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Phar 504 Mid-term review (exclude substance abuse/Geriatrics

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When treating a patient with insomnia, what is the 1st step that should be considered? (Hint: slide 18)

a)

Try sleep hygiene

b)

Try CBT

c)

Identify the cause

d)

Use a hypnotic

2.

According to the AASM guideline for treating chronic insomnia, which of the following is recommended for difficulty in falling asleep? (Hint: slide 17)

a)

Trazodone

b)

Zolpidem

c)

Temazepam

d)

Ramelteon

3.

According to the AASM guideline, which of the following is not recommended to be used for chronic insomnia?

a)

Eszopiclone

b)

Trazodone

c)

Melatonin

d)

Diphenhydramine

4.

Which of the following agent used for insomnia is a controlled substance and is associated with dependency potential/ abuse potential?

a)

Ramelteon

b)

Zolpidem

c)

Temazepam

d)

Suvorexant

5.

Suvorexant is contraindicated in patients with ________.

a)

Nacrolepsy

b)

Heart failure

c)

Stroke

d)

Depression

6.

What is the brand name of Zolpidem?

a)

Ambien

b)

Zolpimist

c)

Edluar

d)

Intermezzo

7.

What is the brand name of Zaleplon?

a)

Sonata

b)

Trazodone

c)

Ambien

d)

Lunasta

8.

What is the brand name of Eszopiclone?

(a)  

9.

what is the initial starting dose for Zolpidem?

a)

1mg

b)

2mg

c)

4mg

d)

5mg

10.

What is a side effect of Zaleplon?

a)

Dizziness

b)

Somnolence

c)

Ataxia

d)

Sleep walking

11.

Which benzodiazepine does not have active metabolites?

a)

Lorazepam

b)

Temazepam

c)

Diazepam

d)

Quazepam

12.

Sleep apnea is a type of sleep disorder. What is the treatment approach for sleep apnea?

a)

CPAP

b)

Lose weight if obese

c)

Zolpidem

d)

Benzodiazepine

13.

Which of the following is characteristic of tension headache?

a)

Severe headache

b)

Throbbing

c)

Billateral

d)

Feeling of pressure and tightness

14.

Which of the following is characteristics of migraine headache?

a)

May or may not present with aura

b)

pulsating / throbbing

c)

last for 4-72 hours

d)

may accompanied with photophobia, N/V

15.

Some migraine headache is associated with severe nausea at onset. What adjunct drug therapy can be used to help?

a)

Antiemetics (Metoclopramide-Reglan)

b)

Antidepressants (Amitriptyline- Elavil)

c)

Topiramate (Topamax)

d)

Atenolol (Tenormin)

16.

What is the brand name for sumatriptan?

a)

Imitrex

b)

Onzetra

c)

Sumavel DosePro

d)

Xsail

e)

Zembrace

17.

What formulations does Sumatriptan comes in?

a)

Oral tablet

b)

Nasal spray

c)

Nsal powder

d)

SQ injection

e)

Needle free injection

18.

Which of the following onset of action and dosage forms of sumatriptan is correct?

a)

tablet - onset 2 hours

b)

injection - onset 10 minutes

c)

nasal spray - onset 1 hour

d)

nasal powder - onset 10-15 mins

19.

Which of the following Triptan comes in ODT formulation?

a)

Almotriptan

b)

Sumatriptan

c)

Rizatriptan

d)

Naratiptan

20.

Which of the following is a side effect of Triptans?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Hot/cold sensation

c)

chest discomfort

d)

Paresthesia

21.

What are the contraindications of using a Triptan?

a)

Ischemic heart diseae

b)

Stroke

c)

concurrent use with Selegine

d)

Chronic renal disease

22.

Which of the following patient should be prescribed Naloxone kit when they are on opioid for chronic pain? (Hint: slide 53)

a)

History of overdose

b)

Opioid dosage > or = 50 MME/day

c)

history of substance abuse

d)

concurrent use of NSAIDs

23.

A patient started on Morphine and presented with which of these is indicative of true allergic reaction?

a)

Itching

b)

Difficulty breathing

c)

Hives

d)

wheezing

24.

Which medication can be given if a patient has a true allergy to Morphine?

a)

Codeine

b)

Hydrocodone

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Oxycodone

25.

Which opioid comes in a transdermal patch?

a)

Morphine

b)

Codeine

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Hydrocodone

26.

What is the generic name for Motrin?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Ketorolac

d)

Lidocaine

27.

What is the generic name of Voltaren?

(a)  

28.

Which of the following NSAIDs is a COX-2 inhibitor?

a)

Naprosyn

b)

Celecoxib

c)

Indomethacin

d)

Aspirin

29.

ADR of NSAIDs include:

a)

GI bleed

b)

Acute renal failure

c)

Increase risk for fatal MI and stroke

d)

Fluid retention, worsening of congestive heart failure

30.

What is the brand name for Morphine?

a)

MS Contin

b)

Avinza

c)

Kadian

d)

Norco

31.

What is the brand name of formulations containing Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen?

a)

Norco

b)

Lorcet

c)

Hysingla ER

d)

Oxycodone

32.

A patient who is taking Vicodin 5mg/325mg 2 tablets every 8 hours. What is his morphine mg equivalent per day?

a)

10mg

b)

20mg

c)

30mg

d)

60mg

33.

What is the controlled substance class of Oxycodone?

a)

C-I

b)

C-II

c)

C-III

d)

C-IV

34.

According to CDC guidelines on prescribing opioids for chronic pain (exclude cancer and palliative patients), which of the following opioid formulation is not recommended?

a)

Immediate release

b)

extended release

35.

A patient is taking oxycodone ER 10mg Q12H and oxycodone IR 15mg 1 tab Q6H prn (take 4 -IR tablets per day). What is his Morphine mg equivalent per day?

a)

80mg

b)

120mg

c)

160mg

d)

320mg

36.

Which opioids can be used in PCA?

a)

Hydrocodone

b)

Morphine

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Codeine

37.

Which of the following is ADR associated with opioid?

a)

Repiratory depression

b)

Constipation

c)

Addiction

d)

Pruritus, itching skin

38.

What is the goal of therapy in pain management for a patient in palliative/hospice care with end stage dementia and metastatic cancer?

a)

Comfort care

b)

increase physical activity

c)

decrease drug abuse potential

39.

What is the goal of pain therapy for a patient who underwent hip replacement and is planning to participate in physicial therapy?

a)

Pain control during PT sessions

b)

comfort care

c)

reduce opioid aberrant behavior

40.

Opioids should not be used together with:

a)

Selegiline

b)

Alcohol

c)

Lorazepam

d)

Ibuprofen

41.

A patient takes hydromorphone ER 32mg QD + IR 4mg every 6 hours as needed (three IR tablets/day). What is his morphine mg equivalent?

a)

44mg

b)

88mg

c)

176mg

d)

240mg

42.

What clinical tools are used to evaluate functional status and cognitive function for patient with Alzheimer's disease?

a)

MMSE

b)

MOCA

c)

ADL

d)

Sleep study

43.

Which of the following is clinical presentation of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Memory loss

b)

apraxia

c)

impaired executive function

d)

fall

44.

What is the brand name of Donepezil?

a)

Exelon

b)

Aricept

c)

Namenda

d)

Sinemet

45.

What is the initial daily starting dose of Aricept?

a)

1mg

b)

2mg

c)

5mg

d)

10mg

46.

ADR associated with rivastigmine include:

a)

N/V/D

b)

Weight loss

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Constipation

47.

What is the medication class of memantine?

a)

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

b)

NMDA antagonist

c)

dopamine agonist

d)

COMT inhibitor

48.

Namenda is indicated for:

a)

Mild to moderate AD

b)

Moderate to severe AD

c)

Pre-clinical AD

49.

Clinical presentation of Parkinson's disease include:

a)

bradykinesia

b)

orthostatic hypotension

c)

resting tremor

d)

diarrhea

50.

What is the medication class of bromocriptine?

a)

COMT inhibitor

b)

Dopamine agonist

c)

Anticholinergic

d)

MAO B inhibitor

51.

What is the medication class of Entacapone?

a)

COMT inhibitor

b)

Dopamine agonist

c)

MAO B inhibitor

d)

Anticholinergic

52.

Name a MAO B inhibitor that comes in brand name Eldepryl:

(a)  

53.

What is the generic name of a dopamin agonist with the brand name Mirapex?

a)

Ropinirole

b)

Pramipexole

c)

Apomorphine

d)

Bromocriptine

54.

Which of the following is a common side effect of Sinemet?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Hypertension

c)

Dyskinesia

d)

Insomnia

55.

A patient presented with a transient loss of consciousness, with an abrupt onset and termination. unaccompanied by motor phenomena except for eye flickering. What kind of seizure is this?

a)

Absence

b)

Myoclonic

c)

Tonic

d)

Tonic-clonic

56.

A patient presents with rhythmical contraction of muscle groups following a tonic phase. What kind of seizure is this?

a)

Absence

b)

Myoclonic

c)

Tonic

d)

Tonic-clonic

57.

Which of the following is a trigger to seizure?

a)

Lack of sleep

b)

Use of bupropion

c)

Emotional stress

d)

Hyperventilation

58.

Which of the following agent is only approved for use in absence seizure?

a)

Phenobarbital

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Valproate

d)

Ethosuximide

59.

Check the antiseizure drug that needs to have drug levels monitored:

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Valproic acid

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Phenobarbital

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