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3d151 cdc vol 2 pt 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which communications security (COMSEC) application provides us with guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources?

a)

Cyptosecurity

b)

Physical security

c)

Emission security

d)

Transmission security

2.

Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package?

a)

Standard Form (SF) 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt

b)

SF 153, COMSEC Material Report

c)

SF 701, Activity Security Checklist

d)

SF 702, Security Container Checklist

3.

Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

a)

AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log

b)

AF Form 1119, Monthly Monetary Records

c)

AF Form 1019, Armament Recording Program Mission Data

d)

AF Form 1122, Personal Property and Personal Effects Inventory

4.

Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

a)

Secure telephone unit (STU)

b)

Cryptographic telephone (CT)

c)

Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)

d)

Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone)

5.

The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) consists of a

a)

host terminal and removable security core

b)

security core and removable host terminal

c)

host terminal and removable secret core

d)

secret core and removable host terminal

6.

The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with what device?

a)

Secure telephone unit (STU)-III

b)

Satellite telephone

c)

Cellular telephone

d)

Land mobile radio

7.

Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?

a)

Universal Serial Bus (USB)

b)

EIA 530

c)

RS-232

d)

Firewire

8.

The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital Network (ISDN) setting supports what speeds in kilobits per second (Kbps)?

a)

128

b)

192

c)

256

d)

512

9.

Which set of electrical standards does the KIV-7 not support?

a)

RS-422

b)

EIA-644

c)

EIA-530

d)

RS-232

10.

Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Classic and TACLANE-E100 are high-speed encryption devices that provide confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication security services for

a)

serial networks

b)

tactical networks

c)

point-to-point connections

d)

Internet Protocol networks

11.

What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-E100?

a)

165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex

b)

165 for full-duplex and 44.736 for half-duplex

c)

44.736 for asynchronous transfer mode and 100 for half-duplex

d)

100 for full-duplex and 44.736 for asynchronous transfer mode

12.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Micro is a packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)

a)

version 4 and version 6

b)

version 4 and version 5

c)

version 5 only

d)

version 4 only

13.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Micro may be equipped to handle all types of networks except

a)

asynchronous transfer mode (ATM)

b)

gigabit Ethernet

c)

fast Ethernet

d)

wireless

14.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

a)

Static IP only

b)

Plaintext only

c)

Ciphertext only

d)

Ciphertext or plaintext

15.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Micro can be used to overlay what type of networks on top of existing public and private network infrastructures?

a)

Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Networks

b)

Secret Internet Protocol Router Networks

c)

Other public or private networks

d)

Secure Virtual Networks

16.

What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management?

a)

17-100

b)

21-116

c)

17-210

d)

33-118

17.

Who coordinates the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander?

a)

Base communications and information systems officer (CSO)

b)

Iridium Secure Module (ISM)

c)

Base PWCS manager

d)

Unit PWCS manager

18.

Who appoints the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

a)

Unit commander

b)

Wing commander

c)

Major command (MAJCOM) commander

d)

Communications and Information Systems officer

19.

Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

a)

Briefs users on the proper use of PWCS equipment

b)

Implements unit-level customer education program

c)

Turns in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager

d)

All of the above

20.

Which of these is not part of the personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager's duties?

a)

Maintaining the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) database

b)

Technical reviews

c)

Technical solutions

d)

Maintenance

21.

What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets?

a)

Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS)

b)

Tracking and Reporting System

c)

Integrated Maintenance Data System

d)

Core Automated Maintenance System

22.

What system serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets?

a)

Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS)

b)

Integrated Maintenance Data System

c)

Work Order Management System

d)

Remedy

23.

What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?

a)

AFI 17-210; AFI 11-101; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33-118

b)

AFI 17-210; AFI 33-118; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33-219

c)

AFI 17-210; AFI 33-219; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33-201

d)

AFI 17-210; AFI 17-220; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 17-1302-O

24.

Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be used for command and control?

a)

Pager

b)

Land mobile radio (LMR)

c)

Family radio service (FRS)

d)

Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR)

25.

Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device's original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?

a)

Pager

b)

Land mobile radio (LMR)

c)

Family radio service (FRS)

d)

Personal digital assistant (PDA)

26.

How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?

a)

11

b)

12

c)

13

d)

14

27.

What mode of operation do cell phones use?

a)

Half-Duplex

b)

Simplex

c)

Duplex

d)

Hybrid

28.

How fast you sample the audio to get your digital signal is called

a)

bit rate

b)

bite rate

c)

samp rate

d)

sample rate

29.

What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?

a)

Bite rate

b)

Bit rate

c)

Samp rate

d)

Sample rate

30.

What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency?

a)

Time division multiple access (TDMA)

b)

Personal communications services (PCS)

c)

Frequency division multiple access (FDMA)

d)

Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM)

31.

Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?

a)

Eastern

b)

Western

c)

Central

d)

Northern

32.

Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?

a)

Unit

b)

Installation spectrum manager (ISM)

c)

Communications and Information Systems officer (CSO)

d)

Base Personal Wireless Communications Systems (PWCS) manager

33.

Cell sites are generally thought of as being a

a)

square

b)

octagon

c)

hexagon

d)

pentagon

34.

What protocol does the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use to transmit video teleconferencing (VTC) data?

a)

H.320

b)

H.323

c)

H.325

d)

H.330

35.

What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts incoming four wire transmissions into two wire transmissions?

a)

Camera

b)

Computer

c)

Coder-decoder (CODEC)

d)

Network termination (NT) 1

36.

What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?

a)

Camera

b)

Coder-decoder (CODEC)

c)

Network termination (NT) 1

d)

Central processing unit (CPU)

37.

What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

a)

Addresses

b)

Codes

c)

Labels

d)

Packets

38.

How many channels are used when a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host?

a)

One, they share the same channel

b)

Two, one for each direction

c)

Three, two to transmit/receive and one to signal

d)

Four, two to transmit and two to receive

39.

What component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN)?

a)

Gateway

b)

Gatekeeper

c)

Terminal adapter

d)

Multipoint control unit (MCU)

40.

What percent packet loss should a network expect in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

a)

Less than 1

b)

Greater than 1

c)

Less than .5

d)

Greater than .5

41.

How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

a)

Less than 50

b)

Less than 150

c)

Greater than 50

d)

Greater than 150

42.

What is a system of error control for data transmission, where the sender adds redundant data to its messages, allowing the receiver to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additional data?

a)

Quality of service (QoS)

b)

Real time protocol (RTP)

c)

Forward error correction (FEC)

d)

Real time control protocol (RTCP)

43.

What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal and responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?

a)

Forward error correction (FEC)

b)

Remote control protocol (RCP)

c)

Quality of service (QoS)

d)

Phase-locked loop (PLL)

44.

In response to disaster relief operations, the Department of Defense (DOD) Policy on Procurement of mobile satellite services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow the DOD to use additional MSS providers for

a)

unclassified purposes outside the continental United States (CONUS)

b)

unclassified purposes within the CONUS

c)

classified purposes outside the CONUS

d)

classified purposes within the CONUS

45.

Which commercial satellite communication system offers true pole-to-pole global coverage?

a)

European Telecommunications Satellite Organization

b)

International Telecommunications Satellite Organization

c)

International Mobile Satellite Organization

d)

Iridium

46.

Up to what level of classification does the Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provide secure voice communications?

a)

Secret

b)

Top Secret

c)

Confidential

d)

For Official Use Only

47.

Which does not fit the "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system?

a)

Military use, involving armed conflict

b)

Armed forces use, relating to the protection of the wounded

c)

United Nations (UN) peacekeeping use, acting under the auspices of the UN Security Council

d)

Armed forces use, protecting itself against armed attack within the limitations of UN charter

48.

What type of areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated

a)

Geographical

b)

Continental

c)

Regional

d)

Ocean

49.

Which Inmarsat terminals have a land mobile terminal, typically has a one-meter flat array antenna, and weights 30 to 40 pounds?

a)

B

b)

M

c)

Aero I

d)

Mini-M

50.

What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

a)

Percentage of modulation

b)

Signal-to-noise

c)

Selectivity

d)

Distortion