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Worksheets

Chapters 12-21 Exam in Ana/Physio

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following cavities contains a component of the central nervous system?

a)

abdominal

b)

pelvic

c)

cranial

d)

thoracic

2.

Which structure predominates in the white matter of the brain?

a)

myelinated axons

b)

neuronal cell bodies

c)

ganglia of the parasympathetic nerves

d)

bundles of dendrites from the enteric nervous system

3.

Which part of a neuron transmits an electrical signal to a target cell?

a)

dendrites

b)

soma

c)

cell body

d)

axon

4.

Which term describes a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

nucleus

b)

ganglion

c)

tract

d)

nerve

5.

Which functional division of the nervous system would be responsible for the physiological changes seen during exercise (e.g., increased heart rate and sweating)?

a)

somatic

b)

autonomic

c)

enteric

d)

central

6.

hat type of glial cell provides myelin for the axons in a tract?

a)

oligodendrocyte

b)

astrocyte

c)

Schwann cell

d)

satellite cell

7.

Which part of a neuron contains the nucleus?

a)

dendrite

b)

soma

c)

axon


d)

synaptic end bulb

8.

Which of the following substances is least able

to cross the blood-brain barrier?

a)

water

b)

sodium ions

c)

glucose

d)

white blood cells

9.

What type of glial cell is the resident macrophage behind the blood-brain barrier?

a)

microglia

b)

astrocyte

c)

Schwann cell

d)

satellite cell

10.

Which of these locations is where the greatest level of integration is taking place in the example of testing the temperature of the shower?

a)

skeletal muscle

b)

spinal cord

c)

thalamus

d)

cerebral cortex

11.

Aside from the nervous system, which other organ system develops out of the ectoderm?

a)

digestive

b)

respiratory

c)

integumentary

d)

urinary

12.

Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for generating motor commands?

a)

emporal


b)

parietal


c)

occipital

d)

frontal

13.

What region of the diencephalon coordinates homeostasis?

a)

thalamus

b)

epithalamus

c)

hypothalamus

d)

subthalamus

14.

What level of the brain stem is the major input to

the cerebellum?

a)

midbrain

b)

pons

c)

medulla

d)

spinal cord

15.

What region of the spinal cord contains motor neurons that direct the movement of skeletal muscles?

a)

anterior horn

b)

posterior horn

c)

lateral horn

d)

alar plate

16.

Brodmann’s areas map different regions of

the________ to particular functions.

a)

cerebellum

b)

cerebral cortex

c)

basal forebrain

d)

corpus callosum

17.

What blood vessel enters the cranium to supply

the brain with fresh, oxygenated blood?

a)

common carotid artery

b)

jugular vein

c)

internal carotid artery

d)

aorta

18.

Which layer of the meninges surrounds and supports the sinuses that form the route through which blood drains from the CNS?

a)

dura mater

b)

arachnoid mater

c)

subarachnoid

d)

pia mater

19.

Which portion of the ventricular system is found within the diencephalon?

a)

lateral ventricles


b)

third ventricle


c)

cerebral aqueduct


d)

fourth ventricle

20.

Which cranial nerve does not control functions in the head and neck?

a)

olfactory

b)

trochlear

c)

glossopharyngeal

d)

vagus

21.

What type of receptor cell is

responsible for transducing pain stimuli?

a)

mechanoreceptor

b)

nociceptor

c)

osmoreceptor

d)

photoreceptor

22.

Which of these cranial nerves is part of the gustatory system?

a)

olfactory

b)

trochlear

c)

trigeminal

d)

facial

23.

Which submodality of taste is sensitive to the pH of saliva?

a)

umami

b)

sour

c)

bitter

d)

sweet

24.

Axons from which neuron in the retina make up the optic nerve?

a)

amacrine cells

b)

photoreceptors

c)

bipolar cells

d)

retinal ganglion cells

25.

Which of these sensory modalities does not pass through the ventral posterior thalamus?

a)

gustatory

b)

proprioception

c)

audition

d)

nociception

26.

Visual stimuli in the upper-left visual field will be processed in what region of the primary visual cortex?

a)

inferior right


b)

inferior left


c)

superior right


d)

superior left

27.

Which location on the body has the largest region of somatosensory cortex representing it, according to the sensory homunculus?

a)

lips

b)

thigh

c)

elbow

d)

neck

28.

Which region of the frontal lobe is responsible for initiating movement by directly connecting to cranial and spinal motor neurons?

a)

prefrontal cortex


b)

supplemental motor area


c)

premotor cortex


d)

primary motor cortex

29.

Which region of gray matter in the spinal cord contains motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscles?

a)

ventral horn

b)

dorsal horn

c)

lateral horn

d)

lateral column

30.

What type of reflex can protect the foot when a painful stimulus is sensed?

a)

stretch reflex

b)

gag reflex

c)

withdrawal reflex

d)

corneal reflex

31.

Which of these physiological changes would not be considered part of the sympathetic fight-or- flight response?

a)

increased heart rate


b)

increased sweating


c)

dilated pupils


d)

increased stomach motility

32.

Which type of fiber could be considered the longest?

a)

preganglionic parasympathetic


b)

preganglionic sympathetic


c)

postganglionic parasympathetic


d)

postganglionic sympathetic

33.

Which of the following represents a sensory input that is not part of both the somatic and autonomic systems?

a)

vision


b)

taste


c)

baroreception


d)

proprioception

34.

What is the term for a reflex that does not include a CNS component?

a)

long reflex


b)

visceral reflex


c)

somatic reflex


d)

short reflex

35.

What gland produces a secretion that causes fight- orflight responses in effectors?

a)

adrenal medulla


b)

salivatory gland


c)

reproductive gland


d)

thymus

36.

Which of these locations in the forebrain is the master control center for homeostasis through the autonomic and endocrine systems?

a)

hypothalamus


b)

thalamus


c)

amygdala


d)

cerebral cortex

37.

Which nerve projects to the hypothalamus to indicate the level of light stimuli in the retina?

a)

glossopharyngeal


b)

oculomotor


c)

optic


d)

vagus

38.

What region of the limbic lobe is responsible for generating stress responses via the hypothalamus?

a)

hippocampus


b)

amygdala

c)

mammillary bodies

d)

prefrontal cortex

39.

What is another name for the preganglionic sympathetic fibers that project to the heart?

a)

solitary tract

b)

vasomotor nerve

c)

vagus nerve

d)

cardiac accelerator nerve

40.

What central fiber tract connects forebrain and brain stem structures with the hypothalamus?

a)

cardiac accelerator nerve

b)

medial forebrain bundle

c)

dorsal longitudinal fasciculus

d)

corticospinal tract

41.

Which major section of the neurological exam is most likely to reveal damage to the cerebellum?

a)

cranial nerve exam


b)

mental status exam


c)

sensory exam


d)

coordination exam

42.

What function would most likely be affected by a

restriction of a blood vessel in the cerebral cortex?

a)

language


b)

gait


c)

facial expressions


d)

knee-jerk reflex

43.

Which major section of the neurological exam includes subtests that are sometimes considered a separate set of tests concerned with walking?

a)

mental status exam


b)

cranial nerve exam


c)

coordination exam


d)

sensory exam

44.

Memory, emotional, language, and sensorimotor

deficits together are most likely the result of what kind of damage?

a)

stroke


b)

developmental disorder


c)

whiplash


d)

gunshot wound

45.

Where is language function localized in the majority of people?

a)

cerebellum


b)

right cerebral hemisphere


c)

hippocampus


d)

left cerebral hemisphere

46.

Which of the following could be elements of cytoarchitecture, as related to Brodmann’s microscopic studies of the cerebral cortex?

a)

connections to the cerebellum


b)

activation by visual stimuli


c)

number of neurons per square millimeter


d)

number of gyri or sulci

47.

Which is an example of episodic memory?

a)

how to bake a cake


b)

your last birthday party


c)

how old you are


d)

needing to wear an oven mitt to take a cake out of the oven

48.

Which type of aphasia is more like hearing a

foreign language spoken?

a)

receptive aphasia


b)

expressive aphasia


c)

conductive aphasia


d)

Broca’s aphasia

49.

Without olfactory sensation to complement gustatory stimuli, food will taste bland unless it is seasoned with which substance?

a)

salt


b)

thyme


c)

garlic


d)

olive oil

50.

Which of the following is not part of the corticospinal pathway?

a)

cerebellar deep white matter


b)

midbrain


c)

medulla


d)

lateral column

51.

Endocrine glands ________.

a)

secrete hormones that travel through a duct to the target organs


b)

release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft


c)

secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream


d)

include sebaceous glands and sweat glands

52.

Chemical signaling that affects neighboring cells is

called ________.

a)

autocrine

b)

paracrine


c)

endocrine

d)

neuron

53.

A newly developed pesticide has been observed to

bind to an intracellular hormone receptor. If ingested, residue from this pesticide could disrupt levels of ________.

a)

melatonin


b)

thyroid hormone


c)

growth hormone


d)

insulin

54.

A student is in a car accident, and although not hurt,

immediately experiences pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and rapid breathing. What type of endocrine system stimulus did the student receive?

a)

humoral


b)

hormonal


c)

neural


d)

positive feedback

55.

The hypothalamus is functionally and anatomically connected to the posterior pituitary lobe by a bridge of ________.

a)

blood vessels


b)

nerve axons


c)

cartilage


d)

bone

56.

Which of the following is an anterior pituitary hormone?

a)

ADH

b)

oxytocin

c)

TSH

d)

cortisol

57.

How many hormones are produced by the posterior

pituitary?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

6

58.

Which of the following hormones contributes to the regulation of the body’s fluid and electrolyte balance?

a)

adrenocorticotropic hormone


b)

antidiuretic hormone


c)

luteinizing hormone


d)

all of the above

59.

Which of the following hormones contributes to the regulation of the body’s fluid and electrolyte balance?

a)

adrenocorticotropic hormone


b)

antidiuretic hormone


c)

luteinizing hormone


d)

all of the above

60.

The adrenal glands are attached superiorly to which

organ?

a)

thyroid

b)

liver


c)

kidneys

d)

hypothalamus

61.

Which of the following statements about blood is

true?

a)

Blood is about 92 percent water.


b)

Blood is slightly more acidic than water.


c)

Blood is slightly more viscous than water.


d)

Blood is slightly more salty than seawater.

62.

Which of the following statements about albumin is

true?

a)

It draws water out of the blood vessels and into the body’s tissues.


b)

It is the most abundant plasma protein.


c)

It is produced by specialized leukocytes called plasma cells.

d)

All of the above are true.

63.

Which of the following plasma proteins is not

produced by the liver?

a)

fibrinogen


b)

alpha globulin


c)

beta globulin


d)

immunoglobulin

64.

A molecule of hemoglobin ________.

a)

is shaped like a biconcave disk packed almost entirely with iron


b)

contains four glycoprotein units studded with oxygen


c)

consists of four globin proteins, each bound to a molecule of heme


d)

can carry up to 120 molecules of oxygen

65.

A patient has been suffering for 2 months with a chronic, watery diarrhea. A blood test is likely to reveal ________.

a)

a hematocrit below 30 percent

b)

hypoxemia

c)

anemia

d)

polycythemia

66.

Which of the following describes a neutrophil?

a)

abundant, agranular, especially effective against cancer cells

b)

abundant, granular, especially effective against bacteria

c)

rare, agranular, releases antimicrobial defensins

d)

rare, granular, contains multiple granules packed with histamine

67.

T and B lymphocytes ________.

a)

are polymorphonuclear

b)

are involved with specific immune function proliferate

c)

excessively in leukopenia

d)

are most active against parasitic worms

68.

A patient has been experiencing severe, persistent allergy symptoms that are reduced when she takes an antihistamine. Before the treatment, this patient was likely to have had increased activity of which leukocyte?

a)

basophils c.

b)

neutrophils

c)

monocytes

d)

natural killer cells

69.

The process in which antibodies attach to antigens, causing the formation of masses of linked cells, is called

a)

sensitization

b)

coagulation

c)

agglutination

d)

hemolysis

70.

People with ABO blood type O ________.

a)

have both antigens A and B on their erythrocytes


b)

lack both antigens A and B on their erythrocytes


c)

have neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies circulating in their blood plasma

d)

are considered universal recipients

71.

Which of the following is not important in preventing backflow of blood?

a)

chordae tendineae


b)

papillary muscles


c)

AV valves


d)

endocardium

72.

Which valve separates the left atrium from the left

ventricle?

a)

mitral


b)

tricuspid

c)

pulmonary

d)

aortic

73.

Which of the following lists the valves in the order through which the blood flows from the vena cava through the heart?

a)

tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar


b)

mitral, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar


c)

aortic semilunar, pulmonary semilunar, tricuspid, bicuspid


d)

bicuspid, aortic semilunar, tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar

74.

Which chamber initially receives blood from the systemic circuit?

a)

left atrium


b)

left ventricle


c)

right atrium


d)

right ventricle

75.

The myocardium would be the thickest in the

________.

a)

left atrium


b)

left ventricle


c)

right atrium

d)

right ventricle

76.

Which component of the heart conduction system would have the slowest rate of firing?

a)

atrioventricular node


b)

atrioventricular bundle

c)

bundle branches

d)

Purkinje fibers

77.

The cardiac cycle consists of a distinct relaxation and

contraction phase. Which term is typically used to refer ventricular contraction while no blood is being ejected?

a)

systole


b)

diastole


c)

quiescent


d)

isovolumic contraction

78.

The first heart sound represents which portion of the

cardiac cycle?

a)

atrial systole


b)

ventricular systole


c)

closing of the atrioventricular valves


d)

closing of the semilunar valves

79.

The force the heart must overcome to pump blood is

known as ________.

a)

preload


b)

afterload


c)

cardiac output


d)

stroke volume

80.

The cardiovascular centers are located in which area

of the brain?

a)

medulla oblongata


b)

pons


c)

mesencephalon (midbrain)


d)

cerebrum

81.

The endothelium is found in the ________.

a)

tunica intima


b)

tunica media


c)

tunica externa


d)

lumen

82.

Which of the following best describes veins?

a)

thick walled, small lumens, low pressure, lack valves


b)

thin walled, large lumens, low pressure, have valves



c)

thin walled, small lumens, high pressure, have valves

d)

thick walled, large lumens, high pressure, lack valves

83.

In a blood pressure measurement of 110/70, the

number 70 is the ________.

a)

systolic pressure


b)

diastolic pressure


c)

pulse pressure


d)

mean arterial pressure

84.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The longer the vessel, the lower the resistance and the greater the flow.


b)

As blood volume decreases, blood pressure and blood flow also decrease.


c)

Increased viscosity increases blood flow.


d)

All of the above are true.

85.

A form of circulatory shock common in young children with severe diarrhea or vomiting is ________.

a)

hypovolemic shock


b)

anaphylactic shock


c)

obstructive shock


d)

hemorrhagic shock

86.

The coronary arteries branch off of the ________.

a)

aortic valve


b)

ascending aorta


c)

aortic arch


d)

thoracic aorta

87.

Arteries serving the stomach, pancreas, and liver all branch from the ________.

a)

superior mesenteric artery


b)

inferior mesenteric artery


c)

celiac trunk


d)

splenic artery

88.

The hepatic portal system delivers blood from the digestive organs to the ________.

a)

liver


b)

hypothalamus


c)

spleen


d)

left atrium

89.

The right and left brachiocephalic veins________.

a)

drain blood from the right and left internal jugular veins


b)

drain blood from the right and left subclavian veins


c)

drain into the superior vena cava


d)

all of the above are true

90.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Two umbilical veins carry oxygen-depleted blood from the fetal circulation to the placenta.


b)

One umbilical vein carries oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the fetal heart.


c)

Two umbilical arteries carry oxygen-depleted blood to the fetal lungs.


d)

None of the above are true.

91.

Which of the following cells is phagocytic?

a)

plasma cell

b)

macrophage

c)

B cell

d)

NK cell

92.

Which of the following cells is important in the innate

immune response?

a)

B cells


b)

T cells



c)

macrophages


d)

plasma cells

93.

Which of the following cells would be most active in early, antiviral immune responses the first time one is exposed to pathogen?

a)

macrophage

b)

T cell

c)

neutrophil

d)

d. natural killer cell

94.

Which of the following signs is not characteristic of inflammation?

a)

redness

b)

pain

c)

cold

d)

swelling

95.

Which of the following leads to the redness of inflammation?

a)

increased vascular permeability


b)

anaphylactic shock


c)

increased blood flow


d)

complement activation

96.

Which class of antibody crosses the placenta in pregnant

women?

a)

IgM


b)

IgA


c)

IgE


d)

IgG

97.

Which type of immune response is most directly effective

against bacteria?

a)

natural killer cells

b)

complement

c)

cytotoxic T cells

d)

helper T cells

98.

What is the reason that you have to be immunized with a new influenza vaccine each year?

a)

the vaccine is only protective for a year

b)

mutation

c)

macrophage oxidative metabolism

d)

memory response

99.

Why do we have natural antibodies?

a)

We don’t know why.


b)

immunity to environmental bacteria


c)

immunity to transplants

d)

from clonal selection

100.

Which of the following is not important in the antiviral innate immune response?

a)

interferons


b)

natural killer cells


c)

complement


d)

microphages