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Genomics Exam 2

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In Prokaryotes, the ribosome has 2 subunits, ___S + ___S = ___S


(Don't put any markings in answer [e.g. 20 30 40 if it was 20+30=40])

(a)  

2.

In Eukaryotes, the ribosome has 2 subunits, ___S + ___S = ___S


(Don't put any markings in answer [e.g. 20 30 40 if it was 20+30=40])

(a)  

3.

Which site of the ribosome is the exit site?

a)

E

b)

P

c)

A

d)

Z

4.

Which site of the ribosome is the peptidyl binding site?

a)

A

b)

P

c)

E

d)

Z

5.

White site of the ribosome is the aminoacyl binding site?

a)

A

b)

P

c)

E

d)

Z

6.

What are the 2 functions of tRNA Synthetase?

a)

Synthesis

b)

Editing

c)

Folding

d)

Splicing

7.

What is the function of the synthesis site in tRNA Synthetase?

a)

Synthesis

b)

Editing

c)

Splicing

d)

Deleting

8.

What is the function of the editing site in tRNA Synthetase?

a)

Synthesis

b)

Proofreading

c)

Folding

d)

Ejection

9.

What type of bond links tRNA to an amino acid?

a)

Ester

b)

Peptide

c)

Ionic

d)

Sulfide

10.

What part of tRNA does an amino acid bind to?

a)

Hydroxyl

b)

Hairpin

c)

Anticodon

d)

Cap

11.

What is the function of IF-1 in prokaryotic translation initiation?

a)

Prevent aminoacyl-tRNA binding

b)

Facilitate aminoacyl-tRNA binding

c)

Stabilize 30S subunit

d)

Prevent 50S subunit binding

12.

What is the function of IF-3 in prokaryotic translation initiation?

a)

Facilitate aminoacyl-tRNA binding

b)

Stabilize 30S subunit

c)

Prevent 50S subunit binding

d)

Facilitate 50S subunit binding

13.

What is the role of IF-2 in prokaryotic translation?

a)

binds to fMet-tRNA

b)

binds to tRNA

c)

prevents fMet-tRNA binding

d)

prevents tRNA binding

14.

Which site does the start codon first bind to in the 30S subunit in prokaryotic translation?

a)

A

b)

P

c)

E

d)

Z

15.

Which molecule is hydrolyzed prior to 70S initiation complex becoming fully formed?

a)

ATP

b)

GTP

16.

What's the function of EF-Tu in prokaryotic elongation?

a)

Transferring aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site

b)

Transferring aminoacyl-tRNA into the P site

c)

Transferring peptidyl-tRNA into the A site

d)

Transferring peptidyl-tRNA into the P site

17.

How does EF-Tu proofread?

a)

Incorrect base pairs preferentially dissociate

b)

Incorrect base pairs are ejected via an ATP-dependent mechanism

c)

Incorrect base pairs are ejected via a GTP-dependent mechanism

d)

Another enzyme performs proofreading on EF-Tu

18.

Which enzyme catalyzes the amino acid peptide bond of the growing protein?

a)

peptidyl transferase

b)

peptidyl synthase

c)

peptidyl esterase

d)

peptidyl decarboxylase

19.

Where is peptidyl transferase located?

a)

Attached to the ribosome

b)

Directly outside of the E site

c)

Internally of the rRNA

d)

It doesn't exist

20.

Which enzyme translocates the tRNA inside of the ribosome?

a)

EF-G

b)

EF-Tu

c)

EF-alpha

d)

EF-beta

21.

Which site will be the FIRST to recognize a stop codon in prokaryotes?

a)

A

b)

P

c)

E

d)

Z

22.

What is leaky scanning?

a)

A skipped stop codon

b)

A skipped start codon

c)

A skipped exon

d)

A skipped intron

23.

Which initiation factor mediates the transfer of the initiation complex to the 5' cap of mRNA?

a)

EF-2

b)

EF-1

c)

EF-4A

d)

EF-4E

24.

Which protein recognizes tRNA and its anticodon to transfer it to the A site, and also possesses GTPase activity??

a)

eF-1

b)

eF-2

c)

eEF-1

d)

eRF-1

25.

Which protein serves as the eukaryotic translocase?

a)

eEF-2

b)

eEF-1

c)

eIF-2

d)

EF-1

26.

How are eRF-1 and eRF-3 able to recognize stop codons?

a)

Proofreading mechanisms

b)

Mimic tRNA structure

c)

They don't.

d)

Another protein is responsible (eRF-3)

27.

What % variation is generally accepted for a gene to be considered polymorphic?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

10

28.

In a synonymous mutation, there is

a)

an amino acid change

b)

no amino acid change

c)

a missense mutation

d)

a silent mutation

29.

What are the possible results of a non-synonymous mutation?

a)

Missense mutation

b)

Nonsense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

30.

What is the most extensively studied CYP with regards to SNP mutations?

a)

3A4

b)

2D6

c)

1A1

d)

2D9

31.

An extensive metabolizer has

a)

higher than average metabolism

b)

lower than average metabolism

c)

normal metabolism

d)

absent metabolism

32.

Which of these would cause an individual to be considered an ultra-rapid metabolizer?

a)

Duplication

b)

Deletion

c)

Mutation

d)

Missense

33.

A poor metabolizer has

a)

decreased metabolism

b)

increased metabolism

c)

normal metabolism

d)

no metabolism

34.

Which enzyme will metabolize 6-mecaptopurine into a toxic metabolite?

a)

TPMT

b)

HPRT

c)

GAMT

d)

UGT

35.

Which enzyme will metabolize 6-mecaptopurine into a non-toxic metabolite?

a)

TPMT

b)

HPRT

c)

GAMT

d)

UGT

36.

Which enzyme converts irinotecan into SN-38?

a)

CES

b)

UGT

c)

TPMT

d)

HPRT

37.

Which family of enzymes converts SN-38 to SN-38G?

a)

UGT

b)

CES

c)

1A*

d)

3A*

38.

How does mRNA know where to go?

a)

zip code

b)

postal code

c)

pass code

d)

pass word

39.

Where in mRNA is the code contained for localization?

a)

3' UTR

b)

Poly-A tail

c)

5' Cap

d)

Exons

40.

What factors decrease protein synthesis rates?

a)

Deprivation of growth factors

b)

Viral infections

c)

Sudden temperature increase

d)

Hypoxia

41.

Under normal conditions, how is eIF-2 activated?

a)

ATP activation via eIF-2B

b)

GTP activation via eIF-2B

c)

ADP activation via eIF-2B

d)

GDP activation via eIF-2B

42.

Under stress conditions, how is eIF-2 inactivated?

a)

Phosphorylation

b)

Guanylation

c)

Hydrolyzation

d)

Lysosome

43.

How is eIF-4E activated?

a)

Dissociation of 4E-BP

b)

Phosphorylation

c)

Dephosphorylation

d)

Dissociation of eIF-4G

44.

How is eIF-4E inactivated?

a)

Phosphorylation

b)

Dephosphorylation

c)

Dissociation of eIF-4G

d)

mTOR

45.

What is mTOR's role?

a)

Phosphorylating 4E-BP

b)

Phosphorylating eIF-4E

c)

Phosphorylating eIF-2B

d)

Phosphorylating eIF-2A

46.

Which initiation factor binds to the 5' cap of mRNA?

a)

eIF-4E

b)

eIF-4G

c)

eIF-2B

d)

4E-BP

47.

What is IRES?

a)

Internal Revenue Entry Service

b)

Internal Ribosomal Entry Site

c)

Internal Ribosomal Exit Site

d)

Internal Revenue Exit Service

48.

During iron starvation, ferritin ________ while transferrin ______.

a)

decreases, increases

b)

decreases, decreases

c)

increases, decreases

d)

increases, increases

49.

During iron excess, ferritin ________ while transferrin ________.

a)

decreases, increases

b)

increases, decreases

c)

decreases, decreases

d)

increases, increases

50.

What are the domains of the Signal Recognition Particle (SRP)?

a)

GTP-ase/SRP receptor

b)

Translational pause

c)

Signal sequence pocket

d)

DNA binding

51.

What is HSP70's function?

a)

facilitate correct folding

b)

incorrectly folded -> correctly folded

c)

chaperone to lysosome to degrade

d)

literally nothing

52.

What is HSP60's function

a)

facilitate correct folding

b)

misfolded -> correctly folded

c)

lysosomal degradation

d)

literally nothing

53.

What is HSP90's function

a)

phosphorylation

b)

acetylation

c)

nitrosylation

d)

sulfation

54.

What is the 19S cap of the proteasome responsible for?

a)

recognition and unfolding

b)

digestion

c)

preventing protein loss

d)

increase ER chaperone expression

55.

What is the 20S cylinder of the proteasome responsible for?

a)

recognition and unfolding

b)

digestion

c)

ER chaperone expression

d)

ER stress

56.

Where is the proteasome NOT located?

a)

cytosol

b)

ER lumen

57.

Which class of enzymes are responsible for phosphorylation?

a)

Phosphorylases

b)

Protein kinases

c)

Carboxylases

d)

Sulfases

58.

What pathway utilizes hexokinase, and what energy source does hexokinase use?

a)

Glycolysis, ATP

b)

Glycolysis, GTP

c)

Gluconeogenesis, ATP

d)

Gluconeogenesis, GTP

59.

What cell process are CDKs involved in?

a)

Cell cycle

b)

Cell apoptosis

c)

Cell metabolism

d)

Cell 2nd messenger

60.

What steps must be taken to activate CDKs?

a)

Phosphorylation

b)

Dephosphorylation

c)

Cyclin binding

d)

cAMP binding

61.

How does GTP cause activation?

a)

Transferring phosphate

b)

Conformational change

c)

Competitively bind

d)

Remove phosphate

62.

How does ATP cause activation?

a)

Competitively bind

b)

Transfer phosphate

c)

Conformational change

d)

Remove phosphate

63.

Which proteins exchange GDP for GTP to turn on a signal?

a)

GEFs

b)

GUFs

c)

GRFs

d)

GPFs

64.

Which proteins terminate signaling via GTP hydrolyzation?

a)

GAPs

b)

GEFs

c)

CDKs

d)

PDKs

65.

What function does acetylation bring?

a)

Loosens histone binding

b)

Loosens misfolded proteins

c)

Flags DNA for proofreading

d)

Flags proteins for proteolysis

66.

Euchromatin is

a)

less condensed than heterochromatin, transcriptionally active

b)

more condensed than heterochromatin, transcriptionally active

c)

less condensed than heterochromatin, transcriptionally inactive

d)

more condensed than heterochromatin, transcriptionally inactive

67.

Heterochromatin is

a)

more condensed than euchromatin, transcriptionally inactive

b)

more condensed than euchromatin, transcriptionally active

c)

less condensed than euchromatin, transcriptionally active

d)

less condensed than euchromatin, transcriptionally inactive

68.

The ubiquitination enzyme E1 causes

a)

thioester linkages

b)

conjugation

c)

ligation

69.

The ubiquinitation enzyme E2 causes

a)

thioester linkage

b)

coupling

c)

ligation

70.

The ubiquitination enzyme E3 causes

a)

thioester linkages

b)

coupling

c)

ligation

71.

In which organelle(s) does glycosylation occur?

a)

ER

b)

Golgi

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

72.

To which amino acid residues does N-linked glycosylation occur?

a)

Asparagine

b)

Arginine

c)

Alanine

d)

Methionine

73.

To which amino acid residues does O-linked glycosylation occur?

a)

Asparagine

b)

Threonine

c)

Serine

d)

Arginine

74.

A protein with the signal 'KDEL' will be

a)

Imported into the nucleus

b)

Exported out of the nucleus

c)

Retained in the ER lumen

d)

Exported out of the cell

75.

A protein with the signal 'KKKKRK' will be

a)

Retained in the ER Lumen

b)

Imported into the nucleus

c)

Exported out of the nucleus

d)

Exported out of the cell

76.

A protein with an abundance of hydrophobic leucine residues will be

a)

Retained in the ER Lumen

b)

Imported into the nucleus

c)

Exported out of the nucleus

d)

Exported out of the cell

77.

What is/are the main region(s) of the golgi apparatus?

a)

Cis

b)

Stacks

c)

Trans

78.

What enzymes do statins target to inhibit cholesterol synthesis?

a)

HMG Reductase

b)

HMG-CoA Reductase

c)

CoA Reductase

d)

LDL-R density

79.

How does Ezitimibe lower serum LDL levels?

a)

Increase LDL-R density

b)

Decrease LDL-R density

c)

Competitively bind to LDL-R

d)

Sequester LDL

80.

How does the pH of the lysosome act as a safety factor?

a)

Lysosomal enzymes can't function in higher pH

b)

Lysosomal enzymes can't function in lower pH

c)

This is a trick, pH has no effect

d)

Lysosomal enzymes use acidic pH to break down proteins

81.

What mechanism does POMC undergo?

a)

Regulated pathway

b)

Lysosomal degradation

c)

Vesicular budding

d)

Ubiquitination

82.

Activation of an ionotropic receptor causes

a)

Ion flux

b)

Ligand entry

c)

cAMP signaling

d)

CDK activation

83.

At the neuronal synapse, the influx of calcium on the presynaptic neuron causes

a)

neurotransmitter release

b)

hyperpolarization of postsynaptic neuron

c)

depolarization of postsynaptic neuron

d)

cancellation of neuronal signaling

84.

An excitatory signal would cause the postsynaptic neuron to open

a)

sodium channels

b)

chloride channels

c)

calcium channels

d)

potassium channels

85.

An inhibitory signal would cause the postsynaptic neuron to open

a)

sodium channels

b)

chloride channels

c)

calcium channels

d)

potassium channels

86.

How many transmembrane domains does a GPCR have?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

9

87.

The end result of GPCR activation is

a)

ion flux

b)

cAMP signaling

c)

ligand entry

d)

CDK activation

88.

Which subunit of a GPCR will interact with adenylyl cyclase?

a)

α

b)

β

c)

γ

d)

δ

89.

G protein targets include

a)

cAMP

b)

IP3

c)

Ca2+

d)

Ion channels

90.

When comparing Receptor Tyrosine Kinases, the largest variation occurs on the

a)

intracellular domain

b)

extracellular domain

c)

transmembrane domain

91.

How does a ligand activate an RTK?

a)

dimerization

b)

monomerization

c)

ion flux

d)

g-protein signaling

92.

How is the cell able to terminate receptor activity?

a)

degradation of agonist

b)

receptor uncoupling

c)

receptor endocytosis

d)

receptor down-regulation

93.

How does steroid binding affect DNA?

a)

exposure of binding site

b)

HSP90 release

c)

HSP90 recruitment

d)

concealment of binding site

94.

What is the late response/secondary response for steroid hormones?

a)

primary response products cause deactivation

b)

secondary response products cause deactivation

c)

primary response products cause amplification

d)

secondary response products cause amplification

95.

______ and ______ help prevent mRNA degradation by forming a circular complex with mRNA

a)

eIF-4A

b)

eIF-4G

c)

eIF-2

d)

eIF-4E

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