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Sec 3 / flower - fertilization

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The figure shows the structure of the placenta. Blood from the mother and the fetus never mix but they come close together for the exchange of materials between the two within the placenta.

Which structure represents the maternal circulation?

a)

A

b)

E

c)

C

d)

B

e)

D

2.

What is a characteristic of monozygotic twins?

a)

They are not genetically identical.

b)

They are formed from 1 egg and 2 sperm.

c)

They are always the same sex.

d)

They develop with the same umbilical cord.

3.

Which feature correctly describes fraternal twins?

a)

They are formed from one egg and two sperm.

b)

They are formed from a single zygote.

c)

They must be the same sex.

d)

They have the same DNA.

e)

They are formed from two eggs and two sperm.

4.

Which embryonic structure develops into the placenta?

a)

Inner cell mass

b)

Umbilical cord

c)

Chorion

d)

Amnion

e)

Neural tube

5.

How many chromosomes are in a human zygote?

a)

46 plus 2 sex chromosomes

b)

46, including 2 sex chromosomes

c)

46, including 1 sex chromosome

d)

23, including 1 sex chromosome

e)

23 plus 1 sex chromosome

6.

The figure shows a fetus developing in the uterus. What is the name and function of X?

a)

The chorionic fluid that secretes hormones

b)

The amniotic fluid that protects the fetus

c)

The amniotic fluid that secretes hormones

d)

The amniotic fluid that allows the exchange of materials with the mother

e)

The chorionic fluid that allows the exchange of materials with the mother

7.

Which organ system is the first to begin development in the early embryo?

a)

Reproductive system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Nervous system

e)

Skeletal system

8.

What usually happens when a zygote develops into two embryos?

a)

They develop into identical twins, each with a separate placenta.

b)

They develop into identical twins that share a placenta.

c)

They develop into fraternal twins, each with a separate placenta.

d)

They develop into fraternal twins with a shared amnion.

e)

They develop into fraternal twins that share a placenta.

9.

What is the significance of the acrosome reaction in fertilization?

a)

It triggers meiosis II inside the egg cell.

b)

It causes the outer jelly coat of the egg to change so that no other sperm can enter.

c)

It releases enzymes that allow a sperm to penetrate the outer jelly coat of the egg.

d)

It releases enzymes that digest the first polar body.

e)

It dissolves the follicle cells surrounding the egg, allowing the sperm to reach the egg cell membrane.

10.

What occurs during the renucleation (nuclear transfer) process?

a)

A diploid body cell nucleus is replaced by a haploid nucleus from an egg cell.

b)

A haploid egg nucleus is replaced by a haploid nucleus from a body cell.

c)

A diploid body cell nucleus is replaced by a haploid nucleus from a sperm cell.

d)

A haploid egg nucleus is replaced by a diploid nucleus from a body cell.

e)

A haploid sperm nucleus is replaced by a diploid nucleus from a body cell.

11.

What is stored at very cold temperatures in gamete banks?

a)

Fertilized eggs

b)

Embryos

c)

Sperm only

d)

Unfertilized eggs and sperm

e)

Unfertilized eggs only

12.

Which of the following is not a use of gamete banks?

a)

A woman can have her eggs frozen before chemotherapy to allow her the chance of having children later.

b)

Frozen sperm can be used to produce clones by renucleation.

c)

Stored gametes from an endangered species can prevent extinction through artificial reproduction.

d)

Donated sperm can be used by infertile couples wanting to conceive a child.

e)

Farmers can use frozen sperm from animals with desired characteristics for selective breeding.

13.

Sperm samples from farm animals can be separated into X- and Y-chromosome-containing sperm cells and stored in liquid nitrogen until needed. In which situation might this procedure be beneficial to farmers?

a)

To prioritize meat production in sheep by using sperm cells containing X chromosomes

b)

To prioritize milk production in sheep by using sperm cells containing Y chromosomes

c)

To prioritize meat production in cattle by using sperm cells containing X chromosomes

d)

To prioritize milk production in cattle by using sperm cells containing Y chromosomes

e)

To prioritize milk production in cattle by using sperm cells containing X chromosomes

14.

The two sheep in the figure shown were used in a renucleation procedure. Eggs were obtained from sheep 1, and skin cells were obtained from sheep 2.

What would the genetic makeup of the offspring produced by this process be?

a)

The offspring would be genetically identical to sheep 2.

b)

The offspring would be genetically identical to sheep 1.

c)

The offspring would be genetically different to sheep 1 and sheep 2.

d)

The offspring would be completely black in color.

e)

The offspring would be completely white in color.

15.

Which of these structural features of a flower would not reduce the likelihood of self-pollination?

a)

Carpels mature before stamens.

b)

Flowers have only stamens or only carpels (unisex).

c)

Stamens are positioned higher than the stigma.

d)

Stamens mature before carpels.

e)

Stamens are positioned lower than the stigma.

16.

Which of these structural features is present in wind-pollinated flowers?

a)

Scented flowers

b)

The presence of nectaries

c)

Brightly colored petals

d)

Large numbers of pollen grains

e)

Large pollen grains

17.

Where in a flower is the haploid megaspore located?

a)

Ovule

b)

Receptacle

c)

Anther

d)

Stigma

e)

Style

18.

The flowers of a tomato plant were sprayed with indole acetic acid (IAA). How would this chemical affect the fruit the plant produces?

a)

The tomato fruit would taste less sweet.

b)

The plant would produce seedless fruits.

c)

The tomato fruit would be smaller.

d)

The tomato fruit would have larger seeds.

19.

What word describes the ripened ovary wall that forms a fleshy fruit?

a)

Parthenocarpy

b)

Perianth

c)

Receptacle

d)

Pericarp

20.

What happens to an annual plant after it has produced flowers, fruits, and seeds?

a)

It stops growing for a year and then flowers again.

b)

It dies soon after producing seeds, completing its life cycle in one growing season.

c)

It continues growing and flowers again once every year.

d)

It carries on growing for another year and then dies.

21.

During in-vitro fertilization, female is injected with a drug containing ........................ which stimulates the production of ova

a)

androgen hormone

b)

follicle stimulating hormone

c)

luteinizing hormone

d)

thyroid stimulating hormone

22.

Which of the following statements about test tube babies is true? ...................

a)

There is an increased chance of having fraternal twins.

b)

There is an increased chance of having identical twins.

c)

There is an increased chance of success if the parents are older.

d)

It is only a suitable procedure if the female is sterile

23.

Where are embryos placed in the final stage of the test tube babies process?

a)

Uterus

b)

Cervix

c)

Ovary

d)

Vagina

e)

Fallopian tube (oviduct)

24.

The product of fertilization is called an embryo sac.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Once inside the ovule, the pollen tube releases four male gametes into the embryo sac.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

One pollen tube grows right through the anther and reaches the ovary.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Embryonic sac is plants is formed from cells contain………….

a)

N

b)

2N

c)

3N

d)

0.5N

28.

No. of chromosomes in the generative nucleus of pollen grain equals the no. of chromosomes in…………..…

a)

Endosperm nucleus

b)

antipodal cells

c)

embryo cells

d)

None of them

29.

The no. of spore mother cells which produce 20 microspores is ..........................

a)

10

b)

20

c)

80

d)

5

30.

External fertilization and internal embryonic development happens in ...................

a)

Bony fish

b)

reptiles

c)

birds

d)

test tube baby

31.

Pollen grains are produced by………………

a)

Only mitosis

b)

only meiosis

c)

mitosis followed by meiosis

d)

meiosis followed by mitosis

32.

If the no. of chromosomes in generative nucleus is X, the no. of chromosomes in tube nucleus is………………

a)

2X

b)

3X

c)

X

d)

0.5X

33.

The no. of male nuclei in pollen grains that can produce from 4 spore mother cells ..................................

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

34.

The flower functions include all of the following except : ……………………

a)

the formation of pollen grains and ovules

b)

the production of fruits and seeds

c)

the production of buds

d)

the occurrence of pollination and fertilization

35.

If the number of chromosomes in the pea plant cell is 7 pairs of chromosomes , so the number of chromosomes in the embryo of the plant will be ……………

a)

7

b)

14 pairs

c)

21

d)

14

36.

If the nucleus of a plant cell contains 30 chromosomes, the endospermic nucleus of the same plant contains …………… chromosomes

a)

15

b)

60

c)

45

d)

30

37.

The no. of cells which degenerate during the maturation of the ovule in the plant is ...........................

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

38.

If the number of chromosomes in the microspore nucleus is (X), so the number of chromosomes in the male nucleus will be ………………….

a)

2X

b)

X

c)

3X

d)

None of them

39.

The antipodal cells are formed inside the ovary of the flowering plants by ………........................

a)

Mitotic division only.

b)

Meiotic division only.

c)

Mitosis followed by meiosis.

d)

Meiosis followed by mitosis.

40.

The no. of antipodal cells produced in 10 ovules is ……...............…

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40