid hormone helps to prevent elevations in serum phosphate, but contributes to ____, a bone disorder common in renal patients.
osteomyelitis
rickets
muscular dystrophy
renal osteodystrophy
Which treatment measure for chronic kidney disease replaces the functions of the kidney by removing excess fluid and wastes from the blood?
gastrostomy
insulin pumps
dialysis
blind loops
Most kidney stones are made up primarily of ____.
calcium oxalate
calcium phosphate
uric acid
amino acid cystine
Which abnormality is characterized by elevated urinary oxalate levels?
hypochlorhydria
hypoxemia
hypercapnia
hyperoxaluria
Which type of kidney stones is composed primarily of magnesium ammonium phosphate and form in alkaline urine?
cystine
struvite
uric acid
calcium oxalate
In peritoneal dialysis, the dialysate is infused into a catheter that empties into the peritoneal space, which is the space within the ____.
stomach
kidneys
blood vessles
abdomen near the intestines
A condition caused by significant urinary protein losses (more than 3 to 3½ grams daily) as a result of severe glomerular damage is called _____.
hyperkalemia
nephrotic syndrome
hypoalbuminemia
uremia
Which food is appropriate for a person on a low-sodium diet?
olives
biscuits
cottage cheese
yogurt
Which condition is an example of an intrarenal cause of acute kidney injury?
kidney stones
shock
anti-hypertensive medications
heart failure
Elevated _____ levels are of particular concern with acute kidney injury because imbalances can alter heart rhythm and lead to heart failure.q
sodium
magnesium
chloride
potassium
Which food is an example of a source of high potassium per serving?
beets
cauliflower
green pepper
eggplants
Prednisone, a corticosteroid used following a kidney transplant, works to _____.
reduce inflammation
reduce blood clots
reduce blood lipids
alleviate edema
Foods high in purines, such as _____, should be avoided by patients with gout.
roast beef
bananas
white rice
cucumbers
Which nutrition recommendation should be given to a patient suffering from calcium oxalate kidney stones?
Increase intake of fruits such as grapefruit, oranges, and pineapple.
Limit sodium intake to no more than 2300 mg per day.
Decrease intake of calcium-rich foods.
Increase intake of foods that contain vitamin C.
Which of the following is not a function of the kidneys?
activation of vitamin k
Maintenance of acid–base balance
Elimination of metabolic waste products
Maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balances
The nephrotic syndrome frequently results in:
the uremic syndrome
oliguria
edema
renal colic
What is a common treatment for hyperkalemia?
Eliminating potassium from the diet
Using potassium-wasting diuretics to increase potassium losses
Increasing fluid intake to maintain a high urine volume
Using potassium-exchange resins, which bind potassium in the GI tract
If a patient with acute kidney injury should require a high protein intake, which additional treatment may be necessary?
frequent dialysis
diuretics
enteral nutrition support
fluid restriction
A person with chronic kidney disease who has been following a renal diet for several years begins hemodialysis treatment. An appropriate dietary adjustment would be to:
reduce protein intake
consume protein more liberally
increase intakes of sodium and water
consume potassium and phosphorus more freely
Treatment for all kidney stones includes:
dietary oxalate restriction.
dietary protein restriction
vitamin C supplementation
a fluid intake that produces at least 2 liters of urine daily.
Cancers are diseases characterized by ____.
an altered immune system due to a virus in body fluids
uncontrolled growth of a group of abnormal cells
weakness and loss of muscle mass due to abnormal muscle proteins
a whole-body inflammatory response to an infection
Which type of cancers arises from epithelial tissue?
myelomas
sarcomas
leukemia
carcinomas
Which type of cancers arises from plasma cells in the bone marrow?
myelomas
sarcomas
leukemias
carcinomas
When a tumor is cancerous, it is referred to as being ____.
carcinogenic
benign
malignant
matastatic
Asbestos is an environmental factor that increases the risk of developing which type of cancer?
kidney
liver
skin
lung
Lymphocytes that have a specific protein called CD4 on their surfaces and are the cells most affected in HIV infection are referred to as ____.
malignant cells
tumor cells
B cells
helper T cells
Without treatment, AIDS develops in most HIV-infected persons within ____ years, although it can progress more quickly in some individuals.
3-5
7-10
12-15
15-20
Which oral infection, commonly associated with HIV infection, is caused by a fungal infection on the mucous membranes of the oral cavity and often contributes to poor food intake?
candidiasis
herpes simplex virus
Kaposi's sarcoma
lipodystrophy
The agreement of a mentally competent patient to undergo a treatment that has been adequately disclosed is considered ____.
informed consent
living will
durable power of attorney
distributive justice
Low levels of physical activity are most commonly associated with which type of cancer?
Esophageal
Pancreatic
Lung
Colon
A patient with stomach cancer has been encouraged to increase his kcalorie intake to avoid weight loss and wasting. Which suggestion is most appropriate to increase kcalorie intake?
Replace whole fat milk with skim milk or water
Avoid peanut butter and other nuts.
Avoid caffeine in the morning or the late evening.
Choose high-fat meat instead of lean meat.
AIDS enteropathy is most commonly manifested as _____.
abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
diarrhea and weight loss
abdominal bloating and flatulence
rectal fissures and constipation
Which of these dietary substances may help to protect against cancer?
alcohol
well-cooked meat
animal fat
fruits and veggies
The metabolic changes that often accompany cancer include all of the following except:
increased muscle protein synthesis
increased protein turnover.
increased triglyceride breakdown.
insulin resistance.
Although many cancer patients lose weight, which type of cancer is often associated with weight gain?
kidney
colon
breast
lung
