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Benchmark 3 Review Fall 2020

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mr. McNiece wanted to see how different types of music affected students' pulse/heart rates. She played different types of music: heavy metal, rap, R&B, alternative, pop, country, and classical music.


Identify the independent variable.


(UNIT ONE)

a)

The end result was that classical music resulted in the highest pulse rate.

b)

none of these

c)

measure of pulse rate

d)

different types of music

2.

_______ is to the ability of the body or a cell to seek and maintain a condition of equilibrium or stability within its internal environment when dealing with external changes.


(UNIT ONE)

a)

cell theory

b)

homeostasis

c)

evolution

d)

growth

3.

What are the three main parts of a nucleotide?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

b)

phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base

c)

phosphate, sulfate, and nitrate

d)

adenine, thymine, and uracil

4.

Proteins are composed of chains of _____________ which are joined together with peptide bonds.


(UNIT ONE)

a)

fatty acids

b)

amino acids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

monosaccharides

5.

Letter D is the _________________


(UNIT ONE)

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

6.

Letter B is the _________________


(UNIT ONE)

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

7.

Letter C is the _________________


(UNIT ONE)

a)

active site

b)

enzymes

c)

substrate

d)

products

8.

The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.

b)

Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.

c)

Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.

d)

Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.

9.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

The enzymes die.

b)

The shapes of the enzyme are altered or denatured

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

The enzymes remain the same

10.

_____________ is the breakdown of polymers into monomers and ____________ is the formation of polymers from monomers.


(UNIT ONE)

a)

dehydration synthesis, hydrolysis

b)

disulfide bonds, hydrolysis

c)

hydrolysis, dehydration synthesis

d)

dehydration synthesis, peptide bonds

11.

Which of the following elements make up carbohydrates?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

C, H, O

b)

C, H, O, N

c)

C, H, O, N, P

d)

C, H, O, N, S

12.

Which of the following elements make up lipids?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

C, H, O

b)

C, H, O, N

c)

C, H, O, N, P

d)

C, H, O, N, S

13.

Which of the following elements make up proteins?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

C, H, O

b)

C, H, O, N

c)

C, H, O, N, P

d)

C, H, O, N, S

14.

Which of the following elements make up nucleic acids?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

C, H, O

b)

C, H, O, N

c)

C, H, O, N, P

d)

C, H, O, Ca, S

15.

Which of the following answers links a biomolecule with one of its proper functions?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

Lipids - Store genetic information

b)

Carbohydrates - short term energy storage

c)

Nucleic Acids - Catalyze reactions

d)

Proteins - long term energy storage

16.

The slow burning energy storage in your body is...


(UNIT ONE)

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleic acids

17.

The quick energy that your body uses for simple tasks is...


(UNIT ONE)

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

18.

What is the functions of lipids?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

Quick source of energy

b)

Builds muscles, skin, enzymes

c)

Stores genetic information

d)

Stores energy, insulation, protection

19.

Which is true about a water molecule?


(UNIT ONE)

a)

The oxygen has a partially positive charge

b)

The hydrogen has a partially negative charge

c)

The oxygen has a partially negative charge

d)

The carbon is neutral

20.

In order for a covalent bond to be considered polar the electrons must


(UNIT ONE)

a)

be shared unequally (which results in partial positive and negative charges)

b)

be shared equally (which does not result in partial positive and negative charges)

c)

be transferred completely

d)

not form bonds at all

21.

Bonds that form BETWEEN water molecules as a result of the partial positive and negative charges are called


(UNIT ONE)

a)

covalent bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

sulfur bonds

d)

peptide bonds

22.

Which is an example of a prokaryotic cell?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

chloroplast

b)

bacterium

c)

fungus

d)

muscle cell

23.

The cell on the left is considered a _______ cell and the one on the right is considered a _________ cell.


(UNIT TWO)

a)

animal, bacteria

b)

bacteria, prokaryote

c)

prokaryote, eukaryote

d)

plant, animal

24.

Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.

b)

Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.

c)

Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.

d)

Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.

25.

Which list of organelles could be found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

mitochondria, cytoplasm, nucleus

b)

ribosomes, cytoplasm, mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm, plasma membrane, ribosomes

d)

cytoplasm, chloroplasts, plasma membrane

26.

Which of the following organelles is responsible for allowing things in and out of the cell?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

cell membrane

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

lysosomes

d)

mitochondria

27.

This structure is large and centrally located in plant cells. It stores water and when full helps the plant maintain its structure.


(UNIT TWO)

a)

Large Central Vacuole

b)

Vacuole

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Golgi Apparatus

28.

Which organelle would be found in large quantities in muscle cells?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

centriole

b)

vacuole

c)

mitochindrion

d)

ribosome

29.

Based on physical features, this cell is most likely a(n) ____________ cell.


(UNIT TWO)

a)

eukaryotic plant

b)

eukaryotic animal

c)

prokaryotic fungus

d)

prokaryotic bacterial

30.

In which organelle does photosynthesis occur?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

mitochondria

b)

stomata

c)

xylem

d)

chloroplast

31.

Which organelle is DNA usually found in?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

32.

These contain digestive enzymes and are responsible for getting rid of waste and attacking foreign invaders.


(UNIT TWO)

a)

mitochondria

b)

lysosomes

c)

vacuoles

d)

Rough ER

33.

Using this image, what organelle is C?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Large Cell Vacuole

d)

Chloroplast

34.

I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

vacuole

b)

ribosome

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

golgi apparatus

35.

This organelle takes food and turns it into ENERGY for plant and animal cells.


(UNIT TWO)

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Lysosome

d)

Ribosome

36.

A rigid layer that lies outside the cell's membrane is...


(UNIT TWO)

a)

Cytoskeleton

b)

Cilia

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Flagella

37.

You are looking at a cell under a microscope. You spot a nucleus, organelles, and a cell wall. This cell most likely is


(UNIT TWO)

a)

Prokaryote cell

b)

Bacterial cell

c)

Eukaryotic cell

d)

None of the above

38.

Which of these statements is NOT part of the cell theory?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

all cells emerge from pre-existing cells

b)

all organisms are composed of one or more cells

c)

every cell has a nucleus that contains genetic material

d)

cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

39.

While working in the lab with samples of food, Rachel saw this rod-shaped organism under the microscope. With further tests, Rachel noticed that the organism was single-celled and did not contain a nucleus. Which of these did Rachel conclude was the best way to classify this organism?


(UNIT TWO)

a)

bacteria

b)

fungus

c)

protist

d)

virus

40.

If stranded on a deserted island with no freshwater, it is not advisable to drink sea water. Why not?


(UNIT THREE)

a)

The salty snacks cause an ionic imbalance that triggers a nervous response.

b)

The salt in the body creates a hypertonic solution around cells, which causes water to diffuse out of cells and make them crenate.

c)

The salt in the body creates a hypotonic solution around cells, which causes water to diffuse into cells and make them cytolyse.

d)

The salt in the body creates an isotonic solution around cells, which causes water to diffuse into and out of cells which makes them unstable.

41.

Which of the following phrases best describes active transport?


(UNIT THREE)

a)

moves substances against concentration gradient

b)

does not use chemical energy

c)

forms a vesicle around a large particle

d)

relies on diffusion of materials

42.

Which sentence best describes exocytosis?


(UNIT THREE)

a)

A vesicle fuses to a lysosome and its contents are destroyed

b)

A vesicle fuses to the cell membrane and its contents enter the cell

c)

A vesicle fuses to the cell membrane and its contents leave the cell.

d)

A vesicle fuses to the nuclear envelope and its contents enter the nucleus.

43.

What are two types of passive transport?


(UNIT THREE)

a)

endo and exocytosis

b)

cookies and milk

c)

active and passive

d)

Osmosis and diffusion

44.

Special proteins help move particles, but NO energy is needed. This is..


(UNIT THREE)

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

exocytosis

c)

active transport

d)

equilibrium

45.

Most of the cell membrane is made of...


(UNIT THREE)

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbs

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic acids

46.

How many layers is the lipid bilayer?


(UNIT THREE)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

47.

The diffusion of WATER across a semi-permeable membrane is ____________.


(UNIT THREE)

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

endocytosis

d)

exocytosis

48.

A cell has a higher concentration of molecules inside the cell than outside the cell. The cell wants to move molecules from the outside to the inside. What transport would be required for this?


(UNIT THREE)

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Active transport

49.

When a cell is placed in an isotonic solution water will flow


(UNIT THREE)

a)

into the cell

b)

outside of the cell

c)

at equal rates

d)

water will not flow

50.

What process is being depicted in the diagram? What structure are the molecules travelling through?


(UNIT THREE)

a)

osmosis, protein pump

b)

simple diffusion, protein pump

c)

osmosis, aquaporins

d)

active transport, protein channel

51.

Which form of active transport is being shown? (Inside of the cell is tan colored)


(UNIT THREE)

a)

Facilitated Diffusion

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

52.

If a cell containing 5% salt is placed into a glass of water with 2% salt, the water is _______ compared to the cell.


(UNIT THREE)

a)

hypertonic-

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

53.

Which of these occurs in BOTH aerobic and anaerobic respiration


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

fermentation

b)

glycolysis

c)

kreb's cycle

d)

electron transport

54.

The step of aerobic respiration that makes the most CO2 is


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

prep reaction

d)

electron transport

55.

The products of the light dependent reaction include


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

oxygen, NADPH and ATP

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide and water

d)

NADH and oxygen

56.

The step of aerobic respiration that makes the most ATP is


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

krebs cycle

b)

glycolysis

c)

prep reaction

d)

electron transport

57.

All of the following pathways are aerobic (require oxygen) EXCEPT


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

Krebs Cycle

b)

Electron Transport Chain

c)

Glycolysis

58.

How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration related to each other?


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

the products of one are the reactants of the other (and vice versa)

b)

they both occur exclusively in animal cells

c)

they use the same exact organelle for both processes

d)

none of these

59.

Anaerobic respiration.....


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

doesn't require CO2

b)

requires CO2

c)

doesn't require oxygen

d)

requires oxygen

60.

What pigment absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis?


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

chloroplast

b)

thylakoid

c)

grana

d)

chlorophyll

61.

Chlorophyll absorbs a higher percentage of _____ and _______ light.


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

purple and green

b)

red and blue

c)

black and orange

d)

yellow and green

62.

During the winter time, the total number of hours of sunlight decreases. What effect would this have on the process of photosynthesis?


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

The rate of photosynthesis would decrease and less glucose would be produced.

b)

The rate of photosynthesis would increase and more glucose would be produced.

c)

The amount of available sunlight does not influence the rate of photosynthesis.

d)

It would have no effect on plants having needles instead of leaves, that stay green all year long

63.

What two products does a plant make during photosynthesis?


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

Water and Glucose

b)

Oxygen and Glucose

c)

Oxygen and Water

d)

CO2 and Glucose

64.

What is an important component of ATP that is needed to transfer and release energy directly?


(UNIT FOUR)

a)

nitrogen

b)

uracil

c)

zinc

d)

phosphate

65.

Which is a result of mitosis


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

4 sex cells

b)

4 haploid cells

c)

2 diploid daughter cells

d)

2 haploid daughter cells

66.

At the end of meiosis II, how does the DNA in each of the four new cells compare to the DNA from the original cell?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

half as much and genetically the same as the original

b)

twice as much and genetically the same as the original

c)

half as much and genetically different from the original

d)

twice as much and genetically different from the original

67.

What is the result of mitosis?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

1 cell

b)

2 genetically identical cells

c)

2 genetically different cells

d)

4 genetically identical cells

68.

Which of the following describes the purpose of the mitosis cell cycle?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

To make more of the same cells.

b)

For growth and repair.

c)

To prevent the cell from becoming too large.

d)

All of the above.

69.

A is:

B is:

C is:


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

A: chromatid

B: centromere

C: chromosome

b)

A: chromosome

B: chromatid

C: centromere

c)

A: chromosome

B: centromere

C: chromatid

d)

A: centromere

B: chromosome

C: chromatid

70.

Cell division consists of two phases. The division of genetic material is _________ and the splitting of the cytoplasm is ___________.


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

mitosis, cytokinesis

b)

cytokinesis, mitosis

c)

interphase, mitosis

d)

G1 phase, cytokinesis

71.

Put the stages of mitosis in the correct order.


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase

b)

metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase

c)

anaphase - prophase - telophase - metaphase

d)

telophase - metaphase - prophase - anaphase

72.

Identify the phase of mitosis


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

73.

What is this phase of mitosis?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

74.

What is the name of the structure labeled X?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

Centriole

b)

Centrosome

c)

Chromatid

d)

Chromosome

75.

Name the phase:


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

76.

Name the phase of mitosis.


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prophase

77.

What phase is represented by letter D?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

78.

meiosis results in


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

four genetically different gametes

b)

two genetically different gametes

c)

four genetically identical somatic cells

d)

two genetically identical somatic cells

79.

During which phase of the cell cycle is the cell growing and preparing for cellular division?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

cytokinesis

b)

prophase

c)

anaphase

d)

interphase

80.

(UNIT FIVE)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

81.

The point on the chromosome where the two chromatids are held together is the


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

centromere

b)

centriole

c)

chromosome

d)

chromatid

82.

How is cancer related to mitosis?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

cancerous cells have lost their ability to control their division cycles

b)

they are not related whatsoever

c)

mitosis always results in cancer

d)

mitosis can be used to treat cancer

83.

How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

Sexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but asexual reproduction produces offspring with traits from both parents.

b)

Asexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but sexual reproduction produces offspring with traits from both parents.

c)

Sexual reproduction only occurs in multicellular organisms, but asexual reproduction only occurs in unicellular organisms.

d)

Asexual reproduction only occurs in multicellular organisms, but sexual reproduction only occurs in unicellular organisms.

84.

How does cytokinesis differ in plant and animal cells?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

Cytokinesis only takes place in animal cells.

b)

Cytokinesis only takes place in plant cells.

c)

Plant cells form a cell plate, animal cells form a cleavage furrow.

d)

Animal cells form a cell plate, plant cells form a cleavage furrow.

85.

_____________ cells contain 23 chromosomes in humans and _____________ cells contain 46 chromosomes.


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

gamete, somatic

b)

somatic, gamete

c)

mitosis, meiosis

d)

nondisjunction, normal

86.

How can you tell if a cell is in meiosis I vs meiosis II?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

homologous chromosomes only exist in meiosis I

b)

homologous chromosomes only exist in meiosis II

87.

When does this process occur?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

during all phases of mitosis

b)

prophase I of meiosis

c)

prophase II of meiosis

d)

telophase I or meiosis

88.

Which phase of meiosis is pictured?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

anaphase I

b)

anaphase II

c)

metaphase I

d)

metaphase II

89.

What phase of meiosis is represented?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

metaphase 1

b)

metaphase 2

c)

anaphase 1

d)

anaphase 2

90.

Which type of cell division is responsible for the production of gametes?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Cloning

d)

Asexual reproduction

91.

Which distinguishes mitosis from meiosis?


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

Mitosis has one DNA replication, while meiosis has two DNA replications.

b)

In mitosis, one nuclear division occurs. In meiosis, two nuclear divisions occur.

c)

In mitosis, homologous chromosomes pair up. In meiosis, there is no pairing of chromosomes.

d)

Mitosis results in the production of gametes, while meiosis results in the production of body cells.

92.

meiosis results in four, _______________ cells and mitosis results in four, _________________ cells


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

genetically different, genetically identical

b)

genetically identical, genetically different

c)

genetically identical, genetically identical

d)

genetically different, genetically different

93.

Humans have _____ chromosomes in each of their somatic cells and _______ in their gametes (sperm & egg cells).


(UNIT FIVE)

a)

23, 46

b)

46, 23

c)

50, 100

d)

100, 50

94.

Yellow fur is dominant to red fur. Cross two heterozygous parents. This would produce more...


(UNIT SIX)

a)

red fur offspring

b)

heterozygous offspring than homozygous individuals

c)

yellow fur offspring then orange or red

d)

the same amount of heterozygous and homozygous individuals

95.

Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.

Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

XHXh

b)

XhXh

c)

XHXH

d)

XhY

96.

Muscular dystrophy is a sex-linked recessive disorder. A man with muscular dystrophy marries a woman who doesn’t have this disease. Half of their daughters and half of their sons develop this disease. What is the genotype of the mother?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

XNXN

b)

XNXn

c)

Xn

d)

XN

97.

When two carriers of cystic fibrosis produce children, there is a:

75% chance that the baby will be a carrier 25% chance that the baby will be completely normal 50% chance that the baby will have cystic fibrosis 25% chance that the baby will have cystic fibrosis


(UNIT SIX)

a)

1 only

b)

3 only

c)

2 and 4 only

d)

1 and 2 only

98.

If you cross a black chicken with a white chicken, only black and white checkered chickens would be produced. What kind of inheritance pattern does this follow?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

99.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross a red flower with a speckled flower. What is the phenotypic ratio?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

2 red, 2 speckled

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

2 blue, 2 speckled

100.

If Huntington's disease is a dominant disorder, which of the following individuals would not have Huntington's Disease?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

d)

all would have the disorder

101.

The letters on the TOP AND SIDE of a punnett square represent ______________.


(UNIT SIX)

a)

The combination of alleles in offspring.

b)

The possible alleles given by the parents following meiosis.

c)

The genotype and phenotype of offspring.

d)

The results of genetic mutations in offspring.

102.

Law of independent assortment states:


(UNIT SIX)

a)

the two alleles for each trait separate during meiosis

b)

the two alleles for each trait separate during mitosis

c)

a random distribution of alleles occur during gamete formation

d)

a ordered distribution of alleles occur during gamete formation

103.

Law of segregation states:


(UNIT SIX)

a)

the two alleles for each trait separate during meiosis

b)

the two alleles for each trait separate during mitosis

c)

a random distribution of alleles occur during gamete formation

d)

a ordered distribution of alleles occur during gamete formation

104.

A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance. What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

105.

BB, RR, TT


(UNIT SIX)

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous dominant

c)

homozygous recessive

106.

Which term(s) best describes the inheritance of human blood types?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

incomplete dominance and multiple alleles

b)

codominance and epistasis

c)

codominance and multiple alleles

d)

incomplete dominance and codominance

107.

In a cross between a round(R)-yellow(Y) seeded plant and a wrinkled (r)- yellow(Y) seeded pea plant, green(y)-wrinkled (r) seeded offspring are produced.

(Next 2 questions will be about this information.)


a. What are the genotypes of parents?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

RrYy X rrYy

b)

RrYY X rrYy

c)

RrYy X RrYy

d)

RRYy X rrYy

e)

RRYy X RrYY

108.

T4 - Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What percentage of the offspring of the cross BbTt x BBtt will have black fur and long tails?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

109.

B = brown eyes

b = blue eyes

What is true about these two brothers that have brown eyes?

One has genotype BB the other Bb.


(UNIT SIX)

a)

they have same phenotype and genotype

b)

they have different genotypes and phenotypes

c)

they have same phenotype but different genotypes

d)

they have same genotype but different phenotypes

110.

Select the following option(s) that is/are considered to be homozygous.


(UNIT SIX)

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

111.

The different forms within a characteristic (blue eyes, brown eyes)


(UNIT SIX)

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Characteristic

d)

Trait

112.

In Andalusian fowls, black individuals (BB) and white individuals (bb) are homozygous. Heterozygous individuals are grey (Bb).

Cross a black fowl with a white fowl. What is the phenotype ratio?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

4 black: 0 grey: 0 white

b)

2 black: 2 grey: 0 white

c)

0 black: 4 grey: 0 white

d)

0 black: 2 grey: 2 white

113.

In some carnations, flower color exhibits codominance. Identify the correct genotypes for red, white, and speckled carnations.


(UNIT SIX)

a)

Red = RR, white = rr, speckled = Rr

b)

Red = RR, white = WW, speckled = rw

c)

Red = RR, white = ww, Speckled = Rw

d)

Red = RR, white = WW, speckled = RW

114.

Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.

Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

XHXh

b)

XhXh

c)

XHY

d)

XhY

115.

Males are more likely to have sex-linked recessive disorders, such as colorblindness. This disorder is being passed on to them by their


(UNIT SIX)

a)

mother

b)

father

c)

both their mother and their father

d)

either their mother or father since they only get one X allele

116.

Females are not as likely to express sex-linked recessive disorders on their 23rd pair of chromosomes as males. If they do express this disorder they must have inherited it from


(UNIT SIX)

a)

their mother

b)

their father

c)

both their mother and father

d)

either their mother or father.

117.

One form of a gene is called_______________


(UNIT SIX)

a)

a DNA

b)

a Phenotype

c)

a trait

d)

an allele

118.

If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

d)

None of the above

119.

How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

Cousins

b)

Dad and Daughter

c)

Uncle and Niece

d)

Grandpa and Granddaughter

120.

What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?

(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")


(UNIT SIX)

a)

Sex-Linked Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Recessive

c)

Autosomal Dominant

d)

Autosomal Recessive

121.

What is the Genotype for Type A that had a type O parent


(UNIT SIX)

a)

IᴬIᴮ

b)

Iᴬi

c)

IᴬIᴬ

d)

ii

122.

What is the Genotype for blood that can be donated to anybody?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

IᴬIᴮ

b)

Iᴬi

c)

IᴬIᴬ

d)

ii

123.

Punnett Square: A man is homozygous for the B allele, and a woman is type O. What are ALL the possible blood types of their baby?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

IᴮIᴮ

b)

ii

c)

IᴬIᴬ

d)

Iᴮi

124.

Punnett Square: Type AB father and type O mother. What are the percentages of each offspring?


(UNIT SIX)

a)

Type A: 50%, Type B 0%, Type AB 50%, Type 0 0%

b)

Type A: 50%, Type B 50%, Type AB 0%, Type 0 0%

c)

Type A: 25%, Type B 25%, Type AB 25%, Type 0 25%

d)

Type A: 0%, Type B 0%, Type AB 50%, Type 0 50%

125.

Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand

ATG TGA CAG


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

ATG TGA CAG

b)

TAC ACT GTC

c)

GTA AGT GAC

d)

CAT TCA CTG

126.

Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleotides

c)

fatty acids

d)

polysaccharides

127.

In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

128.

Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

deoxyribose sugar and adenine

b)

deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond

c)

deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus

d)

deoxyribose sugar and phosphate

129.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base

b)

sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

c)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

d)

sugar, phosphate, protein

130.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

131.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

132.

Would a mutation in the DNA of a skin cell be passed on to an organism's offspring?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Yes, because any change to the DNA is passed on to the offspring

b)

Maybe. Sex cells only use half of the body's genetic code. It might get the copy of a gene that wasn't mutated.

c)

No. Only mutations that occur in the gametes (sex cells) are passed on to the offspring

d)

Without knowing the animal, it would be hard to tell whether or not the mutation would be passed on.

133.

What type of chromosomal mutation is this?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Translocation

b)

Inversion

c)

Deletion

d)

Duplication

134.

RNA is read in sections called:


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Triplets

b)

Genes

c)

Codons

d)

anticodons

135.

Transcription is a process that in eukaryotic cells takes place in the:


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Rough E.R.

136.

Translation is a process in eurkaryotic cells takes place in the:


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Golgi Bodies

137.

The main function of tRNA is to...


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins

b)

form a portion of ribosomes

c)

string together complementary RNA and DNA strands

d)

bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes

138.

What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Leucine

d)

Stop codon

139.

What process is going on in this photo?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

All the above

140.

Once the DNA is copied into RNA, it goes to what organelle to begin protein synthesis?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

nucleus

b)

rIbosome

c)

cytoplasm

d)

centriole

141.

For the original code CTGGAG, what type mutation is CTGGGG?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

substitution

d)

translocation

142.

Which choice describes DNA after replication has taken place?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

one molecule with two original strands and one molecule with two new strands

b)

two molecules, each with one original and one new strand

c)

two molecules, each with two new strands

d)

two molecules, each with two old strands

143.

What is the difference between DNA and RNA


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

DNA has uracil and RNA has thymine

b)

DNA is involved in transcription and RNA is involved in translation

c)

DNA contains thymine and RNA contains uracil

d)

DNA is made of nucleotides and RNA is not

144.

What will be the resulting mRNA from this DNA sequence:

GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA

b)

GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT

c)

CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA

d)

CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG

145.

What type of bonds hold the nitrogen bases in the DNA rungs together?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

ionic bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

peptide bonds

d)

covalent bonds

146.

This type of substitution codes for a stop codon


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silent

d)

Deletion

147.

If you are missing or have an extra base at the end of your mutated DNA . What type of mutation occurred?


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Substitution

b)

Frameshift

c)

Duplication

d)

Insertion

148.

A type of substitution in which no amino acids change is called


(UNIT SEVEN)

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silent

d)

Deletion