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Topic 3 Genetics

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 3hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statements are characteristics of alleles?

I. Alleles differ significantly in number of base pairs.

II. Alleles are specific forms of a gene.

III. New alleles are formed by mutation.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

2.

The system of sex determination in chimpanzees (Pan troglodytes) is the same as in other mammals. A chimpanzee has 48 chromosomes in the nuclei of its body cells.

What can be deduced from this information?

a)

The sex of the chimpanzee

b)

The number of genes in each chromosome

c)

Whether non-disjunction has occurred

d)

The number of autosomes in a diploid cell

3.

Which statement correctly describes genome and proteome?

a)

Only the genome but not the proteome can be analysed using gel electrophoresis.

b)

The genome and the proteome are the same in all tissues in an organism.

c)

In cells of different tissues, the genome is the same while the proteome varies.

d)

Only mutations in the proteome but not in the genome cause any variability.

4.

Some yeast genes can be replaced by human genes that then continue to produce the same human proteins in the yeast cells. Which statement helps to explain this evidence?

a)

The DNA of yeast and humans is identical.

b)

Yeast and humans have the same number of chromosomes.

c)

The genetic code is universal.

d)

Yeast and humans are both eukaryotes.

5.

What determines the genomic size of a species?

a)

The total amount of DNA

b)

The total number of genes

c)

The total number of alleles

d)

The total number of chromosomes

6.

What distinguishes an allele from a gene?

a)

An allele is made of RNA.

b)

An allele is shorter.

c)

An allele is a variety of a gene.

d)

An allele cannot be transferred during genetic modification.

7.

What is the effect of dominant alleles?

I. They mask the effect of recessive alleles.

II. They become more frequent than recessive alleles in a population.

III. They have a joint effect with recessive alleles when characteristics are co-dominant.

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II and III

8.

A pregnant woman had fetal cells removed by chorionic villus sampling and tested. The following karyogram was produced.

What does this show?

a)

The child is female with Down syndrome.

b)

The child is female without Down syndrome.

c)

The child is male with Down syndrome.

d)

The child is male without Down syndrome.

9.

The image shows chromosomes from an insect (2 n = 8).

Which pair of chromosomes are the sex chromosomes of this insect species?

a)

c and e

b)

a and h

c)

f and h

d)

a and e

10.

What is the same in all parts of homologous chromosomes?

a)

Base pair sequence

b)

Alleles

c)

Sequence of genes

d)

Deletions

11.

For what purpose is a karyogram used?

a)

To identify gene loci in a species

b)

To identify linked genes in the chromosomes of an individual

c)

To identify the genome size of a species

d)

To identify abnormal chromosomes in an individual

12.

The image shows a karyogram.

What information can be determined from this karyogram?

a)

The sex is female.

b)

The haploid number is 54.

c)

Disjunction occurred during meiosis.

d)

The species is not human.

13.

Which is a characteristic of the pairs of sister chromatids that are visible during meiosis?

a)

They result from the replication of DNA before meiosis.

b)

They are only present in meiosis I.

c)

They split apart during metaphase I in meiosis.

d)

They are only present in meiosis II.

14.

Which is a characteristic of the haploid number of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

It doubles in mitosis.

b)

It is fixed for each species.

c)

It is an even number for all species.

d)

It is positively correlated with an animal’s mass.

15.

The diploid number of chromosomes in humans (Homo sapiens) is 46 and the diploid number of chromosomes in rice (Oryza sativa) is 24. What does this indicate about diploid chromosome numbers?

a)

Plant species have a lower diploid number of chromosomes than animals.

b)

Members of a species have the same diploid number of chromosomes.

c)

The evolutionary progress of species is determined by the diploid number of chromosomes.

d)

The complexity of the organisms is correlated to the diploid number of chromosomes.

16.

What is characteristic of homologous chromosomes?

a)

They have an identical DNA sequence.

b)

They are of the same length in karyograms.

c)

They form pairs in prokaryotes.

d)

They carry the same alleles.

17.

What is a possible source of the chromosomes used for prenatal karyotype diagnosis?

a)

The mother’s lymphocytes

b)

The mother’s cheek cells

c)

The cells from chorionic villi

d)

The fetal hair root cells

18.

What causes the presence of three chromosomes 21 in Down syndrome?

a)

Crossing over

b)

Allele change

c)

Non-disjunction

d)

Gene mutation

19.

What is a characteristic of the human Y chromosome?

a)

It is made of DNA and histones covered by phospholipids.

b)

It contains some genes that are not present on the X chromosome.

c)

It is the largest chromosome in the human karyotype.

d)

It has a condensed length of approximately 100 µm.

20.

At which stage of meiosis are bivalents formed?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Metaphase II

21.

The graph shows the incidence of trisomy resulting from non-disjunction in pregnancies at different maternal ages.

What can be inferred from the graph?

a)

The incidence of three copies of a chromosome increases directly in proportion with the age of the mother.

b)

The incidence of three sets of chromosomes increases from age 20.

c)

The incidence of three copies of a chromosome increases the most from age 35.

d)

The incidence of three sets of chromosomes increases the most from age 30.

22.

What helps make the genome of each human unique?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

23.

What happens during meiosis I and meiosis II?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

24.

What forms when two different chromatids of the same homologous pair cross over?

a)

Daughter centromere

b)

Chiasma

c)

Chromosome mutation

d)

Telomere

25.

Which process could cause non-disjunction if it occurred during meiosis?

a)

Sister chromatids do not align in metaphase I.

b)

Homologous chromosomes do not separate in anaphase I.

c)

Sister chromatids do not align in metaphase II.

d)

Homologous chromosomes do not separate in anaphase II.

26.

The micrographs show four different phases from meiosis II. What is the correct order?

a)

3-4-2-1

b)

2-3-4-1

c)

4-3-2-1

d)

4-2-3-1

27.

During which phase of the first division of meiosis can non-disjunction take place and what structure is affected by the non-disjunction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

28.

What description is matched with the correct phase in meiosis I?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

29.

What event occurs only in meiosis?

a)

Fusion of gametes to promote genetic variation

b)

Random separation of chromatids

c)

Random separation of homologous chromosomes

d)

Replication of chromosomes

30.

What is the chromosome number in a human gamete with non-disjunction?

a)

46

b)

45

c)

24

d)

23

31.

A variety of Pelargonium has yellow leaves. When plants of this variety are crossed, the resulting seeds produce green, yellow and white seedlings in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1. If plants with yellow leaves are crossed with plants with green leaves, what would the expected ratio of phenotypes in the offspring be?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

32.

A pair of alleles controls the secretion of antigens corresponding to blood group in saliva. Examine the pedigree chart.

Based on this pedigree chart, which best describes the allele conferring antigen secretion in saliva?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Sex-linked

d)

Co-dominant

33.

The pedigree chart shows the inheritance of hemophilia in some of the descendants of Queen Victoria. Which letter points to a family member certain to be heterozygous?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

34.

Creeper in chickens is a condition in which the chickens are born with very short legs. The creeper allele (C) is dominant over the normal allele (c). Embryos which are homozygous for the dominant allele fail to develop into viable chickens and die before they hatch. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the live offspring of a cross between two creeper chickens?

a)

All creeper

b)

1 creeper; 2 normal

c)

2 creeper; 1 normal

d)

3 creeper; 1 normal

35.

Which pedigree chart is consistent with the inheritance of red-green colour blindness?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

The pedigree chart shows a family affected by cystic fibrosis.

What is the genotype of the affected boy’s father?

a)

AA only

b)

Either AA or Aa

c)

Aa only

d)

aa only

37.

The children in a family have blood groups A, B and O. What are the genotypes of their parents?

a)

IAIA and IBi

b)

IAi and IBi

c)

IAIB and ii

d)

IAIB and IBi

38.

The image shows the chromosomes in four cells of an insect at the end of meiosis.

What is the diploid number of this insect?

a)

16

b)

8

c)

4

d)

2

39.

A human gene has two alleles. One allele, P, is dominant over the recessive allele p. Embryos that are homozygous for the dominant allele die in the uterus. What is the expected ratio of genotypes for the live offspring of a heterozygous man and a heterozygous woman?

a)

1 : 1

b)

2 : 1

c)

3 : 1

d)

4 : 0

40.

In cats, black coat colour is dominant over gray. A female black cat, whose mother is gray, mates with a gray male. What is the predicted ratio of phenotypes in the offspring?

a)

100 % black

b)

50 % black to 50 % gray

c)

75 % black to 25 % gray

d)

100 % gray

41.

What explains the presence in living humans of DNA sections which are identical to DNA found in Neanderthals who lived 40 000 years ago?

a)

Genetic mutation

b)

Inheritance

c)

Adaptation

d)

Speciation

42.

What is the percentage risk of a child inheriting Huntington’s disease if only one parent has the disease?

a)

0 %

b)

25 %

c)

50 %

d)

100 %

43.

What contributes to the total DNA content of a zygote?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.

Nail patella syndrome is a rare disease that causes abnormalities of the nails and some bones. Its alleles are linked to the blood group alleles on the same chromosome. The pedigree chart shows the inheritance of these two characteristics over three generations.

a)

Generation III has 1 individual

b)

Generation III has 4 individuals

c)

Generation II has 5 individuals

d)

Generation II has 13 individuals

45.

An allele for lactase persistence allows humans to digest milk as adults. People who lack this allele are lactose intolerant in adulthood.

What is the pattern of inheritance?

a)

Lactase persistence is sex-linked recessive.

b)

Lactase persistence is autosomal recessive.

c)

Lactase persistence is sex-linked dominant.

d)

Lactase persistence is autosomal dominant.

46.

A dominant autosomal allele for lactase persistence allows humans to digest milk as adults. People who lack this allele are lactose intolerant in adulthood.

If J and K have a child L, what is the probability that L will be lactase persistent?

a)

25 %

b)

50 %

c)

75 %

d)

100 %

47.

A child has blood group A. The father of the child has blood group B. What are the possible genotypes of the mother?

I. IAIA

II. IAIB

III. IAi

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

48.

Some breeds of dogs are characterized by the presence of a melanistic mask, which is a darkening of the fur near the nose, as shown by the arrow in this photograph.

Which outcome is matched with a valid conclusion if dogs that were pure breeding for melanistic masks were crossed with dogs without melanistic masks?

a)

If 0 % of the puppies have a mask, the character is recessive.

b)

If 25 % of the puppies have a mask, the character is dominant.

c)

If 75 % of the puppies have a mask, the character is dominant.

d)

If 100 % of the puppies have a mask, the character is recessive.

49.

The diagram shows a pedigree of cystic fibrosis, in which the black colour indicates the presence of cystic fibrosis.

What is the probability that the individual labelled X is a carrier of cystic fibrosis?

a)

1.00

b)

0.50

c)

0.25

d)

0.00

50.

What proves that the inheritance of the condition shown in this pedigree chart is autosomal recessive and not autosomal dominant?

a)

There is no affected person in generation I.

b)

Both males and females are affected.

c)

Two unaffected parents have a child that is affected.

d)

Not everybody in generation III is affected.

51.

What is the major health issue resulting from the Chernobyl nuclear accident in 1986?

a)

Coronary thrombosis

b)

Cholera

c)

Sex-linked diseases

d)

Thyroid cancer

52.

It is possible for two parents to have children with each of the four ABO blood groups. What blood groups would the parents have?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

53.

In a person who is heterozygous for sickle-cell anemia, where is the mutation found?

a)

In every gamete produced

b)

Only in gametes carrying an X chromosome

c)

In all brain cells

d)

In blood plasma

54.

In a human with type A blood, what determines the blood group?

a)

Sex chromosomes

b)

One or two alleles

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Codominant alleles

55.

In a person who is heterozygous for sickle-cell anemia, where is the mutation found?

a)

In every gamete produced

b)

Only in gametes carrying an X chromosome

c)

In all brain cells

d)

In blood plasma

56.

In a human with type A blood, what determines the blood group?

a)

Sex chromosomes

b)

One or two alleles

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Codominant alleles

57.

Which individuals are colour blind in this Punnett grid?

a)

XB Y

b)

XB XB

c)

Xb Y

d)

XB Xb

58.

What maximum number of different genotypes and phenotypes are possible among the children of a mother with blood group A and a father with blood group B?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.

What is PCR used for?

a)

Separate fragments of DNA by size

b)

Amplify small amounts of DNA

c)

Compare DNA samples

d)

Genetically modify organisms’ DNA

60.

Genetically modified maize, called Bt maize, is thought to be affecting the monarch butterfly (Danaus plexippus) in the USA. What is the reason for this?

a)

The monarch butterfly feeds on maize nectar, which contains Bt toxin.

b)

The monarch caterpillar feeds on maize leaves, which contain Bt toxin.

c)

Bt toxin kills the plants that the monarch caterpillar usually eats.

d)

Bt toxin is in maize pollen, which blows on to plants that the monarch caterpillar eats.

61.

Two restriction endonucleases (EcoRI and BamHI) were used to cut a DNA sample into smaller fragments. These were then subjected to gel electrophoresis and the results are shown. The lengths of the DNA fragments are measured in kilobases (kb). One kilobase is 1000 DNA bases.

Which statement is supported by the data?

a)

The DNA sample is approximately 16 kb in size.

b)

Each endonuclease produces a 2 kb fragment.

c)

Both endonucleases produce the same number of fragments.

d)

The fragments produced using both endonucleases are all different from those produced by the individual endonucleases.

62.

Ampicillin (Amp) is an antibiotic. A plasmid carrying a gene for Amp resistance was used to transform bacteria in a tube of broth. A control tube without plasmid was also produced. The results were plated as shown. Which plate has only colonies of transformed bacteria?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

63.

Sanger developed a method for determining DNA base sequences using terminating nucleotides called dideoxyribonucleotides. After an incubation period, the DNA samples are run on an electrophoresis gel. Results are shown in the diagram.

What is the base sequence of the original DNA template strand?

a)

A C G C C C G A G T A G C C C A G A T T

b)

U G C G G G C U C A U C G G G U C U A A

c)

A C G C C C G A G U A G C C C A G A U U

d)

T G C G G G C T C A T C G G G T C T A A

64.

Which technique is used to amplify very small samples of DNA?

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel electrophoresis

c)

PCR

d)

DNA profiling

65.

HindIII is an endonuclease that recognizes the sequence A A G C T T, cutting between the two adenines.

Into how many DNA fragments would the strand shown be cut by HindIII?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

66.

Which is a possible risk associated with a genetic modification of crops?

a)

Crop plants will become weaker with time.

b)

It can increase mutations in the organisms that consume them.

c)

Starch obtained from genetically modified plants will be more difficult to digest.

d)

Resistance to herbicide genes can be transferred to weeds.

67.

What is produced by somatic-cell nuclear transfer?

a)

Adult sheep

b)

Cloned embryos

c)

Rooted stem-cuttings

d)

Genetically modified food

68.

Which technique separates proteins according to size?

a)

Treatment with restriction endonucleases

b)

PCR

c)

Gel electrophoresis

d)

DNA profiling

69.

Which sequence of DNA would be suitable in DNA profiling?

a)

---ATTCGTGAATCAGCC--

b)

---ATTCGTGAATTTGCC--

c)

---ATTCGTGATTGCAGC--

d)

---ATTCGTGATTCGTGA--

70.

Laboratory analysis of DNA from a 40 000 year old woolly mammoth used the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). What role did the PCR have in the analysis?

a)

DNA denaturation

b)

DNA comparison

c)

DNA separation

d)

DNA amplification

71.

How are enzymes used during gene transfer involving plasmids?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

72.

What was an aim of genetic modification of organisms?

a)

To provide stem cells from embryos for medical use

b)

To make crop plants resistant to herbicides

c)

To provide sperm cells for in vitro fertilization (IVF)

d)

To produce genetically identical sheep

73.

What is a definition of a clone?

a)

A group of cells derived from a single parent cell

b)

Differentiated cells that retain the capacity to divide

c)

A fetus developed specifically for medical use

d)

A group of cells that have lost the ability to differentiate

74.

What was an aim of genetic modification of organisms?

a)

To provide stem cells from embryos for medical use

b)

To make crop plants resistant to herbicides

c)

To provide sperm cells for in vitro fertilization (IVF)

d)

To produce genetically identical sheep

75.

A colour blind man and a woman carrier for colour blindness have a son. What is the probability that their son will be colour blind?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

76.

A DNA profile was made of one individual in a paternity suit. Locus B was used to distinguish between this individual and other individuals. The individual had two alleles of the gene at locus B which are shown below. Gel electrophoresis was used to separate and visualize the alleles B3 and B5. The gel, with two bands of DNA, is shown below. What DNA is in bands 1 and 2?

a)

Band 1 is a mix of B3+B5; Band 2 is B3 only

b)

Band 1 is a mix of B3+B5; Band 2 is B5 only

c)

Band 1 is B5 only; Band 2 is B3 only

d)

Band 1 is B3 only; Band 2 is B5 only