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BMG1014 TRIM 2020 Mid-Term Tet

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1.

Time should be considered a(n) ________ resource.

a)

abundant

b)

diminishing

c)

limited

d)

renewable

2.

Technology makes it easier to stay connected but ________.

a)

there is always the risk of security breaches and the theft of information necessary for good time management practices

b)

it raises expectations on the part of those to whom we are connected

c)

technology fails, batteries lose power, and their effectiveness wanes

d)

it also presents constant distractions, making it difficult to stay on task

3.

An individual who works with and through other people by coordinating their work activities in order to accomplish organizational goals is ________.

a)

an assembly line worker

b)

a labourer

c)

a manager

d)

a salesperson

4.

The organizational chart shows titles such as front-line manager, plant manager, and vice president of operations. It is very likely this organization has a ________.

a)

traditional committee structure

b)

traditional pyramid structure

c)

modern matrix structure

d)

flexible structure

5.

Supervisor is another name for ________.

a)

team leader

b)

middle manager

c)

first-line manager

d)

top manager

6.

Managers with titles such as regional manager, project leader, or division manager are ________.

a)

first-line managers

b)

top managers

c)

production managers

d)

middle managers

7.

________ are responsible for making organization-wide decisions and establishing the plans and goals that affect the entire organization.

a)

Middle managers

b)

Top managers

c)

Production managers

d)

Research managers

8.

________ involves ensuring that work activities are completed efficiently and effectively by the people responsible for doing them.

a)

Leading

b)

Managing

c)

Planning

d)

Organizing

9.

Wasting resources is considered to be an example of ________.

a)

inefficacy

b)

ineffableness

c)

inefficiency

d)

ineffectiveness

10.

Effectiveness is associated with ________.

a)

reducing inventory

b)

decreasing production time

c)

doing the right things

d)

doing things right

11.

A problem can best be described as ________.

a)

a change from the past

b)

something bad that has happened

c)

a difference between current conditions and some desired state

d)

a loss of something of value

12.

Which of the following statements is true concerning problem identification?

a)

Problems are generally obvious.

b)

A symptom and a problem are one and the same.

c)

Generally, what is a problem for one manager is a problem for all other managers.

d)

Effectively identifying problems is not easy.

13.

After identifying a problem, the next step in the decision-making process is ________.

a)

identifying decision criteria

b)

allocating weights to decision criteria

c)

analyzing alternatives

d)

developing alternatives

14.

To determine the ________, a manager must determine what is relevant or important to resolving a problem.

a)

bounded rationality of a decision

b)

escalation of commitment

c)

cost of implementation

d)

decision criteria

15.

After identifying the decision criteria that are important or relevant to resolving a problem, the next step in the decision-making process is ________.

a)

allocating weights to the criteria

b)

analyzing the alternatives to solving the problem

c)

reducing the number of criteria through the process of elimination

d)

implementing the alternative

16.

Creativity is most essential in which of the following steps of the decision-making process?

a)

analyzing alternatives

b)

allocating weights to the decision criteria

c)

developing alternatives

d)

identifying decision criteria

17.

In the decision-making process, while ________, the decision maker puts the decision into action by conveying it to those affected by it and getting their commitment to it.

a)

selecting an alternative

b)

evaluating a decision's effectiveness

c)

implementing an alternative

d)

analyzing alternatives

18.

Which of the following is important in effectively implementing the chosen alternative in the decision-making process?

a)

evaluating each alternative by using the established criteria

b)

being creative while implementing the alternatives

c)

allowing those impacted by the outcome to participate in the process

d)

ignoring criticism concerning your chosen alternative

19.

The final step in the decision-making process is to ________.

a)

determine the criteria for the next decision

b)

analyze the process of allocating weights to the decision criteria

c)

evaluate the outcome of the decision

d)

implement the chosen alternative

20.

Managers are assumed to use ________ if they make logical and consistent choices to maximize value.

a)

rational decision making

b)

intuitive decision making

c)

bounded rationality

d)

evidence-based management

21.

When managers make decisions that are rational but limited by their ability to process the information, they are following the concept of ________.

a)

cognitive decision making

b)

bounded rationality

c)

escalation of commitment

d)

intuitive decision making

22.

More than a hundred years ago, Henri Fayol proposed that managers performed five functions. They were ________.

a)

planning, organizing, directing, evaluating, and controlling

b)

organizing, directing, coordinating, evaluating, and controlling

c)

planning, organizing, directing, coordinating, and controlling

d)

planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling

23.

Organizing includes ________.

a)

setting organizational goals

b)

hiring organizational members

c)

motivating organizational members

d)

determining who does what tasks

24.

The ________ roles involve collecting, receiving, and disseminating information, according to Mintzberg's managerial roles.

a)

interpersonal

b)

informational

c)

technical

d)

decisional

25.

________ developed a categorization scheme for defining what managers do, consisting of ten different but highly interrelated roles.

a)

Henri Fayol

b)

Abraham Maslow

c)

Henry Mintzberg

d)

Peter Drucker

26.

Technical skills include ________.

a)

experience gained by experiments that are used in performing managerial tasks

b)

job specific knowledge needed to proficiently perform work tasks

c)

the ability to work well with individuals and groups

d)

skills managers use to think and to conceptualize about abstract and complex situations

27.

Conceptual skills involve ________.

a)

managing employees who use tools to produce the organization's products

b)

communicating with customers

c)

thinking about abstract and complex situations

d)

inspiring enthusiasm and trust among employees

28.

What is the connection between managers and customers?

a)

Today, managers are expected to interact regularly with customers.

b)

Managers in service industries are expected to deliver customer service. but managers in manufacturing are not.

c)

Managers must create a customer-responsive organization in order to survive successfully in today's environment.

d)

There is no connection between managers and customers.

29.

Which one of the following represents one reward of being a manager?

a)

operating with limited resources

b)

receiving recognition in the organization

c)

motivating workers in chaotic situations

d)

performing duties that are more clerical than managerial

30.

Social obligation is the obligation of a business to meet its ________.

a)

social and legal responsibilities

b)

economic and social responsibilities

c)

social and economic responsibilities

d)

economic and legal responsibilities

31.

The ________ view is that management's social responsibility goes beyond making profits to include protecting and improving society's welfare.

a)

sociotechnical

b)

socioeconomic

c)

sociocultural

d)

sociopolitical

32.

________ is defined as a business firm's intention, beyond its legal and economic obligations, to do the right things and act in ways that are good for society.

a)

Social obligation

b)

Social responsibility

c)

Social screening

d)

Values-based management

33.

According to the ________ argument on social responsibility, businesses should be socially responsible because responsible actions are the right thing to do.

a)

better environment

b)

ethical obligation

c)

public image

d)

greater good

34.

Which one of the following arguments on social responsibility states that a business is socially responsible only when it pursues its economic interests?

a)

public expectations

b)

violation of profit maximization

c)

superiority of prevention over cures

d)

possession of resources

35.

Which one of the following arguments on social responsibility states that pursuing social goals hurts a business's economic productivity?

a)

long-run profits

b)

dilution of purpose

c)

stakeholder interests

d)

public image

36.

In which of the following approaches of going green does the organization exhibit the least environmental sensitivity?

a)

legal (light green) approach

b)

dark green approach

c)

market approach

d)

stakeholder approach

37.

Organizational change can best be defined as ________.

a)

rethinking the organization's target markets

b)

innovation that affects employees and customers

c)

a "cleaning house" of the top executives

d)

any alteration of people, structure, or technology.

38.

Organizations need change because ________.

a)

the future is unpredictable

b)

the environment is stable

c)

external and internal factors create the forces for change

d)

employees get bored with the status quo

39.

The two metaphors commonly used to describe the two views of the change process are ________.

a)

smooth water and troubled water

b)

calm waters and white-water rapids

c)

shallow water and falling water

d)

burning bridge and water over the dam

40.

Organizational change is any alteration of ________.

a)

people, structure, or technology

b)

structure, management, or goals

c)

technology, goals, or management

d)

rules, procedures, or management

41.

Changes in work processes, methods, and equipment are a part of ________ changes.

a)

technological

b)

structural component

c)

financial

d)

structural design

42.

Technological changes usually involve the introduction of ________.

a)

new equipment, tools, or operating methods

b)

new equipment, tools or people

c)

new equipment, operating methods, or structure

d)

new equipment, people, or structure

43.

________ is the term used to describe change methods that focus on people and the nature and quality of interpersonal work relationships.

a)

Commercial development

b)

Organizational development

c)

Career development

d)

Comprehensive development

44.

________ involves defining the organization's goals, establishing strategies for achieving those goals, and developing plans to integrate and coordinate work activities.

a)

Execution

b)

Logistics

c)

Planning

d)

Operations

45.

The effect of planning on managers is that it forces them to ________.

a)

generate higher profits

b)

anticipate and respond to change

c)

eliminate uncertainty

d)

work at cross purposes

46.

Which one of the following is among the reasons why managers should plan?

a)

When work activities are coordinated around plans, inefficiencies become obvious.

b)

Uncertainty can be eliminated and the organization can be insulated from change with planning.

c)

Planning eliminates the need to set goals.

d)

Planning eliminates the need to measure work effort.

47.

Which one of the following is true of the impact of formal planning on organizational performance?

a)

Formal planning is associated with positive financial results.

b)

Organizations that formally plan invariably outperform those that don't plan.

c)

The amount of planning done is more important to high performance than the quality of planning and implementation.

d)

Companies can start seeing the impact of formal planning on performance about a year after starting the planning process.

48.

When formal planning fails to lead to higher performance, which one of the following is most likely to be the reason for the failure?

a)

A participative style of planning was used.

b)

Managers were allowed too much autonomy.

c)

The company emphasized the control function over other functions.

d)

External forces constrain managers' options.

49.

Which aspect of planning refers to documents that outline how results are to be achieved?

a)

goals

b)

plans

c)

objectives

d)

performance guidelines

50.

Goals are different from plans because ________.

a)

goals identify specific steps that the organization needs to achieve, and plans identify the overall mission of the organization

b)

goals describe financial objectives, and plans describe objectives related to social responsibility

c)

goals are important only for small companies, and plans are important only for large companies

d)

goals are desired outcomes, and plans describe how those outcomes will be accomplished

51.

Which one of the following statements is true regarding an organization's goals?

a)

All organizations share the single goal of making profits.

b)

A single goal is more efficient than multiple goals for defining an organization's success.

c)

Using a single goal such as profit may result in unethical behaviors by employees.

d)

Long-term success is ensured if managers emphasize only one goal for an organization.

52.

An organization's ________ goals are official statements of what an organization says, and what it wants its stakeholders to believe its goals are.

a)

stated

b)

real

c)

authentic

d)

implicit

53.

Which one of the following is the best indicator of an organization's real goals?

a)

organizational members' actions

b)

mission statement

c)

annual reports

d)

stock valuation

54.

Organizational plans can be classified on the basis of their ________.

a)

usefulness

b)

frequency of use

c)

suitability

d)

attainability

55.

Strategic plans are usually ________.

a)

short term, directional, and standing

b)

short term, specific, and standing

c)

long term, directional, and single use

d)

long term, specific, and standing

56.

________ plans apply to the entire organization and establish the organization's overall goals.

a)

Departmental

b)

Strategic

c)

Operational

d)

Long-term

57.

Long-term plans are defined as those with a time frame beyond ________.

a)

seven years

b)

one year

c)

five years

d)

three years

58.

Short-term plans are those covering ________ or less.

a)

three years

b)

one year

c)

six months

d)

five years

59.

________ plans are clearly defined and leave no room for interpretation.

a)

Directional

b)

Stated

c)

Long-term

d)

Specific

60.

Which of the following is an example of a single-use plan?

a)

affirmative action hiring policies of a company

b)

a plan developed to install a new computer network

c)

the procedure to be followed for firing low-performing employees

d)

a plan developed to ensure worker safety at the company's facilities

61.

A standing plan is ________.

a)

an ongoing plan that provides guidance for activities performed repeatedly

b)

a plan that stands in place of a preferred plan in case of the failure of the latter

c)

a one-time plan specifically designed to meet the needs of a unique situation

d)

a flexible plan that sets out general guidelines for company strategy

62.

In ________, goals set by top managers flow down through the organization and become subgoals for each organizational area.

a)

management by objectives

b)

management by observation

c)

traditional goal setting

d)

traditional planning

63.

________ is a process of setting mutually-agreed upon goals and using those goals to evaluate employee performance.

a)

Management by objectives

b)

Management by walking around

c)

Management by observation

d)

Management by exception

64.

Which one of the following is the first step in MBO?

a)

The organization's overall objectives and strategies are formulated.

b)

Unit managers collaboratively set specific objectives for their units with their managers.

c)

Action plans are specified and agreed upon by managers and employees.

d)

Major objectives are allocated among divisional and departmental units.

65.

Which one of the following reflects the way goals are used in an MBO program?

a)

Goals are used to prepare financial budgets for each unit.

b)

Goals are used to broadly set the direction subject to encourage interpretation by individual managers.

c)

Apart from being used to ensure that employees are doing what they are supposed to be doing, goals are used as a motivating tool for employees.

d)

Goals are used to compare organizational performance year over year.

66.

A ________ is a broad statement of an organization's purpose that provides an overall guide to what organizational members think is important.

a)

mission

b)

vision

c)

project

d)

preamble

67.

A manager's analysis of the external environment can be improved by ________, which involves screening information to detect emerging trends.

a)

environmental scanning

b)

environmental activism

c)

critical path analysis

d)

social screening

68.

A ________ describes the rationale of how a company is going to make money.

a)

mission statement

b)

business model

c)

SWOT analysis

d)

core competency

69.

The main reason strategic management is important is ________.

a)

it allows an organization to anticipate economic recessions

b)

it can make a difference in how well an organization performs

c)

it reduces uncertainty

d)

it simplifies the environment

70.

Defining the organizational mission forces managers to identify what ________.

a)

its competitive advantage is

b)

the organization is in business to do

c)

its capabilities are

d)

pending legislation will affect the organization

71.

Managers perform an external analysis so that they know about ________.

a)

the firm's basic beliefs and ethical priorities

b)

what the competition is doing

c)

what vendors want

d)

their organization's core competencies

72.

________ are positive trends in the external environment.

a)

Strengths

b)

Threats

c)

Weaknesses

d)

Opportunities

73.

A study of the external environment allows a manager to understand the ________ and ________ for the organization.

a)

threats; weaknesses

b)

strengths; weaknesses

c)

strengths; opportunities

d)

opportunities; threats

74.

An organization's financial, physical, human, and intangible assets are known as its ________.

a)

resources

b)

capabilities

c)

strengths

d)

core competencies

75.

The major value-creating capabilities of the organization are known as its ________.

a)

strengths

b)

competitive advantages

c)

core competencies

d)

resources

76.

The combined external and internal analyses are called ________.

a)

competitor analysis

b)

industry analysis

c)

market analysis

d)

SWOT analysis

77.

After the SWOT analysis is complete, managers are ready to ________.

a)

begin production

b)

identify competitors

c)

formulate strategies

d)

review the analysis

78.

The final step in the strategic management process allows an organization to understand the ________.

a)

effectiveness of the strategies used

b)

implementation of the strategies

c)

external environment

d)

resources and capabilities it possesses

79.

Lower-level managers are responsible for ________ strategies.

a)

functional

b)

stability

c)

corporate

d)

tactical

80.

A ________ strategy is when an organization expands the number of markets served or the products offered.

a)

growth

b)

renewal

c)

stability

d)

retrenchment

81.

An organization that grows using ________ focuses on its primary line of business and increases the number of products offered or markets served in this primary business.

a)

diversification

b)

horizontal integration

c)

vertical integration

d)

concentration

82.

________ takes place when a company combines with other companies in different, but associated, industries.

a)

Stabilized diversification

b)

Horizontal integration

c)

Vertical integration

d)

Related diversification

83.

________ strategies address declining performance through retrenchment and turnaround strategies.

a)

Renewal

b)

Stability

c)

Growth

d)

Functional

84.

In the BCG matrix, a ________ enjoys a high anticipated growth rate and a high market share.

a)

question mark

b)

star

c)

cash cow

d)

dog

85.

In the BCG matrix, a business unit that has a high anticipated growth rate but a low market share is known as a ________.

a)

star

b)

dog

c)

cash cow

d)

question mark

86.

As smartphone cameras improved, consumers turned away from traditional cameras. Polaroid lost market share and finally realized their product was no longer desired. At that point, Polaroid would be considered a ________ in the BCG matrix.

a)

question mark

b)

dog

c)

cash cow

d)

star

87.

In an organization, the single independent businesses which formulate their own competitive strategies are known as ________.

a)

strategic growth units

b)

strategic business units

c)

strategic profit units

d)

service units

88.

When used to connect with customers or to connect employees with co-workers in other locations, social media ________.

a)

provide a means for customers to order products online

b)

create distractions that can keep employees from being productive

c)

provide information for competitors that give them a competitive advantage

d)

can create a competitive advantage

89.

A cost leadership strategy requires a firm to ________.

a)

maintain the lowest cost structure

b)

maintain the lowest prices to its customers

c)

aim at a cost advantage in a niche market

d)

match its competition's prices

90.

A company that competes by offering unique products that are widely valued by customers is following a ________.

a)

leadership strategy

b)

differentiation strategy

c)

focus strategy

d)

functional strategy

91.

Apple is an example of a company that was ________.

a)

pursuing a cost leadership strategy

b)

stuck in the middle

c)

distinguishing itself from its competitors

d)

unable to develop a successful competitive strategy

92.

Ferrari sells very expensive, stylish, high-quality cars to very wealthy people. Ferrari follows a ________ strategy.

a)

functional

b)

focus

c)

differentiation

d)

quality

93.

Functional-level strategy directly supports the ________.

a)

corporate strategy

b)

competitive strategy

c)

operating strategy

d)

concentration strategy

94.

________ is the ability to anticipate, envision, maintain flexibility, think strategically, and work with others in the organization to initiate changes that will create a viable and valuable future for the organization.

a)

Strategic leadership

b)

Strategic management

c)

Strategic competence

d)

Strategic flexibility

95.

Which one of the following is an advantage of being a first mover?

a)

certainty over the direction of technology and market

b)

low development costs

c)

no financial or strategic risks

d)

opportunity to begin building customer relationships

96.

What is a strategic disadvantage of being a first mover?

a)

least opportunity to build customer loyalty

b)

risk of competitors imitating innovations

c)

no cost and learning benefit

d)

no control over resources

97.

The level of corporate culture in which values are so deeply embedded that members are no longer consciously aware of them is

a)

Invisible artifacts

b)

Expressed values and beliefs

c)

Dress and office layout

d)

Slogans and ceremonies

98.

____ is a narrative based on true event that is repeated frequently and shared by organizational employees.

a)

Symbol

b)

Slogan

c)

Story

d)

Hero

99.

The involvement culture has a(n) ____ focus on the involvement and participation of employees to rapidly meet changing needs from the environment.

a)

external

b)

internal

c)

structural

d)

competitive

100.

A figure who exemplifies the deeds, character, and attributes of a corporate culture is referred to as a

a)

hero.

b)

symbol.

c)

stories.

d)

slogan.