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Micro Exam 1 (16-18)

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is considered to be the most important factor for stimulating a protective immune response against the streptococci?

a)

The Lancefield group antigens

b)

M-protein and other surface protein antigens

c)

Superantigens produced by some of the streptococci

d)

Capsular polysaccharides

e)

Teichoic acids

2.

Eradication of Streptococcus agalactiae from an infected dairy cow herd:

a)

Is not possible becasue the cows get re-infected from human carriers

b)

Requires that all cows in the herd be treated with intra-mammary penicillin or other suitable antibiotics

c)

Usually requires bacterial culture of every quarter of every cow three times and treatment of only the positive cows

d)

Can only be successful if all cows are immunized prior to entering the milking herd

3.

Bacterial endotoxin

a)

Is bound to BD14 on the surface of macrophages by LPS-binding protein

b)

Can be detoxified by LPS-binding protein linking it to serum proteins

c)

Requires TLR4 as a co-receptor

d)

All of the above

e)

Only a and b

4.

Which of the following is NOT a bacterial superantigen?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxins

b)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1

c)

Streptolysin S

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes erythrogenic toxin

e)

Staphylococcus aureus exfoliative toxin

5.

Which of the following is a facultative intracellular pathogen?

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Streptococcus agalactiae

c)

Bacillus anthracis

d)

Streptococcus equi subspecies equi

6.

Most bacterial antigens are broken down and processed exogenously

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Antigens from a replicating virus are processed endogenously but can also be processed exogenously

a)

True

b)

False

8.

A T-helper 2 immune cell response leads primarily to an antibody response.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Staphylococcus aureus is an obligate intramammary pathogen

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Valvular endocarditis can occur with many streptococcal infections

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Streptococcus canis is more likely to cause wound infections in cats than it is in dogs.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Most attempts to develop efficacious immunizing against the streptococci have not yet yielded good results

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Most alpha-hemolytic streptococci are susceptible to penicillin

a)

True

b)

False

14.

MALDI-TOF-MS identifies bacteria based on large proteins and carbohydrates

a)

True

b)

False

15.

16s rRNA homology is good for determining relationships between diverse groups of bacteria

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Penicillins and cephalosporins bind to bacterial transpeptidases

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Beta-lactam antimicrobials break the Beta-1,4 binding in peptidoglycan

a)

True

b)

False

18.

4-Fluoroquinolones inhibit bacterial DNA-gyrase

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Detergents and soaps kill staphylococci by destroying the binding in peptidoglycan

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Bacterial fimbria are composed mainly of carbohydrates

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Biofilms are essentially bacterial micro-colonies that attach to catheters, bone plates, etc.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Most bacterial growth is inhibited by the presence of carbon dioxide

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The intestinal microbiome has been shown to affect proper neurologic function in humans

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Proteinaceous bacterial adhesins usually attach to specific ligands on mucosal surfaces

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Bacteria that colonize or invade mucosal epithelial cells do not stimulate memory T-cells.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Killed bacteria are good at stimulating an IgA response

a)

True

b)

False

27.

IgM is important for defense against organisms that have polysaccharides on their surface.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

IgM has the longest half-life of all the immunoglobulins due to its large size.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Most bacterial infections occur at sites that have relatively poor immune defenses

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Bacterial phospholipases can only act on specific cell types that have protein ligands to which the phospholipase can bind

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Alpha hemolysis can only be caused by alpha hemolysin

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Lethal factor of Bacillus anthracis cleaves MAPK/ERK kinase which is required for signal transduction in CD4+ T-cells and fibroblasts

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Anthrax is most commonly a problem in herbivores

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Type ______ secretion systems utilize an "injectosome" that is functionally similar tot he basal body of bacterial flagella

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

35.

Type ______ secretion systems are analogous to bacterial conjugation

a)

II

b)

III

c)

IV

d)

V

36.

Streptococcus agalactiae is only susceptible to penicillin or other beta-lactam antimicrobials

a)

True

b)

False

37.

The term "Group A Streptococcus" is synonymous with the name Streptococcus pyogenes.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Streptococcus equi can be in several Lancefield groups but possesses only one dominant M-protein.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Development of strangles in horses usually requires some immunosuppression or traumatic introduction.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Streptococcus equi subspecies zooepidemicus is considered to be a commensal of the skin, mucous membranes, and tonsils of horses.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Antibiotics active against bacteria are limited to those that inhibit protein synthesis or peptidoglycan synthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

The antimicrobial with the widest zone of inhibition on a Kirby-Bauer test is the best drug to choose to treat an infection.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Antimicrobial breakpoints have been established for most domestic animal pathogens

a)

True

b)

False

44.

An antibiotic that is bacteriostatic for one organism can be bactericidal for another organism

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Antigens of facultative intracellular bacteria are exclusively processed exogenously

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Most bacterial antigens tend to stimulate both Th1 and Th2 immune response at the same time

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Bacterial surface polysaccharides usually stimulate the production of IgG

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Recognition of a bacterial pathogen by antibody and subsequent fixation of complement is usually lethal to the pathogen

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Biovars of the same organism differ only in the composition of their dominant protein or polysaccharide antigens

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Pyelonephritis in cattle is associated with immunosuppression or predisposing factors

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Immunity against Listeria monocytogenes is primarily mediated by antibody and complement

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Toaster waffles contaminated with small numbers of non-pathogenic Listeria monocytogenes cannot be sold even though no disease has been associated with them because any food product containing unapproved bacteria is considered adulterated.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Listeriosis in humans is a superantigen disease

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Circling disease in ruminants most often occurs because of immunosuppression

a)

True

b)

False

55.

The natural habitat of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is the skin of swine and turkeys which accounts for the diamond skin form of the disease

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Streptococcus canis is more likely to cause disease in cats than it is in dogs.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) detects specific gene sequences in bacteria

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Some bacterial proteins are only produced if the bacteria are infected with a specific bacteriophage encoding the genes for production of those proteins

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Transpeptidation of peptidoglycan in gram negative bacteria is much more extensive than it is in gram positive bacteria

a)

True

b)

False

60.

A coordinate or global regulatory circuit responding to a single nutrient can be used by bacteria to regulate their metabolism and the production of many virulence factors

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Bacteria grow most rapidly in the log-phase of growth

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Most facultative intracellular bacteria genetically encode all active cell invasion mechanisms

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Facultative intracellular bacteria are often more hydrophobic than the plasma membranes of eukaryotic cells

a)

True

b)

False

64.

There is little to no monomeric IgA in the plasma of most mammals

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharide are mitogenic for B-cells

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Bacterial lipopolysaccharide:

a)

Is identical for all gram negative bacteria

b)

Is also called lipoteichoic acid

c)

Is composed of Lipid A, a core region and O-antigen side chains

d)

Is present in all gram positive bacteria

e)

Is usually the only major toxic component of most gram negative pathogens

67.

Matrix-assisted laser detected ionization-time of flight mass spectroscopy (MALDI-TOF-MS)

a)

Is good at detecting profiles of small, mostly ribosomal, proteins of bacterial and fungal pathogens.

b)

Usually detects larger, more complex, proteins

c)

Is best at detecting carbohydrate components of bacteria and fungi

d)

Is commonly used for serotyping (surface antigens) of bacteria and fungi

68.

Which of the following is a mechanism of action of one of the Bacillus anthracis toxins?

a)

Cholesterol sequestration

b)

Pore-forming hemolysin

c)

Inhibition of MAPK/ERK kinase

d)

Breakdown of phospholipids in cell membranes

e)

Direct activation of complement

69.

Which of the following produces crystalline proteins that act as pore-forming toxins with receptors on insect intestinal epithelium

a)

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

b)

Trueperella pyogenes

c)

Bacillus subtilis

d)

Bacillus cereus variety anthracis

e)

Bacillus thuringiensis

70.

Which of the following is most likely to be involved in survival inside an abscess

a)

Cerolysin O

b)

Listeriolysin O

c)

Coagulase

d)

Fibrinolysin

e)

Leukocidin

71.

Which of the following is NOT a known virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus?

a)

DNAse (nuclease)

b)

Delta hemolysin (detergent activity)

c)

Pyolysin (cholesterol-binding activity)

d)

Staphylokinase (lyses fibrin clots)

e)

Enterotoxins (food poisoning superantigens)

72.

Staphyloccus aureus that is resistant to penicillinase-resistant penicillins (PRP):

a)

Has an altered cell wall peptidoglycan

b)

Has one or more altered transpeptidase ensymes

c)

Has a higher concentration of M-protein on its surface

d)

Shuts down all metabolic activity when exposed to the PRP

73.

The Lancefield test:

a)

Measures antibody levels against M-protein of streptococci

b)

Measures antibody levels against carbohydrate antigens of staphylococci

c)

Measures the amount of carbohydrate antigens in streptococci

d)

Identifies the group-specific carbohydrate antigen of streptococci

e)

Identifies the type-specific antigens of streptococci

74.

Which of the following is a DNA-gyrase inhibiting antibiotic:

a)

A 4-fluroquinolone such as enrofloxacin or danofloxacin

b)

A beta-lactam such as amoxicillin

c)

An aminoglycoside such as gentamicin

d)

A sulfa drug such as sulfadimethoxine

e)

A long-acting macrolide such as Draxxin or Zuprevo

75.

Bacterial polysaccharide antigens most commonly:

a)

Stimulate an endogenous immune response

b)

Commonly stimulate high levels of IgG antibodies

c)

Commonly stimulate long-lasting memory

d)

Commonly stimulate a T-cell independent response

e)

Commonly stimulate a more rapid immune response than bacterial protein antigens

76.

Which of the following bacteria produces the most (thickest) capsular polysaccharide?

a)

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

b)

Rhodococcus equi

c)

Trueperella pyogenes

d)

Streptococcus suis

77.

Harvest of a bacterial antigen or whole-cell bacterin is LEAST likely to be done in which growth phase:

a)

Log

b)

Lag

c)

Stationary

d)

Death

e)

None of the above

78.

Mastitis caused by which of the following is usually not responsive to antimicrobial therapy?

a)

Trueperella pyogenes

b)

Streptococcus agalactiae

c)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

d)

Steptococcus dysgalactiae

79.

Which of the following organisms does not have soil or decaying plant material as a natural habitat?

a)

Rhodococcus equi

b)

Trueperella pyogenes

c)

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

d)

Corynebacterium renale

80.

Bacterial fimbriae are able to bridge the strong repulsive forces between bacterial polysaccharides and eukaryotic cells in part because of the small radius of curvature of the fimbriae

a)

True

b)

False

81.

A bacterium that produces catalase or peroxidase also produces hydrogen peroxide as a metabolic byproduct

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Bacterial F-antigens are otherwise known as flagellar antigens

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Capsular polysaccharides are usually highly antigenic and stimulate highly protective humoral immune responses.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Enterotoxins and endotoxins have the same basic mechanism of action

a)

True

b)

False

85.

One of the reasons gram negative bacteria are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy is the outer membrane is less permeable to hydrophobic and amphiphilic molecules

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Clavulanic acid is a commonly used beta-lactam antibiotic that has little antibacterial activity of its own

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Streptococci are the only organisms that grow in chains

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Bacterial spores are protected with a very thick cortex composed of peptidogylcan layer that is synthesized inside-out

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Bacillus cereus variety anthracis has two plasmids of Bacillus anthracis (pXO1 and pXO2)

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The genes encoding the insect toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis have been cloned into corn

a)

True

b)

False

91.

When Listeria monocytogenes multiplies in cell cytoplasm its antigens are exogenously processed by the immune system

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Septicemia is a common manifestation of erysipeloid in humans

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Infection with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae commonly presents as lameness in domestic animals

a)

True

b)

False

94.

The neutrophil is the primary cell type responsible for killing an obligate intracellular pathogen

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Staphylococci that produce beta or double-zone hemolysis are usually coagulase positive.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Systemic use of aminoglycosides in food producing animals is generally not allowed because of extremely long withdrawal times

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Normal flora are incapable of stimulating an immune response in their hosts even if injected parenterally.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Resistance to methicillin is commonly found in Staphylococcus aureus isolated from swine because of over-use of methicillin in swine

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Pregnancy and other immunosuppressive conditions predispose cattle and swine to infections caused by Corynebacterium renale and Actinobaculum suis respectively

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Lesions of caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats resolve rather quickly if injected with long-acting antibiotic

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is not usually pathogenic for humans.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Rhodococcus equi does not have a hemolysin but it does produce a substance that destabilizes red cell membranes

a)

True

b)

False

103.

IgA stimulated by exposure of a pathogen to the gut epithelium will be useless against that same organism attacking the mammary gland mucosa

a)

True

b)

False

104.

IgM has a long half life because it is such a large molecule compared to IgG or IgA.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Bacterial polysaccharides can fix complement directly which helps the host mount a protective immune response

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Antibody against a bacterial iron-biding protein can severely limit the growth of that bacterium

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Bactericidal antibiotics are always preferable to bacteriostatic antibiotics because bacteriostatic ones have to rely on the host immune system

a)

True

b)

False