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Nutrition Exam 4

Total questions: 225

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which condition is defined as dry mouth caused by reduced salivary flow?

a)

xerostomia

b)

halitosis

c)

dysphagia

d)

achalasia

2.

With which type of swallowing impairment does a person have difficulty passing materials through the esophageal lumen into the stomach due to an obstruction in the esophagus or a motility disorder?

a)

reflux esophagitis

b)

esophageal dysphagia

c)

oropharyngeal dysphagia

d)

atrophic gastritis

3.

Caused by a degenerative nerve condition that weakens peristalsis and impairs relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, the most common motility disorder that hinders the passage of both solids and liquids through the esophagus is ____.

a)

dyspepsia

b)

xerostomia

c)

achalasia

d)

hiatal hernia

4.

Which condition is characterized by the frequent backward flow of the stomach's acidic contents into the esophagus?

a)

xerostomia

b)

achalasia

c)

gastric output obstruction

d)

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

5.

Which condition associated with GERD involves damaged esophageal cells being gradually replaced by cells that resemble those in gastric or intestinal tissues, sometimes leading to esophageal cancer?

a)

xerostomia

b)

achalasia

c)

Barret's esophagus

d)

Sjogren's syndrome

6.

General symptoms of pain or discomfort in the upper abdominal region, such as stomach pain, nausea, or bloating, are referred to as ____.

a)

dyspepsia

b)

dysphagia

c)

dyspnea

d)

gastritis

7.

A general term that refers to inflammation of stomach tissue is ____.

a)

reflux

b)

dysphagia

c)

gastritis

d)

achlorhydria

8.

Which condition is characterized by abnormally low gastric secretions that impair absorption of nonheme iron and vitamin B12?

a)

achlorhydria

b)

hypochlorhydria

c)

acidosis

d)

hypoxemia

9.

What type of infection is a primary factor in peptic ulcer development?

a)

a parasitic nematode infection by an Anisakis sp.

b)

a viral infection by a Cytomegalovirus sp.

c)

a bacterial infection by a Streptococcus sp.

d)

a bacterial infection by Helicobacter pylori

10.

Bleeding caused by peptic ulcers, which in severe cases can cause death, occurs in up to ____ percent of ulcer cases.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

11.

A total gastrectomy involves the surgical removal of ____.

a)

the entire duodenum

b)

part of the stomach

c)

the entire stomach

d)

part of the esophagus and part of the stomach

12.

Which group of symptoms, which results from a large amount of food passing rapidly into the small intestine, is a risk of some gastric surgeries?

a)

dumping syndrome

b)

gastric outlet obstruction

c)

atrophic gastritis

d)

Sjögren's syndrome

13.

Following a gastrectomy, supplementation of both calcium and vitamin D is often recommended to prevent ____.

a)

dumping syndrome

b)

atrophic gastritis

c)

anemia

d)

osteoporosis

14.

With which bariatric surgical procedure does a surgeon remove 70 to 85 percent of the stomach tissue and then staple the remaining portions together to create a vertical, tube-shaped stomach with limited capacity?

a)

gastric banding

b)

gastric bypass

c)

sleeve gastrectomy

d)

total gastrectomy

15.

The bariatric surgical procedure involving the construction of a small gastric pouch that reduces stomach capacity and thereby restricts meal size is referred to as the ____ procedure.

a)

gastic banding

b)

gastric bypass

c)

sleeve gastrectomy

d)

total gastrectomy

16.

Dental caries are caused by ____.

a)

increased salivary production

b)

inflammation of the gums

c)

a virus that causes acid erosion of tooth enamel

d)

acids produced by bacteria that attack tooth enamel

17.

Most cariogenic foods, those that are conducive to the development of dental caries, are those that contain ____.

a)

proteins

b)

carbohydrates

c)

fats

d)

dairy

18.

A dental calculus is a thickened plaque deposit on the tooth surface that has become filled with ____.

a)

Iron and magnesium

b)

Phosphorus and magnesium

c)

Calcium and phosphorus

d)

Iron and calcium

19.

Chronic inflammation caused by periodontal disease can exacerbate insulin resistance, which can ultimately lead to ____.

a)

Type 2 Diabetes

b)

Heart Disease

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Emphysema

20.

A deficiency in this nutrient is associated with increased susceptibility to enamel demineralization and reduced protection against decay-causing bacteria.

a)

Calcium

b)

Protein

c)

Fluoride

d)

Vitamin D

21.

A patient who suffers from xerostomia should be given which suggestion to help manage dry mouth?

a)

Take frequent sips of coffee, tea, or soda.

b)

Consume foods with low fluid content.

c)

Increase the use of flavorings and salt with foods.

d)

Chew sugarless gum to stimulate saliva.

22.

Which food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet?

a)

plain yogurt

b)

oatmeal

c)

peanut butter

d)

cottage cheese

23.

Which condition is most closely associated with a high rate of gastroesophageal reflux disease?

a)

pregnancy

b)

anorexia

c)

hypertension

d)

diabetes mellitus

24.

A patient suffering from nausea and vomiting should be counseled to do which activity to help alleviate his symptoms?

a)

Drink beverages during meals.

b)

Avoid dry, starchy foods.

c)

Avoid lying down for 30 minutes after meals.

d)

Avoid greasy or spicy foods.

25.

What condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis?

a)

low salt intake

b)

bile reflux

c)

hypophosphatasia

d)

gallstones

26.

Which food would most likely be included as part of a post-gastrectomy diet?

a)

hot dogs

b)

chocolate milk

c)

corn

d)

beverages sweetened with artificial sweetners

27.

Following bariatric surgery, a patient would initially be given which type of diet?

a)

regular diet

b)

pureed diet

c)

clear liquid diet

d)

soft diet

28.

To best prevent gastric outlet syndrome following bariatric surgery, the patient would avoid which food?

a)

ice cream

b)

cottage cheese

c)

tuna

d)

asparagus

29.

Protein deficiency would most likely have which effect on dental tissues?

a)

decreased resistance to dental caries

b)

increased tooth size

c)

delayed tooth development

d)

increased enamel mineralization

30.

Which chronic disease has been associated with increased risks of dental problems?

a)

diabetes mellitus

b)

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

c)

Addison's disease

d)

asthma

31.

If a patient with dysphagia has difficulty swallowing solids but can easily swallow liquids:

a)

the problem is most likely a motility disorder.

b)

the patient may have achalasia.

c)

the problem is probably an esophageal obstruction.

d)

the patient most likely has oropharyngeal dysphagia.

32.

The clinician working with a patient with dysphagia should recognize that:

a)

the patient should eat only pureed foods to minimize the risk of aspiration.

b)

the foods allowed are those that can be comfortably and safely chewed and swallowed.

c)

highly seasoned foods are often restricted.

d)

regular diets do not meet nutrient needs, so supplements are required.

33.

Possible consequences of GERD include all of the following except:

a)

reflux esophagitis.

b)

dysphagia

c)

Barrett's Esophagus

d)

Gastric Ulcers

34.

Treating GERD with proton-pump inhibitors is effective because they:

a)

reduce gastric acid secretion.

b)

reduce pressure within the stomach.

c)

strengthen the lower esophageal sphincter.

d)

provide a protective barrier between gastric acid and the esophageal mucosa.

35.

For the patient with persistent vomiting, the major nutritionrelated concern(s) is/are:

a)

dehydration and malnutrition

b)

dyspepsia

c)

peptic ulcers

d)

reflux esophagitis

36.

Chronic gastritis may increase risk of:

a)

Dumping Syndrome

b)

Gall Bladder Disease

c)

Bone Disease

d)

Iron and Vitamin B12 Deficiency

37.

The primary cause of most peptic ulcers is:

a)

Helicobacter pylori infection.

b)

consumption of spicy foods.

c)

psychological stress.

d)

smoking cigarettes.

38.

The main dietary recommendation for patients with gastritis or peptic ulcers is to consume foods that:

a)

neutralize stomach acidity.

b)

are well tolerated and do not cause discomfort.

c)

coat the stomach lining.

d)

promote healing of mucosal tissue.

39.

Following a gastrectomy, patients can greatly minimize the risk of dumping syndrome by:

a)

increasing intake of carbohydrates and avoiding fatty foods.

b)

consuming liquids between meals and avoiding foods that supply sugars.

c)

consuming a high-fiber diet and minimizing meat and cheese intake.

d)

including milk products with each meal to provide protein.

40.

After a gastric bypass operation, the patient should be monitored for all of the following conditions except:

a)

anemia

b)

bone disease

c)

hiatal hernia

d)

fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies

41.

A diagnosis of constipation is based, in part, on a defecation frequency of fewer than ____ bowel movements per week.

a)

7

b)

5

c)

4

d)

3

42.

Which foods are particularly helpful for promoting regular bowel movements?

a)

High-fiber

b)

Low-fiber

c)

Low-fat

d)

High-fat

43.

Unlike many other fiber supplements, Citrucel and Fiber-Lax do not increase intestinal gas because they contain which active ingredients?

a)

lactulose and psyllium

b)

polycarbophil and psyllium

c)

polycarbophil and lactulose

d)

methylcellulose and polycarbophil

44.

To avoid or relieve constipation, people are discouraged from skipping ____, because colonic motility is highest after eating this.

a)

breakfast

b)

lunch

c)

dinner

d)

a mid-morning snack

45.

The sensation of swelling in the abdominal area is referred to as ____.

a)

achalasia

b)

bloating

c)

flatulence

d)

dysphagia

46.

Which nutrient is most frequently malabsorbed since both digestive enzymes and bile must be present for its digestion?

a)

protein

b)

fat

c)

fiber

d)

iron

47.

Excessive fat in the stool due to fat malabsorption is known as ____.

a)

xerostemia

b)

hypochlorhydria

c)

hypercapnia

d)

steatorrhea

48.

If fat malabsorption causes calcium in the small intestine to bind to fatty acids or bile acids instead of oxalates, plant compounds found in certain vegetables and other foods, the oxalates can be absorbed into the blood and increase the risk of developing ____.

a)

kidney stones

b)

peptic ulcers

c)

atrophic gastritis

d)

lactose intolerance

49.

At least half of chronic pancreatitis cases are caused by _____.

a)

recurring kidney stones

b)

excessive alcohol consumption

c)

environmental toxins

d)

elevated blood triglyceride

50.

Pancreatic enzyme replacement drugs that treat chronic pancreatitis can sometimes decrease the absorption of which dietary nutrients?

a)

Folate and Iron

b)

Folate and Calcium

c)

Iron and Calcium

d)

Iron and Vitamin B12

51.

Which immune disorder is characterized by an abnormal immune response to wheat protein and related proteins?

a)

Celiac Disease

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

Crohn's Disease

d)

Ulcerative Colitis

52.

Which substance is the water-soluble component of wheat gluten that is toxic to individuals who are sensitive to gluten?

a)

giladin

b)

oxalate

c)

lactose`

d)

glutenin

53.

Which foods does a gluten-free diet eliminate?

a)

only wheat

b)

only wheat and rye

c)

wheat, rye, and barley

d)

wheat, barley, rye, and corn

54.

Which condition is an inflammatory bowel disease characterized by abnormal immune responses to microbes that inhabit the GI tract and usually occurs in the lower portion of the small intestine and the colon?

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Ulcerative Colitis

c)

Crohn's Disease

d)

Celiac Disease

55.

Abnormal passages between organs or tissues that allow the passage of fluids or secretions are referred to as ____.

a)

fistulas

b)

fissures

c)

strictures

d)

blind loops

56.

What condition would most likely be diagnosed in a person experiencing chronic and recurring intestinal symptoms that cannot be explained by specific physical abnormalities?

a)

short bowel syndrome

b)

gastric outlet obstruction

c)

irritable bowel syndrome

d)

Ulcerative colitis

57.

Which intestinal condition is characterized by the presence of small herniations in the intestinal wall and occurs in over half of people who are 80 years old and older?

a)

hiatal hernai

b)

diverticulosis

c)

xerostemia

d)

Crohn's disease

58.

What is the name of the surgical procedure that creates a passage through the abdominal wall into the large intestine so dietary wastes can be eliminated?

a)

gastrectomy

b)

resection

c)

ileostomy

d)

colostomy

59.

The medications often prescribed for irritable bowel syndrome that specifically reduce pain by relaxing GI muscles are called ____.

a)

antidepressants

b)

antibiotics

c)

antidiarrheals

d)

antisplasmotics

60.

If a person with an ileostomy wishes to eat a food that may help reduce odors, which of the following foods may be suggested for them to try?

a)

parsley

b)

asparagus

c)

cabbage

d)

cauliflower

61.

Most bacterial cells of the gastrointestinal tract reside in a person's ____.

a)

colon

b)

duodenum

c)

jejunum

d)

ileum

62.

Live, nonpathogenic microorganisms that may be useful for preventing or treating various medical conditions are called ____.

a)

prebiotics

b)

gastrobiotics

c)

probiotics

d)

postbiotics

63.

Certain nondigestible substances in food that can stimulate the growth or activity of the resident bacteria within the large intestine are referred to as ____.

a)

gastrobiotics

b)

synbiotics

c)

prebiotics

d)

probiotics

64.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of probiotics?

a)

weight loss

b)

reduced cancer risk

c)

improved immune response

d)

altered susceptibility to food allergies

65.

Which is a main dietary source of probiotics?

a)

sauerkraut

b)

pickles

c)

olives

d)

fermented milk products

66.

The action of osmotic laxatives can best be described as that of _____.

a)

increasing stool weight

b)

acting as an irritant to colonic tissue

c)

attracting water and increasing liquidity of stools

d)

stimulating peristalsis

67.

Which type of bread, cereal, or pasta would most likely be recommended for a patient on a fat-restricted diet?

a)

popcorn

b)

fried rice

c)

english muffins

d)

granola

68.

A patient with fat malabsorption wants to use MCT oil with food preparation. Which suggestion is most appropriate when using MCT oil?

a)

MCT oil can be used when baking some foods

b)

MCT oil is cost effective and often cheaper than vegetable oil.

c)

MCT oil should only be used when frying foods.

d)

MCT oil should replace all forms of oils and fats in the diet.

69.

A patient with cystic fibrosis would most likely benefit from which type of diet?

a)

low-sodium

b)

low-fat

c)

high-kcalorie, high-protein

d)

pureed

70.

A gluten-free food choice that would be most appropriate for a patient with celiac disease would be _____.

a)

eggs

b)

oatmeal

c)

scalloped potatoes

d)

flour tortillas

71.

A patient with Crohn's disease who is suffering from malabsorption would most likely benefit from which nutrition intervention?

a)

a low-fat diet

b)

fluid and electrolyte replacement

c)

tube feedings

d)

nutrient supplements

72.

Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome are most likely associated with disturbed defecation, bloating, and _____.

a)

rectal bleeding

b)

abdominal pain

c)

rectal fissures

d)

esophageal paralysis

73.

Prebiotics include some of the carbohydrates found in which foods?

a)

shellfish and tuna

b)

ice cream and milk

c)

oranges and lemons

d)

leeks and onions

74.

Much of the research investigating probiotics and intestinal illness has focused on the prevention and treatment of _____.

a)

IBS

b)

Crohn's Disease

c)

Diverticulitis

d)

Infectious Diarrhea

75.

The health practitioner advising an elderly patient with constipation encourages the patient to:

a)

consume a low-fat diet low in sodium.

b)

consume a high-protein diet rich in calcium.

c)

eliminate gas-forming foods from the diet.

d)

gradually add high-fiber foods to the diet.

76.

Osmotic diarrhea often results from:

a)

excessive colonic contractions.

b)

excessive fluid secretion by the intestines

c)

nutrient malabsorption.

d)

viral, bacterial, or protozoal infections.

77.

Nutrition problems that may result from fat malabsorption include all of the following except:

a)

weight loss.

b)

essential amino acid deficiencies.

c)

bone loss

d)

oxalate kidney stones

78.

Common nutrition problems associated with bacterial overgrowth in the stomach and small intestine include:

a)

sensitivity to gluten

b)

fat malabsorption and vitamin deficiency.

c)

constipation

d)

permanent loss of digestive enzymes

79.

Chronic pancreatitis and cystic fibrosis are both treated with:

a)

intestinal resection

b)

postural drainage

c)

enzyme replacement therapy

d)

stool softeners

80.

Despite the intestine’s capacity for adaptation, removal of which section of the intestine will likely result in fat malabsorption and multiple nutrient deficiencies?

a)

duodenum

b)

jejunum

c)

ileum

d)

colon

81.

Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome most often include:

a)

nausea and vomiting

b)

weight loss and malnutrition

c)

strong odors and obstructions

d)

constipation and diarrhea/abdominal pain

82.

Diverticulosis is most often associated with:

a)

aging

b)

inadequate exercise

c)

intestinal surgery

d)

high-fiber diet

83.

After an ileostomy, the most serious concern is that:

a)

the diet is too restrictive to meet nutrient needs.

b)

waste disposal causes frequent daily interruptions.

c)

fluid restrictions prevent patients from drinking beverages freely

d)

incompletely digested foods may cause obstructions.

84.

Liver inflammation associated with fatty liver is referred to as ____.

a)

xerostemia

b)

achalasia

c)

steatohepatitis

d)

hepatomegaly

85.

Which type of hepatitis has infected one-third of the world population and is caused by a viral infection transmitted by infected blood or needles, by sexual contact with an infected person, or from mother to infant during childbirth?

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Hepatitis D

86.

The hepatitis A virus is primarily spread through ____.

a)

sexual contact

b)

blood transfusions

c)

fecal-oral transmission

d)

injection drug use

87.

Hepatitis can sometimes cause a yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes due to an accumulation of bilirubin, a condition called ____.

a)

cirrhosis

b)

varices

c)

acidosis

d)

jaundice

88.

Consequences of fatty liver disease include all of the following except:

a)

steatohepatitis

b)

hepatomegaly

c)

fatigue

d)

hepatitis A

89.

Which condition is defined as an advanced stage of liver disease in which extensive scarring replaces healthy liver tissue, causing impaired liver function and liver failure?

a)

Cirrhosis

b)

steatohepatitis

c)

hepatomegaly

d)

hepatitis C

90.

The blood vessel that conducts nutrient-rich blood from the digestive tract to the liver is called the ____.

a)

hepatic artery

b)

hepatic portal vein

c)

collateral vessel

d)

inferior vena cava

91.

Advanced liver disease often leads to hepatic encephalopathy, a disorder that primarily affects the functions of which organ(s)?

a)

lungs

b)

heart

c)

brain

d)

eyes

92.

Advanced liver disease often leads to an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, the condition known as ____.

a)

ascites

b)

hepatomegaly

c)

varices

d)

hypercapnia

93.

Accounting for about 50 percent of liver transplant cases, the most common illnesses that precede liver transplantation are ____.

a)

hepatitis A, B, and C

b)

Hepatitis B and alcoholic liver disease

c)

Hepatitis C and alcoholic liver disease

d)

Hepatitis C and nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

94.

Where in the body does most alcohol metabolism take place?

a)

liver

b)

pancreas

c)

stomach

d)

small intestine

95.

An average adult can metabolize the amount of alcohol contained in one drink in approximately ____.

a)

10 mins

b)

30 mins

c)

1 hour

d)

2 hours

96.

The main product of alcohol metabolism, which can be used as a source of energy by most tissues, is ____.

a)

glutamate

b)

aspartate

c)

ethanol

d)

acetate

97.

Persons who abuse alcohol are often deficient in numerous nutrients, including ____, which plays a central role in cell division and influences the absorption of other nutrients.

a)

Biotin

b)

Folate

c)

Iron

d)

Calcium

98.

Light to moderate alcohol intake may reduce the risk of developing which chronic disease?

a)

hepatitis C

b)

fatty liver

c)

ulcerative colitis

d)

artherosclerosis

99.

In cases unrelated to alcohol, the primary risk factor for fatty liver disease is _____.

a)

hepatitis A

b)

hypertension

c)

liver cancer

d)

insulin resistance

100.

Which individuals would most likely benefit from hepatitis A vaccination?

a)

newborns, infants, or children

b)

healthcare employees

c)

international travelers

d)

HIV-positive individuals

101.

Ninety percent of _____ with hepatitis B infection in the United States will develop chronic disease.

a)

older adults

b)

newborn infants

c)

pregnant women

d)

adolescents

102.

Most individuals with hepatitis infection require what form of nutrition therapy?

a)

fluid and electrolyte replacement

b)

high protein, high fat diet

c)

typically, no diet changes

d)

a low sodium diet

103.

The chief causes of cirrhosis in the United States are alcoholic liver disease and _____.

a)

liver cancer

b)

chronic hepatitis C infection

c)

type 2 diabetes

d)

obesity

104.

The most common illnesses that precede liver transplantation are chronic hepatitis C infection and _____.

a)

hepatitis A infection

b)

alcoholic liver disease

c)

esophageal varices

d)

hepatic encephalopathy

105.

Which metabolic effect is most closely associated with immunosuppressant drugs administered following liver transplantation?

a)

hypoglycemia

b)

hyperlipidemia

c)

elevated uric acid

d)

hypothyroidism

106.

One of the more common causes of death following liver transplant is which condition?

a)

stroke

b)

aortic aneurysm

c)

infection

d)

myocardial infarction

107.

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, women should limit their intake of alcohol to how many drinks per day?

a)

none

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

108.

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, women should limit their intake of alcohol to how many drinks per day?

a)

bronchiectasis

b)

glaucoma

c)

epilepsy

d)

type 2 diabetes

109.

Which of the following statements about hepatitis is true?

a)

Chronic hepatitis can progress to cirrhosis.

b)

Whatever the cause of hepatitis, symptoms are typically severe.

c)

Vaccines are available to protect against hepatitis A, B, and C viruses.

d)

HCV infection can be spread through contaminated foods and water.

110.

Which blood test values often indicate the presence of liver disease?

a)

increased albumin levels

b)

increased liver enzyme levels

c)

decreased bilirubin levels

d)

decreased alkaline phosphatase levels

111.

Esophageal varices are a dangerous complication of liver disease primarily because they:

a)

interfere w/ food intake

b)

divert blood flow from the GI tract

c)

can lead to massive bleeding

d)

contribute to hepatic encephalopathy

112.

A complication of cirrhosis that contributes to the development of ascites is:

a)

portal hypertension

b)

insulin resistance

c)

elevated serum albumin levels

d)

bile obstruction

113.

Lactulose, a nonabsorbable disaccharide, is generally prescribed to patients who develop which complication of cirrhosis?

a)

Portal Hypertension

b)

Hepatic encephalopathy

c)

Ascites

d)

Bile Insufficiency

114.

With respect to protein intake, patients with hepatic encephalopathy should:

a)

consume a high protein diet

b)

restrict protein intake

c)

spread protein intake throughout the day

d)

use formulas enriched w/ amino acids

115.

People with ascites must often restrict dietary intake of:

a)

fat

b)

protein

c)

sugars

d)

sodium

116.

Dietary concerns after a liver transplant include all of the following except:

a)

Severe protein restrictions that are difficult to adhere to

b)

increased risk of foodborne illness.

c)

gastrointestinal side effects of medications.

d)

altered appetite and taste perception from medications.

117.

nsulin regulates glucose metabolism and is produced in which glandular organ?

a)

pancreas

b)

thyroid

c)

liver

d)

kidney

118.

The actions of insulin are countered mainly by which hormone?

a)

glucose

b)

glucagon

c)

glucosamine

d)

glycogen

119.

If blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold, the kidneys begin to pass glucose into the urine, resulting in ____.

a)

gangrene

b)

glycosuria

c)

albuminuria

d)

claduication

120.

Which symptom of diabetes is defined as excessive thirst?

a)

polyphagia

b)

ketonuria

c)

ketosis

d)

polydipsia

121.

Type 1 diabetes is defined as ____.

a)

insulin resistance coupled with insufficient insulin secretion

b)

plasma glucose levels that are 100–125 mg/dL when fasting

c)

absolute insulin deficiency

d)

abnormally high levels of insulin in the blood

122.

Individuals with which type of diabetes always require insulin therapy for survival?

a)

type 1 diabetes

b)

type 2 diabetes

c)

gestational diabetes

d)

adult-onset diabetes

123.

Conventional therapy for type 1 diabetes involves blood glucose monitoring ____, as well as ____ insulin injection(s).

a)

at least three times daily; three or more daily

b)

at least three times daily; one or two daily

c)

once weekly; one weekly

d)

once daily; three or more daily

e)

once daily; one or two daily

124.

What is one advantage of using intensive therapy as compared to conventional therapy for type 1 diabetes?

a)

Intensive therapy allows for less blood glucose monitoring and fewer insulin injections than conventional therapy does.

b)

Intensive therapy does not require daily dosage adjustments of blood glucose like conventional therapy does.

c)

Intensive therapy delays the progression of neuropathy, nephropathy, and retinopathy more than conventional therapy does.

d)

Intensive therapy is associated with less weight gain than conventional therapy.

125.

Diabetes treatment is predominantly evaluated by monitoring ____.

a)

insulin status

b)

glycemic status

c)

blood pressure

d)

heart rate

126.

Health care providers periodically evaluate long-term glycemic control by specifically measuring ____ levels.

a)

albumin

b)

hematocrit

c)

glycated hemoglobin

d)

C-reactive protein

127.

When maternal hyperglycemia induces excessive insulin production in the fetus, which stimulates growth and fat deposition in the fetus and results in an abnormally high birth weight, the condition is referred to as ____.

a)

polydipsia

b)

ketoacidosis

c)

macrosomia

d)

acromegaly

128.

To ensure that appropriate treatment is offered, physicians routinely test pregnant women for gestational diabetes between ____ weeks of gestation.

a)

12 & 16

b)

16 & 20

c)

20 & 24

d)

24 & 28

129.

Which disorder is present in a patient if a laboratory test reveals the value of very low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) in their blood is greater than 150 mg/dL?

a)

hypertriglyceridemia

b)

hyperglycemia

c)

hypertension

d)

elevated HDL cholesterol

130.

Obesity is associated with the reduced secretion of which hormone that is produced by fat cells and improves insulin sensitivity and glucose tolerance?

a)

resistin

b)

adiponectin

c)

fibrinogen

d)

plasminogen

131.

The enlarged adipose cells of obese individuals activate local immune cells that secrete signaling proteins, called ____, inducing inflammation and leading to multiple metabolic changes that reduce insulin responsiveness.

a)

fibrinogens

b)

triglycerides

c)

cytokines

d)

steroids

132.

A lowering of blood pH that results from the excessive production of ketone bodies is known as _____.

a)

glycosuria

b)

ketonuria

c)

ketoacidosis

d)

hyperglycemia

133.

Which criterion would be used to diagnose diabetes?

a)

a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours

b)

a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms

c)

a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load of 400 mg/dL or higher

d)

a HbA1C higher than 5 percent

134.

Which feature is more likely associated with type 1 diabetes than with type 2 diabetes?

a)

onset at age over 40 years

b)

prevalent in up to 95 percent of cases of diabetes

c)

does not require insulin therapy

d)

caused by destruction of the pancreatic beta cells

135.

Which of the following best describes prevention measures for type 2 diabetes?

a)

blood pressure control

b)

weight management

c)

increased sleep

d)

decreased protein intake

136.

Which before-meal glucose level is an example of appropriate glycemic control for an adult with diabetes?

a)

55- 80 mg/dL

b)

80-130 mg/dL

c)

135-150 mg/dL

d)

160-190 mg/dL

137.

Which best describes an appropriate recommendation for sugar consumption for adults with diabetes?

a)

Minimize food and beverages that contain added sugars.

b)

Avoid all forms of sugar completely

c)

Avoid using artificial sweetners

d)

include table sugar but avoid fruit sugar

138.

Which of the following is an example of a 15 g serving of carbohydrate?

a)

1 cup of yogurt

b)

1 slice of bread

c)

1 cup of cooked pasta

d)

1 large peach

139.

Which outcome is most commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes during pregnancy?

a)

infant hyperglycemia

b)

miscarriage

c)

microsomia

d)

hypercalcemia

140.

Which risk factor is most closely associated with development of gestational diabetes?

a)

Caucasian ethnicity

b)

Previous history of anorexia

c)

Family history of Diabetes

d)

Previous birth of twins

141.

Which value is most likely associated with metabolic syndrome?

a)

waist circumference over 35 inches in women

b)

fasting plasma glucose over 60 mg/dL

c)

HDL levels less than 90 mg/dL

d)

VLDL levels over 80 mg/dL

142.

Which of the following is true about type 2 diabetes?

a)

It is usually an autoimmune disease.

b)

The pancreas makes little or no insulin.

c)

Diabetic ketoacidosis is a common complication.

d)

Chronic complications may develop before it is diagnosed.

143.

Most chronic complications associated with diabetes result from:

a)

altered kidney fxn

b)

infections that deplete nutrients

c)

weight gain and hypertension

d)

damage to blood vessels and nerves

144.

Regarding dietary carbohydrate, a patient with diabetes should be most concerned about:

a)

consuming an appropriate quantity of carbohydrate at each meal or snack.

b)

consuming the correct proportion of sugars, starches, and fiber in meals.

c)

avoiding added sugars and kcaloric sweeteners.

d)

choosing meals with ideal proportions of protein, carbohydrate, and fat.

145.

Which of the following is true regarding the general use of alcohol in diabetes?

a)

A serving of alcohol is considered part of the carbohydrate allowance.

b)

Alcohol contributes to hyperglycemia and should be avoided completely.

c)

Alcohol can cause hypoglycemia and should therefore be consumed with food if patients use insulin or medications that stimulate insulin secretion.

d)

Patients can use alcohol in unlimited quantities unless they are pregnant.

146.

The most effective meal-planning strategy for managing diabetes is:

a)

carbohydrate counting.

b)

an eating plan based on food lists created for persons with diabetes.

c)

following menus and recipes provided by a registered dietitian.

d)

the approach that best helps the patient control blood glucose levels.

147.

A patient using intensive insulin therapy is likely to follow a regimen that involves:

a)

twice-daily injections that combine short-, intermediate-, and long-acting insulin in each injection.

b)

a mixture of intermediate- and long-acting insulin injected between meals.

c)

multiple daily injections that supply basal insulin and precise insulin doses at each meal and snack

d)

the use of both insulin and oral antidiabetic agents.

148.

In a person who has previously maintained good glycemic control, hyperglycemia can be precipitated by:

a)

infections or illness.

b)

chronic alcohol ingestion

c)

undertreatment of hypoglycemia

d)

prolonged exercise.

149.

Which dietary adjustment may be helpful for women with gestational diabetes?

a)

Consuming most of the day’s carbohydrate allotment in the morning.

b)

Restricting carbohydrate to about 30 grams at breakfast.

c)

Avoiding food intake after dinner.

d)

Reducing energy intake to about 50 percent of the calculated requirement.

150.

Atherosclerosis is a disease characterized by the ____.

a)

inadequate blood supply to the heart muscle that results in discomfort in the chest region

b)

sudden death of brain cells due to impaired blood flow to the brain

c)

formation or presence of a blood clot in blood vessels

d)

buildup of lipids and fibrous scar tissue on the inner walls of arteries

151.

A heart attack is defined as death of the heart muscle caused by a sudden obstruction in blood flow to heart and is technically referred to as ____.

a)

myocardial infarction

b)

peripheral artery disease

c)

coronary thrombosis

d)

angina pectoris

152.

Of the blood lipids listed below, which one helps remove cholesterol from the bloodstream by transporting it to the liver for reuse or disposal?

a)

low-density lipoproteins

b)

high-density lipoproteins

c)

very low-density lipoproteins

d)

blood triglycerides

153.

Which condition is defined as the obstruction of a blood vessel by an abnormal particle, such as a blood clot or air bubble, that travels in the blood and causes sudden tissue death?

a)

thrombosis

b)

aneurysm

c)

embolism

d)

sheer stress

154.

Which of the following accounts for most deaths from cardiovascular disease?

a)

Coronary Heart Disease

b)

Stroke

c)

Heart Failure

d)

High Blood Pressure

155.

Which condition, caused by inadequate blood supply in the heart muscle, results in discomfort or dull pain in the chest region that often radiates to the left shoulder, arms, neck, back, or jaw?

a)

cardiac cachexia

b)

intermittent claudication

c)

angina pectoris

d)

pulmonary edema

156.

Which risk factor for coronary heart disease is a major nonmodifiable variable?

a)

alcohol overconsumption

b)

abdominal obesity

c)

family history

d)

physical activity

157.

What is the desirable level of total blood cholesterol (mg/dL) for an adult?

a)

200-239

b)

40-59

c)

<100

d)

<200

158.

An adult woman may be classified as having borderline risk for coronary heart disease if a blood lipid profile indicates that her LDL cholesterol is ____mg/dL and her HDL cholesterol is ____mg/dL.

a)

200–239; 40–49.

b)

130–159; 50–59

c)

150–199; <40

d)

200–499; <60

159.

Once a person's level of risk has been identified, most of the treatment focuses on ____ because these levels are directly related to the development of atherosclerosis.

a)

lowering levels of LDL cholesterol

b)

lowering levels of HDL cholesterol

c)

increasing levels of LDL

d)

increasing levels of VLDL

160.

The large majority of strokes are caused by the obstruction of blood flow to the brain, referred to as ____.

a)

cardiac arrhythmias

b)

transient ischemic attacks

c)

hemorrhagic strokes

d)

ischemic strokes

161.

Short-lived strokes that occur suddenly and are usually indicative that a more severe stroke may follow are called ____.

a)

hemorrhagic strokes

b)

ischemic strokes

c)

transient ischemic attacks

162.

Peripheral resistance, the resistance the blood encounters in the arterioles, increases mostly due to ____.

a)

increased heart rate or increased arteriole diameters

b)

increased heart rate or increased volume of blood pumped from the heart

c)

decreased arteriole diameters or blood becoming thicker

d)

increased arteriole diameters or blood becoming thinner

163.

Severe malnutrition that develops in heart failure patients, characterized by weight loss and tissue wasting, is known as ____.

a)

myocardial infarction

b)

cardiac cachexia

c)

intermittent claudication

d)

coronary thrombosis

164.

The left side of the heart normally receives blood from the lungs, so a weakened left heart may allow fluid to build up in the lungs, a condition called ____.

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

intermittent claudication

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Coronary Thrombosis

165.

In what way would a speech pathologist most likely provide help in determining a treatment plan for an individual who has a feeding disability?

a)

by assessing the individual's abilities to grasp and use utensils

b)

by evaluating the individual's chewing and swallowing abilities

c)

by measuring the individual's gastrointestinal functions noninvasively

d)

by calculating an individual's dietary needs

166.

Providing utensils that have modified handles, such as flatware with built-up handles, is one measure used to assist people with which type of feeding disability?

a)

inability to suck

b)

inability to chew

c)

inability to swallow

d)

inability to grasp

167.

Which feeding measure is most useful for assisting a person with impaired vision?

a)

correct posture and head position

b)

supply foods of different textures

c)

place foods in similar locations

d)

provide liquids

168.

Which factor has been shown to increase the risk of development of atherosclerosis?

a)

menopause

b)

age greater than 35

c)

increased levels of arachidonic acid

d)

elevated HDL cholesterol

169.

What laboratory value would be considered a high-risk measure for coronary heart disease assessment?

a)

triglycerides >150 mg/dL.

b)

BMI >31

c)

LDL cholesterol <128 mg/dL

d)

blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg

170.

What food is most likely a source of trans fats in the diet?

a)

red meat

b)

peanut oil

c)

corn chips

d)

salmon

171.

What type of drug would most likely be given to a patient following a myocardial infarction?

a)

antiemetic

b)

anticoagulant

c)

anticonvulsant

d)

antibiotic

172.

Which symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?

a)

confusion and difficulty speaking

b)

headache and blurred vision

c)

chest pain and pressure

d)

claudication and peripheral edema

173.

What systolic blood pressure measurement would be classified as prehypertension?

a)

106 mmHg

b)

119 mmHg

c)

130 mmHg

d)

148 mmHg

174.

Mrs. Harris suffers from hypertension and routinely has blood pressure levels greater than 150/90 mmHg. What lifestyle recommendation would be most appropriate to give to Mrs. Harris?

a)

Reduce body weight to maintain BMI <30

b)

Adopt a diet that emphasizes protein intake through red meat.

c)

Limit alcohol consumption to two drinks per day.

d)

Engage in moderate physical activity four days per week.

175.

Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for a patient with heart failure?

a)

fluid volume excess

b)

risk for infection

c)

impaired body temp

d)

ineffective airway clearance

176.

Ischemia in the coronary arteries is a frequent cause of:

a)

angina pectoris

b)

hemorrhagic stroke

c)

aneurysm

d)

hypertension

177.

Risk factors for atherosclerosis include all of the following except:

a)

smoking

b)

hypertension

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

elevated HDL cholesterol

178.

Dietary lipids with the strongest LDL cholesterol-raising effects are:

a)

saturated fats

b)

polysaturated fats

c)

monounsaturated fats

d)

plant sterols

179.

Moderate alcohol consumption can improve heart disease risk, in part, because it:

a)

lowers blood pressure

b)

increases HDL cholesterol

c)

offsets smoking damage

d)

improves nutrition

180.

Patients with mild hypertriglyceridemia may improve their triglyceride levels by:

a)

reducing sodium intake

b)

reducing cholesterol intake

c)

consuming moderate alcohol

d)

limiting intakes of refined carbohydrates

181.

Which medications reduce cholesterol synthesis in the liver?

a)

Bile acid sequestrants

b)

Statins

c)

ACE inhibitors

d)

Fibrates

182.

Hemorrhagic Stroke:

a)

most common type of stroke

b)

results from obstructed blood flow in brain tissue

c)

comes on suddenly and lasts 30 mins

d)

results from bleeding within the brain and damages brain tissue

183.

Hypertensive patients can benefit from all of the following dietary and lifestyle modifications except:

a)

reducing total fat intake

b)

reducing sodium intake

c)

including fat-free or low-fat milk products in the diet.

d)

consuming generous amounts of fruit, vegetables, legumes, and nuts.

184.

Nutrition therapy for a patient with heart failure often includes:

a)

weight loss

b)

reducing total fat

c)

sodium restriction

d)

cholesterol restriction

185.

Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome caused by significant loss of ____.

a)

erythropoietin as a result of severe damage to the glomerulus

b)

urea as a result of severe damage to the Bowman's capsule

c)

urinary protein as a result of severe damage to the Bowman's capsule

d)

urinary protein as a result of severe damage to the glomerulus

186.

When acute kidney injury causes an abnormally low amount of urine production, often less than 400 mL/day, the condition is called ____.

a)

uremia

b)

diuresis

c)

azotemia

d)

oliguria

187.

Factors that cause a severe reduction in blood flow to the kidneys, such as heart failure, shock, or substantial blood loss, are classified as ____ factors.

a)

prerenal

b)

intrarenal

c)

extrarenal

d)

interrenal

188.

Reduced urine production resulting from acute kidney injury can elevate ____ levels in the blood, the condition referred to as hyperkalemia, which can alter heart rhythm and result in heart failure.

a)

phosphate

b)

potassium

c)

magnesium

d)

calcium

189.

What are the most common causes of chronic kidney disease?

a)

alcohol abuse and cirrhosis

b)

diabetes mellitus and hypertension

c)

atrophic gastritis and cirrhosis

d)

alcohol abuse and hypertension

190.

Which laboratory measure is considered the best index of overall kidney function?

a)

blood serum electrolyte levels

b)

glomerular filtration rate

c)

degree of albuminuria

d)

ratio of albumin to creatinine in urine

191.

In chronic kidney disease, the increased secretion of parathyroid hormone helps to prevent elevations in serum phosphate, but contributes to ____, a bone disorder common in renal patients.

a)

osteomyelitis

b)

rickets

c)

muscular dystrophy

d)

renal osteodystrophy

192.

Which treatment measure for chronic kidney disease replaces the functions of the kidney by removing excess fluid and wastes from the blood?

a)

gastrostomy

b)

insulin pumps

c)

dialysis

d)

blind loops

193.

Most kidney stones are made up primarily of ____.

a)

calcium oxalate

b)

calcium phosphate

c)

uric acid

d)

amino acid cystine

194.

Which abnormality is characterized by elevated urinary oxalate levels?

a)

hypochlorhydria

b)

hypoxemia

c)

hypercapnia

d)

hyperoxaluria

195.

Which type of kidney stones is composed primarily of magnesium ammonium phosphate and form in alkaline urine?

a)

cystine

b)

struvite

c)

uric acid

d)

calcium oxalate

196.

In peritoneal dialysis, the dialysate is infused into a catheter that empties into the peritoneal space, which is the space within the ____.

a)

stomach

b)

kidneys

c)

blood vessles

d)

abdomen near the intestines

197.

A condition caused by significant urinary protein losses (more than 3 to 3½ grams daily) as a result of severe glomerular damage is called _____.

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

nephrotic syndrome

c)

hypoalbuminemia

d)

uremia

198.

Which food is appropriate for a person on a low-sodium diet?

a)

olives

b)

biscuits

c)

cottage cheese

d)

yogurt

199.

Which condition is an example of an intrarenal cause of acute kidney injury?

a)

kidney stones

b)

shock

c)

anti-hypertensive medications

d)

heart failure

200.

Elevated _____ levels are of particular concern with acute kidney injury because imbalances can alter heart rhythm and lead to heart failure.q

a)

sodium

b)

magnesium

c)

chloride

d)

potassium

201.

Which food is an example of a source of high potassium per serving?

a)

beets

b)

cauliflower

c)

green pepper

d)

eggplants

202.

Prednisone, a corticosteroid used following a kidney transplant, works to _____.

a)

reduce inflammation

b)

reduce blood clots

c)

reduce blood lipids

d)

alleviate edema

203.

Foods high in purines, such as _____, should be avoided by patients with gout.

a)

roast beef

b)

bananas

c)

white rice

d)

cucumbers

204.

Which nutrition recommendation should be given to a patient suffering from calcium oxalate kidney stones?

a)

Increase intake of fruits such as grapefruit, oranges, and pineapple.

b)

Limit sodium intake to no more than 2300 mg per day.

c)

Decrease intake of calcium-rich foods.

d)

Increase intake of foods that contain vitamin C.

205.

Which of the following is not a function of the kidneys?

a)

activation of vitamin k

b)

Maintenance of acid–base balance

c)

Elimination of metabolic waste products

d)

Maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balances

206.

The nephrotic syndrome frequently results in:

a)

the uremic syndrome

b)

oliguria

c)

edema

d)

renal colic

207.

What is a common treatment for hyperkalemia?

a)

Eliminating potassium from the diet

b)

Using potassium-wasting diuretics to increase potassium losses

c)

Increasing fluid intake to maintain a high urine volume

d)

Using potassium-exchange resins, which bind potassium in the GI tract

208.

If a patient with acute kidney injury should require a high protein intake, which additional treatment may be necessary?

a)

frequent dialysis

b)

diuretics

c)

enteral nutrition support

d)

fluid restriction

209.

A person with chronic kidney disease who has been following a renal diet for several years begins hemodialysis treatment. An appropriate dietary adjustment would be to:

a)

reduce protein intake

b)

consume protein more liberally

c)

increase intakes of sodium and water

d)

consume potassium and phosphorus more freely

210.

Treatment for all kidney stones includes:

a)

dietary oxalate restriction.

b)

dietary protein restriction

c)

vitamin C supplementation

d)

a fluid intake that produces at least 2 liters of urine daily.

211.

Cancers are diseases characterized by ____.

a)

an altered immune system due to a virus in body fluids

b)

uncontrolled growth of a group of abnormal cells

c)

weakness and loss of muscle mass due to abnormal muscle proteins

d)

a whole-body inflammatory response to an infection

212.

Which type of cancers arises from epithelial tissue?

a)

myelomas

b)

sarcomas

c)

leukemia

d)

carcinomas

213.

Which type of cancers arises from plasma cells in the bone marrow?

a)

myelomas

b)

sarcomas

c)

leukemias

d)

carcinomas

214.

When a tumor is cancerous, it is referred to as being ____.

a)

carcinogenic

b)

benign

c)

malignant

d)

matastatic

215.

Asbestos is an environmental factor that increases the risk of developing which type of cancer?

a)

kidney

b)

liver

c)

skin

d)

lung

216.

Lymphocytes that have a specific protein called CD4 on their surfaces and are the cells most affected in HIV infection are referred to as ____.

a)

malignant cells

b)

tumor cells

c)

B cells

d)

helper T cells

217.

Without treatment, AIDS develops in most HIV-infected persons within ____ years, although it can progress more quickly in some individuals.

a)

3-5

b)

7-10

c)

12-15

d)

15-20

218.

Which oral infection, commonly associated with HIV infection, is caused by a fungal infection on the mucous membranes of the oral cavity and often contributes to poor food intake?

a)

candidiasis

b)

herpes simplex virus

c)

Kaposi's sarcoma

d)

lipodystrophy

219.

The agreement of a mentally competent patient to undergo a treatment that has been adequately disclosed is considered ____.

a)

informed consent

b)

living will

c)

durable power of attorney

d)

distributive justice

220.

Low levels of physical activity are most commonly associated with which type of cancer?

a)

Esophageal

b)

Pancreatic

c)

Lung

d)

Colon

221.

A patient with stomach cancer has been encouraged to increase his kcalorie intake to avoid weight loss and wasting. Which suggestion is most appropriate to increase kcalorie intake?

a)

Replace whole fat milk with skim milk or water

b)

Avoid peanut butter and other nuts.

c)

Avoid caffeine in the morning or the late evening.

d)

Choose high-fat meat instead of lean meat.

222.

AIDS enteropathy is most commonly manifested as _____.

a)

abdominal pain and rectal bleeding

b)

diarrhea and weight loss

c)

abdominal bloating and flatulence

d)

rectal fissures and constipation

223.

Which of these dietary substances may help to protect against cancer?

a)

alcohol

b)

well-cooked meat

c)

animal fat

d)

fruits and veggies

224.

The metabolic changes that often accompany cancer include all of the following except:

a)

increased muscle protein synthesis

b)

increased protein turnover.

c)

increased triglyceride breakdown.

d)

insulin resistance.

225.

Although many cancer patients lose weight, which type of cancer is often associated with weight gain?

a)

kidney

b)

colon

c)

breast

d)

lung