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Therapeutic exercise: midterm practice

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A warm up is best described by which of the following?

a)

5-10 minute period of static stretching

b)

5-10 minute period of total body movements

c)

5-10 minute period of total body movements and dynamic stretching

d)

increased lactic acid in muscles

2.

The Oxidative Phosphorylation system is the steady state energy system in all activities (if reached) and is aerobic.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Which of the following occurs from bed rest?

a)

increase muscle mass

b)

orthostatic hypotension

c)

increase bone mineral density

d)

increased heart rate

4.

a person running for 90 seconds would use ATP-PC only

a)

False

b)

True

5.

Fitness is based on:

a)

energy expenditure during a bout of physical work

b)

ability of a muscle to exert force repeatedly

c)

distance that body weight is moved in 1 minute

d)

number of large muscles used during exercise

6.

To improve endurance in a healthy individual, which of the following is the best method?

a)

continuous

b)

interval

c)

circuit

d)

circuit interval

7.

The method of aerobic training that is characterized by a series of activities that are repeated several times in success

a)

circuit

b)

continuous

c)

interval

d)

circuit interval

8.

The frequency required to maintain a level of aerobic fitness is less than what is required to improve it.

a)

False

b)

True

9.

Significant aerobic positive changes can be generally measured in how many weeks?

a)

2-4

b)

6-8

c)

8-12

d)

14-16

10.

Aerobic exercise can slow the decrease in functional capacity of an elderly person.

a)

False

b)

True

11.

What % of the Max heart rate is required for a conditioning response of a healthy person?

a)

40-60%

b)

100%

c)

70%

d)

80-90%

12.

Interval training requires complete non active rest intervals to qualify as interval

a)

True

b)

False

13.

AHA and ACSM recommend this as the duration minimum for aerobic conditioning.

a)

10 minutes

b)

20 minutes

c)

30 minutes

d)

5 minutes

14.

Borgs scale of PRE would require this to achieve a training stimulus threshold in a healthy person.

a)

13

b)

17

c)

19

d)

6

15.

Duration of exercise is mostly dependent on frequency.

a)

False

b)

True

16.

a muscles ability to exert force

a)

strength

b)

endurance

c)

power

d)

cardiorespiratory endurance

17.

giving feedback to a patient should always include:

a)

explanation and prom

b)

verbal instruction through explanation

c)

demonstration

d)

written instruction

18.

Specificity applied to strength is:

a)

reps of 8-12

b)

reps of 15-50

c)

set of 1

d)

set of 5

19.

hypertrophy of a muscle will begin at:

a)

4-8 weeks

b)

10-12 weeks

c)

14 days

d)

immediate on training stimulus

20.

isokinetic exercise is most dependent on:

a)

speed of dynamometer

b)

output of patient

c)

perceived rate of exertion

d)

isometric contraction

21.

a muscle on a non used side can acquire up to 60% of performance effects from the used side

a)

cross over

b)

specificity

c)

overload

d)

progression

22.

progression of CKC exercises is NOT:

a)

narrow to wide base of support

b)

wide to narrow base of support

c)

stable to unstable base of support

d)

uniplanar to multiplanar

23.

The PNF pattern that ends with the shoulder in flexion, adduction, and external rotation

a)

D1 flexion

b)

D1 extension

c)

D2 flexion

d)

D2 extension

24.

The PNF pattern that: shoulder in extension, cross body adduction, and internal rotation is:

a)

D1 flexion

b)

D1 extension

c)

D2 flexion

d)

D2 extension

25.

This determinant of exercise is the amount of resistance imposed on a contracting muscle during each repetition

a)

alignment and stabilization

b)

intensity

c)

time or duration

d)

frequency

26.

when the goal of exercise is to increase muscle strength, power, or size.

a)

submaximal loading

b)

near maximal or maximal loading

c)

high repetition

d)

early stages of healing

27.

muscle setting exercises are:

a)

isometric

b)

isokinetic

c)

eccentric

d)

concentric

28.

the eccentric pec major component of the push up is best identified:

a)

counting four seconds during lowering the body to the ground

b)

the hold at the top when the body is highest away from the ground

c)

the rapid acceleration pushing the body from the

d)

the pause at the bottom of the movement when the body is contacting floor

29.

standing shoulder abduction with a dumbbell would be:

a)

concentric and eccentric of the middle deltoid

b)

concentric of the middle deltoid, eccentric of the pec major

c)

isometric of the pec major

d)

isometric of the middle deltoid

30.

valsalva maneuver is identified through all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

breath holding

b)

low blood pressure

c)

higher risk with isometric exercise

d)

lower risk with exhalation on effort

31.

when the goal of exercise is to improve muscle endurance

a)

near maximal or maximal loading

b)

submaximal loading

c)

high intensity

d)

low repetitions (4-6)

32.

initial (0-4 weeks) adaptations in the muscle from resistance training is:

a)

neuromuscular adaptation

b)

hypertrophy

c)

hyperplasia

d)

aerobic conditioning

33.

multi-angle isometrics are indicated for all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

static exercise is painful

b)

dynamic exercise is painful

c)

dynamic exercise is inadvisable

d)

improve strength throughout a range of motion

34.

elevated systolic and diastolic measurements are known as:

a)

hypovolemia

b)

hypertrophy

c)

hypertension

d)

tachycardia

35.

UE D1 Extension would have shoulder:

a)

internal rotation

b)

flexion

c)

adduction

d)

external rotation

36.

a slight increase in strength occurring over time in the same muscle group of the opposite, exercised extremity.

a)

specificity

b)

overload

c)

cross-training effect

d)

exercise induced muscle soreness

37.

stair ambulation always includes

a)

ascending with the affected leg first

b)

ascending with the unaffected leg first

c)

ascending with PTA in front for assistance

d)

descending with the unaffected leg first

38.

the warm up to exercise should have a duration of:

a)

1-2 minutes

b)

3-5 minutes

c)

5-10 minutes

d)

10-15 minutes

39.

long arc quad exercises can be considered:

a)

okc/ isometric knee

b)

okc/ concentric-eccentric knee

c)

okc/ isometric hip

d)

ckc/ concentric-eccentric hip

40.

supine progression includes

a)

bridging

b)

rolling

c)

sit to stand

d)

sitting

41.

closed kinetic chain exercises include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

free distal segments

b)

joint approximation

c)

proprioceptive improvement

d)

balance improvement

42.

if a patient can perform multiple sets of reps of 12 or more, this should happen.

a)

increase load

b)

decrease load

c)

keep adding sets

d)

increase reps

43.

when a patient is intentionally performing 15 reps or more, the goal would be:

a)

muscle strength

b)

muscle endurance

c)

aerobic conditioning

d)

muscle power

44.

movement of a joint within the unrestricted ROM that is produced entirely by an external force

a)

passive ROM

b)

selective stretching

c)

stretching

d)

active ROM

45.

An indication for Active-Assisted ROM is:

a)

active contraction without assist

b)

ROM is disruptive

c)

acute and inflamed tissue

d)

immobilization with cast

46.

The appropriate rate of motion for a Continuous Passive Motion Machine for a knee is:

a)

1 cycle every 45 seconds

b)

2 cycles per minute

c)

1 cycle every 15 seconds

d)

all of these are acceptable for a knee CPM

47.

Which of the following is not a benefit of using CPM?

a)

Increased synovial fluid lubrication of the joint

b)

Prevents development of adhesions

c)

Long-term functional gains

d)

Enhancing incisional healing

48.

To achieve full PROM of dorsiflexion at the ankle joint, you need to place the limb in:

a)

Knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion

b)

Knee flexion and ankle plantarflexion

c)

Knee extension and ankle dorsiflexion

d)

Knee extension and ankle plantarflexion

49.

According to the authors, the suggested number of repetitions for AROM to any given joint is:

a)

2-3

b)

3-5

c)

5-10

d)

15-20

50.

If you as the therapist force a motion beyond available range it becomes:

a)

stretching

b)

active ROM

c)

passive ROM

d)

active assisted ROM

51.

When an external force moves a joint through a full-unrestricted range of motion it is known as

a)

PROM

b)

AAROM

c)

AROM

d)

PNF

52.

You are stretching the rhomboid with an agonist contract, what is the agonist?

a)

serratus anterior

b)

middle trapezius

c)

levator scapulae

d)

middle deltoid

53.

When moving the ankle into dorsiflexion, which of the following is an antagonist:

a)

tibialis anterior

b)

extensor hallicus longus

c)

gastrocnemius

d)

peroneal longus

54.

The range limiting muscle is biceps femoris, what is the stretch direction for hold-relax

a)

shoulder extension, elbow extension

b)

hip flexion, knee extension

c)

hip extension, knee flexion

d)

hip extension, knee extension

55.

To best improve flexibility in the "Well-Elderly" you should allow the duration is:

a)

60 sec

b)

30 sec

c)

20 sec

d)

10 sec

56.

When doing ROM, the recommended reps is 3

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which of the following best defines muscle strength?

a)

Ability of muscle to contract repeatedly against a load

b)

Work produced by a muscle per unit of time

c)

Produce or control forces imposed during functional activities

d)

Force generated during a single maximum effort

58.

Mrs. B. is an 87-year-old resident of Western Hills Skilled Nursing Facility. She sustained a compression fracture of the T12 vertebra several weeks ago when she inadvertently sat down forcefully on a hard chair. Incorporating resistance training that focuses on eccentric exercises of her quadriceps and gluteal muscles in weight-bearing positions (e.g., controlled squatting and partial lunges) represents what principle of therapeutic exercise?

a)

Specificity of training

b)

Reversibility of training

c)

Overflow principle

d)

Overload principle

59.

A patient has mild joint swelling and pain during active ROM, but resisted tests of the muscles that cross the swollen joints do not cause pain. Your goal is to maintain or possibly increase strength through the available ROM. The most appropriate choice of exercise is:

a)

Setting exercises at the end of the ROM

b)

High-velocity isokinetic exercise

c)

Multiple-angle isometric exercise against resistance

d)

Eccentric/concentric, closed-chain exercise against body weight throughout the ROM

60.

If a patient, who is in a prone-lying position with a cuff weight around his ankle, flexes his knee from a fully extended (0°) position to a fully flexed (150°) position, what type(s) of contraction will occur in which muscle group(s)?

a)

The knee flexors contract concentrically through the full ROM

b)

The knee flexors contract concentrically from 0° to 90°, and the knee extensors contract eccentrically from 90° to 150° of flexion

c)

The knee flexors contract eccentrically from 0° to 90°, and the knee extensors contract concentrically from 90° to 150° of flexion

d)

The knee flexors contract eccentrically throughout the full ROM

61.

A patient is holding a piece of elastic tubing with both hands in front of his body. Both elbows are flexed to 90°, and both upper arms are held gently against the sides of the patient's chest. You instruct the patient to internally and externally rotate both shoulders simultaneously in this position. This activity strengthens the:

a)

Internal rotators concentrically and eccentrically

b)

External rotators concentrically and the internal rotators eccentrically

c)

Internal rotators concentrically and the external rotators eccentrically

d)

External rotators concentrically and eccentrically

62.

You are asked to develop a home exercise program aimed at improving strength of a particular muscle group. You set your parameters using which of the following?

a)

Low load, low repetitions

b)

Low load, high repetitions

c)

High load, low repetitions

d)

High load, high repetitions

63.

The principle of resistance training that suggests that adaptive changes are transient unless a person participates in a maintenance program is which of the following?

a)

reversibility principle

b)

overload principle

c)

SAID principle

d)

Wolff's principle

64.

Submaximal exercise loads are recommended for each of the following patients except:

a)

30-year-old patient with an acute rotator cuff strain

b)

65-year-old sedentary patient following a period of prolonged bed rest

c)

8-year-old child with a subacute quadriceps strain

d)

40-year-old client who wants a conditioning program

65.

You are trying to decide if it is time to increase resistance while strength training your patient. Current recommendations are to increase if they can do which of the following volumes without fatigue?

a)

1-2 repetitions, 2-3 sets

b)

2-6 repetitions, 2-3 sets

c)

6-12 repetitions, 2-3 sets

d)

12-15 repetitions, 2-3 sets

66.

An ideal ISOM muscle contraction should be held for how long?

a)

3 seconds

b)

6 seconds

c)

10 seconds

d)

12 seconds

67.

Each of the following exercises could be considered closed-chain work of the lower extremities except:

a)

lunges

b)

step-ups

c)

seated long arc quads

d)

squats

68.

You are coaching a patient doing resistance exercises to avoid a Valsalva maneuver. Any of the following are good strategies except:

a)

Have patient exhale with each resisted effort

b)

Have patient inhale with each resisted effort

c)

Have patient talk during the exercises

d)

Caution patient to avoid breath holding

69.

The PNF pattern of the upper extremity that ends with the shoulder in flexion, adduction, and external rotation is:

a)

D1 flexion

b)

D1 extension

c)

D2 flexion

d)

D2 extension