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CMB Final Revision

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the cell, proteins that are synthesized for immediate use of the cell are normally produced in/on the?

a)

Free floating Ribosomes

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Nucleus

2.

Identify the Non-membranous organelle?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

3.

Most eukaryotic cells have a membrane bound _____ that contains the genetic material.

a)

Lysosome

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Nucleus

d)

Plasma Membrane

4.

Semifluid gel like matrix inside the cell which includes everything inside the cell except for the nucleus is?

a)

Nucleoplasm

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Nucleosol

d)

Cytosol

5.

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of?

a)

Lipid Synthesis

b)

Carbohydrates synthesis

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Amino acid synthesis

6.

The major bio molecules responsible for selective uptake to materials across the plasma membrane is?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic acid

7.

Phospholipid bi layer is?

a)

Hydrophilic and hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophobic

c)

Hydrophilic

d)

Depends on surrounding medium

8.

A substance can only be accumulated against its electrochemical gradient by?

a)

Diffusion through a uniport

b)

Passage through ion channels

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Active Transport

9.

Which form of transport induces conformational change in protein?

a)

Ion driven active transport

b)

Simple diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

10.

Gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the plasma membrane by?

a)

Primary active transport

b)

Secondary active transport

c)

Passive diffusion through the lipid bilayer

d)

Specific gas transportation

11.

Exocytosis is best described?

a)

Is used to deliver large molecules from the extra cellular space

b)

Allows the retrieval of elements of the plasma membrane

c)

Is always employed by cells for secretions

d)

Is used to deliver material into the extracellular space

12.

The cell organelle that provides cell with energy through breakdown of glucose during cellular respiration is?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Mesosome

13.

Membrane extensions of an immune system cell to capture a yeast cell is an example of?

a)

Active transport

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Pinocytosis

14.

Diffusion of water molecules from the region of its high concentration to the region of its low concentration across the plasma membrane is known as?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Facilitated diffusion

15.

Water molecules move across the plasma membrane through water channel is known as?

a)

Aquaporins

b)

Water pumps

c)

Aqua channels

d)

Sodium potassium pump

16.

Groups of specialized cells that are similar in structure and preform common functions is known as?

a)

Organ system

b)

Organs

c)

Tissues

d)

Organisms

17.

Which organelle is responsible for removal for removal of other damaged organelles and cellular debris?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Lysosome

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Golgi apparatus

18.

The tissue that is responsible for coordinating and controlling many body activities refers to?

a)

Epithelial tissues

b)

Connective tissues

c)

Nervous tissues

d)

Muscle tissue

19.

The type of epithelium that lines blood vessels and air sacs of the lung is?

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Stratified columnar epithelium

c)

Simple columnar epithelium

d)

Simple squamous epithelium

20.

The muscle that has branching, strained cells fused at the plasma membrane refers to?

a)

Epithelial

b)

Cardiac

c)

Skeletal

d)

Neuronal

21.

The squamous, cuboidal, or columnar in shape and may be arranged in single or multiple layers refers to?

a)

Nervous tissue

b)

Muscle tissue

c)

Epithelial tissue

d)

Connective tissue

22.

The tissue composed of cells with a special ability to shorten or contract that produce movement of the body parts refers too?

a)

Connective tissue

b)

Nervous tissue

c)

Epithelial tissues

d)

Muscle tissue

23.

The specialised connective tissue refers to?

a)

Blood

b)

Bone

c)

Cartilage

d)

All of the above

24.

Muscle that are involuntary in action are?

a)

Skeletal and smooth muscles

b)

Cardiac and smooth muscles

c)

Smooth and skeletal muscles

d)

Squamous and ciliated muscles

25.

Bone cells are called?

a)

Chondrocytes

b)

Adipocytes

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Lacunae

26.

High temperatures damage proteins by?

a)

Decomposing them

b)

Changing their chemical composition

c)

Changing their shape

d)

Making them soluble

27.

The most appropriate description of a protein is?

a)

Carbon, hydrogen oxygen

b)

Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen

c)

Carbon, hydrogen oxygen and nitrogen

d)

Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

28.

Fat Cells are called?

a)

Chondrocytes

b)

Lacunae

c)

Adipocytes

d)

Osteocytes

29.

A substrate is a substance which?

a)

Is produced by an enzyme reaction

b)

Is a particular kind of enzyme

c)

Is any chemical substance in a cell

d)

An enzyme acts on

30.

A pure substance made up entirely of one atom that can’t be broken down into other substances is?

a)

Element

b)

Alloy

c)

Compound

d)

Mixture

31.

How many units of DNA are there in the cell during stages: G1?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

d)

80

32.

How many units of DNA are in the cell during prophase?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

d)

80

33.

During chemotherapy the drug cytarabine kills cancer cells by stopping them making and repairing DNA. At which stage in the cell cycle will cytarabine be incorporated into DNA?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

M

34.

At which stage in mitosis and meiosis do chromosomes always line up at the equator of the spindle?

a)

prophase

b)

telophase

c)

anaphase

d)

metaphase

35.

In mitosis and meiosis which biological molecule are spindle composed of?

a)

polysaccharide

b)

proteins

c)

nucleic acid

d)

lipid

36.

During which stage of cell division do chromatids separate and move to the poles of the spindle?

a)

anaphase of mitosis and anaphase 1 of meiosis

b)

anaphase of mitosis and anaphase 2 of meiosis

c)

anaphase 1 and 2 of meiosis

d)

anaphase of mitosis only

37.

Which stage of mitosis do chromosomes uncoil and nee nuclear envelopes form?

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

38.

In which stage of meiosis are chiasmata formed?

a)

prophase 1

b)

prophase 2

c)

anaphase 1

d)

telophase 2

39.

Vincristine is a chemotherapy drug to treat cancer. It prevents spindle formation during mitosis. This means ______ cannot occur.

a)

DNA replication

b)

chromosomes coiling

c)

sister chromatids becoming visible

d)

sister chromatid separation

40.

The main difference between animal cell and plant cell is?

a)

Animal cell lack rigid cell wall

b)

Animals have vacuoles

c)

Plant cells lack rigid cell walls

d)

Plant cells have small vacuoles

41.

Extra nuclear DNA is found in?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

42.

Cell theory states that?

a)

All cell have nuclei

b)

All cell are living

c)

Cells reproduce

d)

A. Cells are the fundamentals structural units of plants and animals

43.

Prokaryotic does not possess?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Nuclear membrane

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Plasma membrane

44.

Plasma membrane is composed of?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Cellulose

d)

Proteins and Lipids

45.

Cellular organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes are called?

a)

peroxisomes

b)

lysosomes

c)

ribosomes

d)

mesosomas

46.

Simple nerve reflexes use signaling molecules called?

a)

Neurotransmitters

b)

Nitric oxides

c)

G proteins

d)

Proteases

47.

Cristae are?

a)

The membranous infoldings of the outer membrane of mitochondria

b)

The jelly like central matrix of mitochondria

c)

The membranous infoldings of the inner membrane of mitochondria

d)

Enzymes located on the inner mitochondrial membrane

48.

Mitoplast are?

a)

Mitochondria without membranes

b)

Mitochondria without outer membrane

c)

Mitochondria without inner membrane

d)

Mitochondria plastids

49.

Reduced form of NAPD is?

a)

NAP

b)

NADPH

c)

NADH

d)

None of the above

50.

When molecules relieve helical stress by twisting itself the phenomena is called?

a)

coiling

b)

supercoiling

c)

elongation

d)

compression

51.

Euchromatin is?

a)

Lightly packed form of chromatin

b)

Tightly packed form of chromatin

c)

Concentrated form of chromatin

d)

Elongated form of chromatin

52.

Type of chromatin that participates in active transcription of DNA strand mRNA products are?

a)

Euchromatin

b)

Heterochromatin

c)

Polymerases

d)

Termination

53.

Proteins responsible for compact packing and winding of chromosomal DNA are?

a)

Histone proteins

b)

Helix proteins

c)

Polymerase proteins

d)

Guanine proteins

54.

Part of chromosomes that are links sister chromatids is called?

a)

Common centromere

b)

Identical chromatids

c)

Twin centromere

d)

Similar chromatids

55.

Which bonds are broken during DNA replication?

a)

Hydrogen bonds between bases

b)

Phosphodiester bonds

c)

Covalent bonds between bases

d)

Ionic bonds between bases and phosphate groups

56.

What base is not found in RNA?

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

57.

How many base pairs are there in on full turn of the DNA double helix?

a)

4

b)

10

c)

16

d)

64

58.

There are two main processes in the M (mitotic) phase. Which process occurs last?

a)

meiosis

b)

interphase

c)

mitosis

d)

cytokinesis

59.

Which of the following descriptions of mitosis is/are correct?


1 DNA synthesis occurs at the beginning of prophase.


2 The nuclear envelope breaks down in prophase and reforms in telophase.


3 The division of centromeres occurs in anaphase.

a)

1,2, and 3

b)

only 1 and 2

c)

only 2 and 3

d)

only 1

60.

Which is the longest phase in the cell cycle of human liver cells?

a)

prophase

b)

interphase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

telophase

61.

Protein synthesis refers to the process of

a)

Formation of amino acids directly from a DNA template

b)

Formation of mRNA from DNA template

c)

Formation of amino acids from mRNA

d)

Duplicating DNA required for protein synthesis

62.

The component which is not required for protein synthesis

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Peptidyl transferase

c)

Spliceosome

d)

Amino acyl-tRNA synthetase

63.

The source of energy for amino acid activation

a)

ATP

b)

GTP

c)

CTP

d)

TTP

64.

Peptide bond formation between amino acids of growing polypeptide chain is catalyzed by

a)

Peptidyl transferase

b)

Amino acyl-tRNA synthetase

c)

Peptide polymerase

d)

Peptidyl synthetase

65.

Translocation in protein synthesis begins with the movement of

a)

tRNA from A-site to P-site

b)

dipeptidyl tRNA from A-site to P-site

c)

tRNA from P-site to A-site

d)

tRNA from P-site to E-site

66.

Peptidyl transferase involved in peptide bond formation is located in the

a)

3’ region of tRNA

b)

Smaller subunit of ribosome

c)

Larger subunit of ribosome

d)

Near shine dalgarno sequence

67.

The amino acids are assembled into polypeptide chains on

a)

mRNA

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

DNA template

68.

The poly a tail consists of

a)

Adenosine

b)

Guanosine

c)

Phosphorylated 7-methly guanosine

d)

Adenosine and guanosine

69.

In the DNA structure the 3G end consists of

a)

An OH group attached to a sugar

b)

An OH group attached to a phosphate

c)

A phosphate group

d)

An amide group

70.

Two hydrogen bonds are formed between

a)

A and T

b)

G and C

c)

A and G

d)

T and C

71.

mRNA is transcribed

a)

From template DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction

b)

From coding DNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction

c)

From coding DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction

d)

From template DNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction

72.

In DNA synthesis, strands are split apart by

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Ligase

73.

Proteins are coded from

a)

Exons

b)

Introns

c)

Introns and extons

d)

The UTR

74.

Phosphorylated 7-methly guanosine forms

a)

The 5’ cap

b)

The 3’ cap

c)

The poly A-tail

d)

The 5’ UTR

75.

Which of the following is not a code for stop

a)

UGG

b)

UAA

c)

UAG

d)

UGA

76.

The process of copying a gene’s DNA sequence into a sequence of RNA is called

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

PCR

77.

Transcription occurs along a ____ template forming an mRNA in the ______ direction

a)

5’ to 3’ - 5’ to 3’

b)

3’ to 5’ - 5’ to 3’

c)

3’ to 5’ - 3’ to 5’

d)

5’ to 3’ - 3’ to 5’

78.

The transcribing enzyme is

a)

Ligase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Amino-acyl transferase

79.

The molecule containing the genetic code is

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

80.

The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid is always

a)

TAC

b)

UAA

c)

UAG

d)

AUG

81.

The amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain compromises the ____ structure of the protein

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

82.

Transcription and translation of a gene composed of 30 nucleotides would form a protein containing no more than _____ amino acids

a)

10

b)

15

c)

60

d)

90

83.

A DNA strand with the sequence AACGTAACG is transcribed. What is the sequence of the mRNA molecule synthesized?

a)

AACGTAACG

b)

UUGCAUUGC

c)

AACGUAACG

d)

TTGCATTGC

84.

Enzyme that joins bits of DNA is

a)

DNS ligase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Endonuclease

85.

Semi conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in

a)

E.Coli

b)

Streptococcus pneumonae

c)

Salmonella typhimuriam

d)

Drosophila melangaster

86.

Mode of DNA replication in E.coli is

a)

Conservation and unidirectional

b)

Semiconservative and undirectional

c)

Conservative and bidirectional

d)

Semiconservative and bidirectional

87.

When DNA replication starts

a)

The phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides break

b)

The bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break

c)

The leading strand produces okazaki fragments

d)

The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break

88.

During the replication of DNA, the synthesis of DNA on lagging strand takes place in segments, these segments are called

a)

Satellite segments

b)

Double helix segments

c)

Kornberg segments

d)

Okazaki segments

89.

The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis

a)

Progresses away from the replication fork

b)

Occur in 3’- 5’ direction

c)

Produces okazaki fragment

d)

Depends on the action of the DNA polymerase

90.

Eukaryotes differ from prokaryote in mechanisms of DNA replication due to

a)

Different enzyme for synthesis of lagging and leading strand

b)

Use of DNA primer rather than RNA primer

c)

Unidirectional rather than bidirectional replication

d)

Discontinuous rather than semi discontinuous replication

91.

True replication of DNA is possible due to

a)

Hydrogen bonding

b)

Phosphate backbone

c)

Complementary base pairing rule

d)

Single strand structure of DNA

92.

Which nuclei acid, A - D, could the triplet of bases ACT?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

tRNA

93.

How many polynucleotide strands are found in a tRNA molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

94.

The research of Erwin Chargaff was essential in the discovery of the structure of DNA by Crick and Watson. Chargaff analysed the base composition of DNA from a wide range of organisms.

He reported his findings using the initial letter of each base to stand for the number of that base found in an organism’s genome.

A=number of adenine bases

G=number of guanine bases

C =number of cytosine bases

T=number of thymine bases

Which of these relationships did he find within the genome of each organism he studied?

a)

A=G C=T

b)

A+T=C+G

c)

A+G=T+C

d)

A=C G=T

95.

A piece of DNA was analysed and 15% of its nucleotides were adenine. What percentage would be uracil?

a)

0%

b)

15%

c)

30%

d)

35%

96.

Foot and mouth disease virus (FMDV) is the pathogen that causes foot and mouth

disease in livestock.

An analysis of the genetic material of the ‘O’ strain of FMDV showed that it contains 1996 adenine bases, 2131 guanine bases, 1642 uracil bases and 2365 cytosine bases.

Which on of the following describes the genetic material of the virus?

a)

Single-stranded DNA

b)

Single-stranded RNA

c)

Double-stranded DNA

d)

Double-stranded DNA

97.

Thymine comprised 36% of the nitrogen bases present in a sample of double stranded DNA.


What was the percentage of guanine in the sample?

a)

14%

b)

28%

c)

36%

d)

64%

98.

If 30% of the bases in a DNA molecule are adenine, what percentage of the bases are guanine?

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

35%

d)

70%

99.

Which of the following options, A – D, are the pyrimidine bases found in DNA?

a)

Uracli and thymine

b)

Thymine and cytosine

c)

Adenine and thymine

d)

Cytosine and uracli

100.

Analysis of a molecule of DNA found it to contain 200 adenine bases, 20% of the total number of bases in the strand.

How many phosphate groups did it contain?

a)

200

b)

400

c)

800

d)

1000

101.

Identify the Non-membranous organelle?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

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