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MCQ A2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Within the operon, RNA polymerase binds to.......

a)

The regulatory gene

b)

The operator region

c)

The promoter region

2.

What is the correct order of regions on the lac operon?

a)

Operator, structural genes, promoter

b)

Promotor, operator, structural genes

c)

operator, promoter, structural genes

3.

The homeobox genes code for an area on a protein called.....

a)

Hox domian

b)

Homeiotic domain

c)

Homeodomain

4.

How many long is the sequence of DNA in in a homeobox ?

a)

160 bp

b)

180 bp

c)

60 bp

5.

Homeobox genes:

a)

regulate body formation and patterns in embryos

b)

regulate gene expression in ageing

c)

express traits morphologically

d)

code for characteristics only in embryonic stages

6.
An organism has a relatively large number of Hox genes in its genome. Which of the following is true of this organism?
a)
The organism has the genetic potential to have a relatively complex anatomy.
b)
The organism must have multiple paired appendages along the length of its body.
c)
Most of its Hox genes owe their existence to gene fusion events.
d)
Its Hox genes cooperate to bring about sexual maturity at the proper stage of development.
7.

The number of legs an insect has, or the number of joints in a digit and location of limbs are influenced by ___________ genes

a)

Haploid

b)

Introns within

c)

Heterotic

d)

Hox

8.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the regulatory region for transcription are called ____________.
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
9.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
10.

Recall where in the kidney the Bowman's capsules are found.

a)

Renal Medulla

b)

Renal Cortex

c)

Renal Pelvis

11.

Recall where in the kidney the glomeruli are found.

a)

Renal Medulla

b)

Renal Pelvis

c)

Renal Cortex

12.

Recall where in the kidney the convoluted tubules are found.

a)

Renal Medulla

b)

Renal Pelvis

c)

Renal Cortex

13.

Recall where in the nephron ultrafiltration occurs.

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Urethra

d)

Bowman's capsule

14.

Recall where in the nephron reabsorption of glucose occurs.

a)

Loop on Henle

b)

Bowman's capsule

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

15.

Recall where in the nephron reabsorption of amino acids occurs.

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Ureter

16.

Recall where in the nephron reabsorption of water using a counter current system occurs.

a)

Collecting duct

b)

Bowman's capsule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Urethra

17.

Recall what structure carries filtrate from the nephron to the renal pelvis.

a)

Collecting duct

b)

Bowman's capsule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

18.

Recall which hormone controls the levels of water reabsorbed from the collecting ducts.

a)

Testosterone

b)

Anti-diuretic hormone

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Progesterone

19.

State what urine is a combination of

a)

Faecal matter

b)

Water

c)

Blood

d)

Salts

e)

Urea

20.

What is A?

a)

Hepatic portal vein

b)

Hepatic vein

c)

Hepatic artery

d)

Interlobular vessels

21.

What is B?

a)

bile duct

b)

bile calaliculi

c)

hepatic artery

d)

sinusoid

22.

What is C?

a)

hepatic vein

b)

sinusoid

c)

hepatic portal vein

d)

bile canaliculi

23.

What is D?

a)

heptic artery

b)

heptic vein

c)

sinusoid

d)

Kupffer cells

24.

What is E?

a)

sinasoid

b)

sinusoid

c)

sinusoed

25.

What type of cell is a Kuppfer cell?

a)

platelet

b)

leucocyte

c)

APC

d)

macrophage

26.

What is the term used to describe how the action potential moves along a myelinated axon?

a)

Saltatory Propagation

b)

Propagation

c)

Salutatory Conduction

d)

Saltatory Conduction

27.

What is an energy transducer?

a)

A receptor that sends a nerve impulse

b)

A receptor that sends an action potential

c)

A receptor that is adapted to detect changes

d)

A receptor that converts one form of energy to another

28.

What type of receptor is a Pacinian Corpuscle?

a)

Thermoreceptor

b)

Chemoreceptor

c)

Photoreceptor

d)

Mechanoreceptor

29.

What are the name of the channels in the Pacinian corpuscles?

a)

Voltage gated sodium channel

b)

Stretch mediated sodium channel

c)

Ligated chanel

d)

Sodium-Potassium Channel

30.

In the pacinian corpuscles resting state the channel is too narrow to allow (a)   to pass through.

31.

The influx of positive changes changes the potential of the membrane. It becomes (a)  

32.

This results in a generator potential being created. This initiates an (a)   along the sensory neuron.

33.

This results in a generator potential being created. This initiates an (a)   along the sensory neuron.

34.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
golgi apparatus
35.
Which organelles are filled with enzymes that aid in intra-cellular digestion, breaking down wastes and old organelles?
a)
mitochondria
b)
Golgi body
c)
lysosomes
d)
ribosomes
36.
What type of microscope was likely used to obtain this image of pollen?
a)
Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)
b)
Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)
c)
Compound Light Microscope
37.
What type of microscope was likely used to obtain this image of pollen?
a)
Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)
b)
Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)
c)
Compound Light Microscope
38.

Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.

b)

Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.

c)

Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.

d)

Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.

39.
What elements make up amino acids?
a)
Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only
b)
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen only
c)
Carbon, hydrogen and phosphorus only
d)
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen; and sometimes also sulfur
40.
What is sucrose made up of?
a)
Glucose and Fructose
b)
Fructose and Lactose
c)
Galactose and Glucose
d)
Glucose and Lactose
41.

Glycolysis occurs in the _____.

a)

mitochondrial matrix

b)

inner membrane

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell membrane

42.

Glycolysis splits glucose into 2 molecules of

a)

Acetyl CoA

b)

pyruvate

c)

citric acid

d)

fructokinase

43.

Glycolysis splits glucose into 2 molecules of

a)

Acetyl CoA

b)

pyruvate

c)

citric acid

d)

fructokinase

44.

In the absence of oxygen, ____ follows glycolysis.

a)

the link reaction

b)

the citric acid cycle

c)

fermentation

d)

the calvin cycle

45.

In the absence of oxygen, ____ follows glycolysis.

a)

the link reaction

b)

the citric acid cycle

c)

fermentation

d)

the calvin cycle

46.

During the link reaction (a.k.a. transition reaction), electrons from pyruvate are accepted by:

a)

NAD+

b)

NADH

c)

FADH2

d)

oxygen

47.

The inner membrane of the mitochondria has an increased surface area due to numerous foldings. These foldings are called:

a)

stroma

b)

cristae

c)

matrix

d)

ER

48.

Chemiosmosis occurs as H+ ions move through ____ in the cristae, making ATP.

a)

foldings

b)

ATP synthase

c)

protein channels

49.

The ETC provides the energy needed to make the majority of the cell's ATP in a process known as:

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

substrate level phosphorylation

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

50.

The ETC provides the energy needed to make the majority of the cell's ATP in a process known as:

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

substrate level phosphorylation

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

51.

What part of cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide?

a)

glycolysis

b)

the link reaction

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

chemiosmosis

52.

The ETC provides the energy needed to make the majority of the cell's ATP in a process known as:

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

substrate level phosphorylation

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

53.

What part of cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide?

a)

glycolysis

b)

the link reaction

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

chemiosmosis

54.

What part of cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide?

a)

glycolysis

b)

the link reaction

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

chemiosmosis

55.

What produces ATP during glycolysis?

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

oxidative phosphorylation

c)

substrate level phosphorylation

d)

fermentation

56.

What is the net yield of ATP produced by glycolysis?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

1

57.

During fermentation, _____ is regenerated and it returns to glycolysis to pick up more electrons.

a)

ATP

b)

glucose

c)

pyruvate

d)

NAD+

58.

The amount of oxygen needed to get rid of lactate produced during fermentation in muscle cells.

a)

oxygen debt

b)

oxygen deprivation

c)

oxygen replacement

59.

The final electron acceptor in the electron transport system is _____.

a)

water

b)

NAD+

c)

oxygen

d)

FADH2

60.

How many ATP molecules are produced when FADH2 delivers electrons to the electron transport system?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

36

61.

In yeast, what product of fermentation is lethal when it builds up?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

lactate

c)

alcohol

62.

When NADH produced during the transition reaction and Citric Acid cycle delivers electrons to the electron transport system, _____ ATP is/are produced.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

36

63.

The energy released by the electron transport system produces ATP by _____.

a)

photophosphorylation

b)

substrate level phosphorylation

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

64.

A poison which inhibits the activity of cytochrome oxidase will result in the following reaction:

a)

Excess ATP

b)

oxygen production

c)

Insufficient ATP

d)

water synthesis

65.
What is one function of the other pigments  besides chlorophyll, in the chloroplast?
a)
to block damaging wavelengths of light
b)
to absorb different wavelengths than the chloroplasts
c)
to provide different colors to the leaves
d)
to transfer energy to a separate photosystem beside the one using chlorophyll a and b.
66.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
67.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
68.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
69.
What supplies the electrons that are lost in PS I?
a)
the electrons from PS II
b)
water
c)
glucose
d)
oxygen
70.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
71.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
72.
Which of the following molecules is not needed for the Calvin Cycle?
a)
CO2
b)
ATP
c)
NADPH
d)
H2O
73.
Green plants reflect ________ light.
a)
Red
b)
Green
c)
All
d)
Red and Violet
74.
The light reactions occur in the ________ and the dark reactions take place in the ________.
a)
Chloroplast / thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma / thylakoid
c)
mesophyl / stomata
d)
thylakoid membrane / stroma
75.
Where does the carbon come from that is used to form glucose?
a)
The soil
b)
CO2 in the air
c)
From other carbohydrates
d)
Calvin Cycle
76.
Where is glucose synthesized
a)
Photosystem II
b)
Photosystem I
c)
Calvin Cycle
d)
Glycolysis
77.
Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
a)
stroma of the chloroplast
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
outer membrane of the chloroplast
d)
interior of the thylakoid membrane
78.
Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
a)
stroma of the chloroplast
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
outer membrane of the chloroplast
d)
interior of the thylakoid membrane
79.
Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
a)
stroma of the chloroplast
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
outer membrane of the chloroplast
d)
interior of the thylakoid membrane
80.
When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of
a)
reducing NADP+
b)
splitting water molecules
c)
chemiosmosis
d)
electron transfer in photosystem II and I
81.
What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?
a)
regenerate ATP for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis
b)
produce carbon dioxide for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis
c)
produce oxygen by oxidizing water
d)
produce simple sugars from carbon dioxide
82.
Plants with the largest amount of which pigment will be best suited for growing conditions where light has a green hue.
a)
Chlorophyll A
b)
Chlorophyll B
c)
Carotenoids
d)
A combination of all 3
83.
How many sugar molecules are produced from every six molecules of carbon dioxide that enter the Calvin cycle?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
6
d)
12
84.
The H+ concentration gradient is used to 
a)
make NADPH
b)
split a water molecule
c)
generate ATP
d)
form water
85.

Steroid action hormones triggers the conversion of ATP to cAMP.

a)

Correct

b)

Incorrect

86.

Oestrogen is an example of a steroid action hormone.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Non-steroid action hormones are hydrophilic and can pass through the membrane. True or false?

a)

True

b)

False

88.

cAMP is a second messenger

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Adrenaline is an example of a steroid action hormone.

a)

Correct

b)

Incorrect

90.

Which of the following are steroid hormones?

a)

Oestrogen

b)

Glucagon

c)

FSH

d)

Testosterone

91.

The adrenal glands are made up of two parts. The adrenal (a)   and the adrenal cortex.

92.

The adrenal cortex produces hormones such as (a)  

93.

(a)   regulates metabolism by controlling how the body converts fats, proteins and carbs to energy.

94.

(a)   controls blood pressure by balancing salt and water concentration

95.

The medulla releases which of the two hormones when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Adrenaline, Melancholic

b)

Noradrenaline, Aldosterone

c)

Noradrenaline, Adrenaline

d)

Epinephrine, Adrenalline

96.

The pancreas produces _____ when your blood sugar level is high.

a)

Thyroxin

b)

Melatonin

c)

Glucagon

d)

Insulin

97.
Homeostatic blood glucose controlling enzymes are produced in
a)
the islets of Langehans in the pancreas
b)
in the liver
c)
Loop of henle in the kidneys
d)
pituitary gland
98.
What happens if glucose levels fall?
a)
Insulin levels rise
b)
glucagon levels rise
c)
glucagon levels drop
d)
glycogen levels rise
99.
which type of diabetes is caused by an autoimmune response?
a)
Type 1
b)
Type 2
100.

Most control mechanisms in living organisms use a ................ feedback control loop to maintain homeostatic balance.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

none

d)

both positive and negative

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