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APES Unit 1-4 Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The study of environmental science primarily considers

a)

interactions among human systems and those found in Earth

b)

the effect of human systems

c)

abiotic factors that influence the state of our environment

d)

factors that affect global climate change

2.

An ecosystem is a location on Earth that includes

a)

only biotic components

b)

only abiotic components

c)

interacting biotic and abiotic components

d)

positive and negative feedback loops

3.

Living in a sustainable way refers to

a)

recycling all paper, plastic, and metals

b)

using resources in a way that does not deprive future generations

c)

using Earth's resources efficiently

d)

eating locally whenever possible

4.

Which of the following is a qualitative observation?

a)

15 inches

b)

a liquid

c)

a green solution

d)

6 feet 1 inches

5.

Place the ecology levels of organization in proper order (smallest to largest)

a)

organism > population > community > ecosystem > biosphere

b)

community > organism > ecosystem > biosphere > population

c)

organism > community > biosphere > population > ecosystem

d)

population > biosphere > ecosystem > community > organism

6.

A tapeworm lives in the small intestines where it feeds and grows, robbing the human of essential nutrients. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

7.

The cattle egret follows herds of cattle and eat the insects that the cattle stir up as they move through the grassland. The cattle appear to be unaffected by the egrets. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

8.

A positive feedback loop occurs

a)

when a system responds to a change by returning to its original state

b)

when feedback into a system decreases a rate of response

c)

when a system is in a steady state

d)

when feedback into a system increases a rate of response

9.

Which is a biotic factor?

a)

producers

b)

pH

c)

energy

d)

humidity

10.

What law best relates to energy loss within an ecosystem?

a)

First law of thermodynamics

b)

Second law of thermodynamics

c)

Third law of thermodynamics

d)

Law of conservation of matter

11.

Which best describes the concept of net primary production?

a)

total amount of energy available from the Sun

b)

total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

c)

energy captured minus energy lost

d)

total amount of energy available from the producer

12.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 10oC and 200 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Temperate seasonal forest

b)

Temperate rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Tropical seasonal forest

13.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 4oC and 50 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Tundra

b)

Boreal forest

c)

Temperate grassland/cold desert

d)

Woodland/shrubland

14.

What factors are used to classify a biome?

a)

average temperature

b)

average precipitation

c)

distinctive plants adapted to area

d)

all of these are correct

15.

Which biome is characterized by the presence of permafrost?

a)

temperate seasonal forest

b)

woodland/shrubland

c)

tundra

d)

boreal forest

16.

Terrestrial biomes are defined by ____ and ____ variables.

a)

temperature; precipitation

b)

temperature; animals

c)

precipitation; plants

d)

animals; plants

17.

What is a herbivore?

a)

receives energy from the sun

b)

only eats meat

c)

only eats plants

d)

eats both plants and meat

18.

A keystone species is best defined as

a)

an organism that eats all others

b)

an organism that runs the fastest

c)

an organism that keeps the food web stable

d)

an organism that has the most advantages

19.

Which of the following are examples of wetlands?

a)

swamps

b)

marshes

c)

bogs

d)

all of these are correct

20.

Which biome has warm temperatures, high precipitation, and little seasonal variation due to its location near the equator?

a)

Boreal forest

b)

Tropical rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Subtropical desert

21.

The direction of an arrow in a food chain represents

a)

the flow of energy from organism B to A

b)

the movement of organisms

c)

the directionality of the sun

d)

the flow of energy from organism A to B

22.

All of the following is true about a niche generalist EXCEPT

a)

thrives in multiple environments

b)

feeds on specific food only

c)

lives in various habitats

d)

feeds on various food

23.

What is an omnivore?

a)

receives energy from the sun

b)

only eats meat

c)

only eats plants

d)

eats both plants and meat

24.

When two species attempt to use the same resource and one outcompetes the other

a)

competitive exclusion

b)

demographic transition

c)

directional selection

d)

resource partitioning

25.

Five species of warblers coexist in the same fir tree by occupying different areas of the tree. This demonstrates

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

competitive exclusion

c)

natural selection

d)

resource partitioning

26.

Why do biomes near the equator have greater biodiversity than those near the poles?

a)

due to ecological succession

b)

due to the invasion of exotic species

c)

the temperature & precipitation is greater near the equator

d)

the temperature & precipitation is greater near the poles

27.

Why are phytoplankton more abundant near the surface of oceans?

a)

to be more accessible to other organisms

b)

sunlight cannot penetrate great depths

c)

they are ba-ba-ba benthic organisms

d)

because they feed on zooplankton that live there

28.

Where would you find the greatest diversity in the ocean?

a)

away from the shore near the surface

b)

in the deepest parts of the ocean

c)

in the middle depths of the ocean

d)

near the shore and close to the surface

29.

What two major processes are involved in the carbon cycle?

a)

erosion and deposition

b)

evaporation and transpiration

c)

fixation and denitrification

d)

photosynthesis and respiration

30.

What is a primary source of nitrates & phosphates?

a)

burning of coal

b)

changes in environmental temperature

c)

fertilizers and sewage

d)

nitrogen fixation and lightning

31.

Why is the main reason phosphorus is a limiting factor?

a)

it cannot be readily taken up by plants

b)

is cycles too quickly through the biosphere

c)

it is insoluble in water and forms sediments like rock

d)

there is too much of it in nature typically that it is toxic

32.

Which element does NOT have a gas phase?

a)

carbon

b)

nitrogen

c)

phosphorus

d)

sulfur

33.

Stage of the hydrologic cycle where plants lose water from their pores

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

precipitation

d)

transpiration

34.

What is the NPP if the GPP is 5.8 kg C/m2/year and respiration is 2.4 kg C/m2/year?

a)

2.4 kg C/m2/year

b)

3.4 kg C/m2/year

c)

5.8 kg C/m2/year

d)

8.2 kg C/m2/year

35.

Which of the following have the LOWEST net primary productivity?

a)

agricultural land with crops

b)

estuary

c)

open ocean

d)

temperate deciduous forest

36.

Why are decomposers a significant part of ecosystems?

a)

the neutralize acid deposition

b)

they produce more oxygen than they consume

c)

they recycle nutrients

d)

they remove heavy metals from the air

37.

What type of organism would be found at the lowest trophic level?

a)

bear

b)

grass

c)

kangaroo

d)

python snake

38.

If producers capture 15,000 Joules of energy from the sun, how much energy would a secondary consumer receive?

a)

15 Joules

b)

150 Joules

c)

1,500 Joules

d)

15,000 Joules

39.

What law explains the loss of energy as it goes through the food chain?

a)

1st Law of Thermodynamics

b)

2nd Law of Thermodynamics

c)

3rd Law of Thermodynamics

d)

Law of conservation of matter

40.

Which latitude would have the greatest biodiversity? (Remember...the equator is at 0 degrees and the poles are 90 degrees)

a)

0 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

60 degrees

d)

90 degrees

41.

What type of ecosystem is more resilient or likely to recover after a disturbance?

a)

an ecosystem with low biodiversity

b)

an ecosystem with high biodiversity

c)

the level of biodiversity does not influence resilience of an ecosystem

d)

a small population with specialized niches

42.

Which type of species is most vulnerable and less able to adapt to changes in the environment?

a)

species with a large population size

b)

niche generalists

c)

niche specialists

d)

species with high genetic variation

43.

What is the best reason Kudzu is considered an invasive species?

a)

it produces little nectar

b)

it has chemical defenses

c)

it has no natural predators

d)

it grows so slow

44.

Which of the following would DECREASE island biodiversity?

a)

increased amount of edge habitat

b)

increased island size

c)

increased proximity to the mainland

d)

less competition

45.

Species, like sea otters, on which many other species in an ecosystem greatly depend on are known as

a)

alien species

b)

endemic species

c)

indicator species

d)

keystone species

46.

Native pollinators often are able to pollinate plants better than introduced species. What would explain this phenomenon?

a)

they are resistant to pesticides

b)

they are smaller that non-native species

c)

they have coevolved with the native plants

d)

they undergo metamorphosis more quickly

47.

Which of the following is NOT true about ecological succession?

a)

Animals replace plants due to their superior intelligence.

b)

Large trees produce shade and compete for resources with small plants.

c)

Lichens and small plants produce soil that allow larger plants to grow.

d)

Secondary succession occurs more quickly than primary succession because it begins with soil.

48.

If a tree species in the US survives best in cold temperatures, what would most likely result from global warming?

a)

it would spread further east

b)

it would spread further north

c)

it would spread further south

d)

no change

49.

Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the nitrogen cycle?

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.

Which of the following characteristics is most closely associated with a country that demonstrates the age structure diagram show above?

a)

There is a low infant mortality rate

b)

A high percentage of the population has access to medical care

c)

There is a low population growth

d)

There is a high total fertility rate

51.

What type of age structure diagram represents a population with negative growth rate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
52.

Countries undergoing rapid populations growth include which of the following?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III

e)

I, II, and III

53.

Represents the maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a particular ecosystem on a long-term basis

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

54.

Which of the following is a true statement about the total fertility of a society?

a)

The total fertility of a society is the difference between the crude birth rate and the crude death rate.

b)

The total fertility of a society is the number of children necessary for a couple to replace themselves in the next generation.

c)

The total fertility of a society is positively correlated with the average education of women.

d)

The total fertility of a society is negatively correlated with the number of women of child-bearing age.

e)

The total fertility of a society decreases as the society progresses through the demographic transition.

55.

Which of the following is most typically associated with the transition from a rural to an urbanized society?

a)

Reduced birth rates

b)

Reduced need for sewage-treatment facilities

c)

Increased rates of population growth

d)

Increased air quality in urban areas

e)

Increased stabilization of microclimate in urban areas

56.

Members of an r-selected species characteristically

a)

grow slowly

b)

produce few offspring

c)

reach sexual maturity quickly

d)

have long life spans

e)

are very protective of their offspring

57.

Which of the following characteristics in the table best supports the claim that:

Country A is a more developed country and that Country

B is a less developed country?

a)

population size

b)

land area

c)

infant mortality rate

d)

net migration rate

58.

The crude growth rate, r , of a population is calculated by

a)

multiplying the existing population size by life expectancy

b)

dividing the crude birth rate by 2

c)

dividing the doubling time by 70

d)

adding the crude birth rate to the crude death rate

e)

subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate

59.

Cycads are gymnosperms that were diverse and abundant during the Mesozoic era. Extant species of cycads share many traits with those from the Mesozoic era. Cycads bear cones, are long-lived with slow growth rates, show late reproductive maturity, and have very few offspring. Based on this description, the cycads are

a)

K-strategists with a Type I survivorship curve.

b)

r-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

c)

K-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

d)

r-strategists with a Type II survivorship curve.

60.

In a certain country, the birth rate is high, the death rate is high, and there are many children that are part of the workforce. The country is most likely in which of the following stages of the demographic transition?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

61.

During which stage of the demographic transition shown above does a population begin to experience an explosive increase in growth?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

e)

After Stage 4

62.

In a human population undergoing the demographic transition, which of the following generally decreases first?

a)

Birth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

Average family size

d)

Life expectancy

e)

Level of education

63.

Factors that affect the total fertility rate of a human population include which of the following?

I. Cultural traditions

II. Government policies and economic incentives

III. Education level and economic opportunities for females

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

II and III

e)

I, II and III

64.

If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5 percent per year, the number of years required for the population to double is closest to

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

25 years

e)

35 years

65.

What is a primary producer?

a)

autotrophs (plants, algae, phytoplankton)

b)

heterotrophs

c)

carnivores

d)

herbivores

66.

What is a generalist species?

a)

Species with a broad range of tolerance

b)

Species with a narrow range of tolerance

67.
What causes acid rain?
a)
High concentrations of sulfuric or nitric acid from pollution
b)
Fertilizer use
c)
Pesticide use
d)
CFCs
68.

At which of the following sites is an earthquake likely to occur as two plates slide sideways past each other?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

69.

The location where new crust is being created at a divergent plate boundary

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

70.

Which of the lettered choices in the soil profile represents the region with the greatest concentration of organic material?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

71.

A farm is experiencing extensive crop loss due to high rains causing overly saturated soils. Which of the following approaches would best help the farmer alleviate the problem?

a)

Fertilizing the area with manure to eliminate the need for inorganic chemical fertilizers

b)

Amending the soil with clay to increase the water-holding capacity of the soil

c)

Amending the soil with sand to increase the permeability of the soil

d)

Using contour plowing to decrease soil erosion

72.

Which of the following shows the approximate concentration of CO2, N2, and O2 in dry air?

a)

CO2 - 78%; N2 - <1%; O2 - 21%

b)

CO2 - 43%; N2 - <1%; O2 - 56%

c)

CO2 -36%; N2 - 8%; O2 - 56%

d)

CO2 - <1%; N2 - 78%; O2 - 21%

73.

Which of the following is the source of energy driving the circulation pattern labeled C in the diagram?

a)

The Coriolis effect

b)

Solar radiation

c)

Earth's magnetic field

d)

The spinning core of Earth

74.

Which latitude shown on the diagram below experiences 24 hours of daylight on December 21?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

75.

The Sun's radiation provides the energy for all of the following except

a)

Plant growth

b)

Ocean currents

c)

Hurricanes

d)

Plate tectonics

76.

The high sea surface temperature in 1998 was most likely due to

a)

global warming

b)

El Nino

c)

Eutrophication

d)

Salinization

77.

What converts nitrogen gas into a usable form for plants and animals?

a)

bacteria

b)

rain

c)

fungi

d)

car exhaust

78.

Gas that makes up 78% of our atmosphere.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon Dioxide

79.
Which is NOT a factor in the theory of island biogeography?
a)
Islands farther from the continent have more species due to increased speciation
b)
dispersing species are more likely to find a large habitat
c)
islands can also be isolated areas within a continent
d)
larger habitats contain a larger range of environmental conditions
80.
The layer of soil which the topsoil is found.
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
81.
What is a soil problem all farmers face?
a)
soil hardening
b)
soil erosion
c)
soil spoiling
d)
soil pollution
82.

Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture?

a)

clay

b)

clay loam

c)

sandy loam

d)

silt

83.

In what layer of the atmosphere do all weather events occur?

a)

Stratosphere

b)

Exosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Troposphere

84.

The ozone layer is a sublayer of the ________ layer.

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Exosphere

d)

Mesosphere

85.
Sea floor spreading is caused by
a)
transform boundaries
b)
convergent boundaries
c)
divergent boundaries
d)
earthquakes
86.

Which of the following can naturally "fix" atmospheric nitrogen so plants can utilize it?

a)

only bacteria

b)

bacteria and lightning

c)

herbivores

d)

carnivores

87.
Negative Feedback Loops:
a)
amplify processes
b)
prevent small changes from getting larger
c)
are initiated during childbirth
d)
are found only in plants
88.
In what process is Carbon transformed into chemical energy?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Respiration
c)
Primary Production
d)
Secondary Production
89.
Why is the ocean important to the carbon cycle?
a)
It keeps sediment containing carbon underwater for millions of years
b)
The ocean gives out more carbon then it takes in (increases global warming)
c)
The ocean isn't important to the carbon cycle.
90.
Look at the energy pyramid shown.  If a pesticide is released into the environment that kills most of the grasshoppers, which of the following is most likely to occur? 
a)
a decrease in the amount of grass
b)
a decrease in the number of snakes
c)
an increase in the number of hawks
d)
an increase in population for all organisms
91.

The introduction of an invasive (exotic) species affects biodiversity negatively if the species;

a)

has a faster growth rate than native species

b)

outcompetes the native species for resources

c)

carries a new pathogen into the native species habitat

d)

all of the above.

92.

An environmental limiting factor such as predation, disease, and competition that depends on the number of members in a population per unit

a)

dispersion

b)

density- independent factor

c)

density- dependent factor

d)

population growth rate

93.
Mountains are created when....
a)
Two continental plates collide
b)
Two oceanic plates pull apart
c)
An Oceanic plate subducts under a Continental Plate
d)
Two continental plates pull apart
94.

VOCAB: The average number of children a female member of a population has during her lifetime

a)

total fertility rate

b)

replacement fertility rate

c)

growth rate

d)

death rate

95.
Countries with high growth rates usually have an age structure that has
a)
an even distribution over all ages
b)
more older people than young people
c)
more younger people than older people.
d)
more middle-aged people than younger people.
96.

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 1% would double in

a)

7 years

b)

10 years

c)

25 years

d)

70 years

e)

not enough information given

97.

Which phase of the demographic transition is marked by decreasing birth rates and low death rates?

a)

Phase 1 (Pre-Industrial)

b)

Phase 2 (Transitional)

c)

Phase 3 (Industrial)

d)

Phase 4 (Post-Industrial)

98.
Why is topsoil darker than all other levels of soil?
a)
It contains all the darker colored minerals
b)
It contains volcanic rock
c)
It contains more organic matter
d)
It contains bits of burned trees
99.
Soil conservation includes all of the following EXCEPT_______.
a)
Desertification
b)
Contour plowing
c)
Terracing
d)
Crop rotation
100.

What effect did over plowing and removal of native plants have in the Great Plains during the 1930’s?

a)

It had little effect

b)

It increased soil fertility

c)

It was a primary cause of the Dust Bowl

d)

Farmers had a great harvest