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WorksheetsDistric Final
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Structure that is a part of the 1st line of defense and is an exocrine gland that secretes an acidic oil to kill infectious agents.
a)
B
b)
H
c)
D
d)
G
2.
The sensory receptors that are stimulated by heavy pressure is called
a)
Pacinian corpuscles
b)
Meissner corpuscles
c)
Sebaceous corpuscles
d)
Arrector pili
3.
Structure that protects cells from UV and folate damage.
a)
keratin
b)
melanin
c)
hair follicle
d)
sebaceous glands
4.
The dermis is made out of 2 layers, which is made of areolar connective tissue and the looseness allows for phagocytes and other defensive cells to migrate.
a)
epidermal layer
b)
hypodermal layer
c)
reticular layer
d)
papillary layer
5.
Which sudoriferous gland is most abundant and responds to heat?
a)
eccrine
b)
apocrine
c)
ceruminous
d)
mammary
6.
Which sweat gland produces wax in the meatus canal?
a)
eccrine
b)
apocrine
c)
ceruminous
d)
mammary
7.
Osteocytes are housed in little chambers called
a)
canaliculi
b)
lacunae
c)
oseons
d)
Haversion canal
8.
In comparison to spongy bone, compact bone contain
a)
osteocytes
b)
lacunae
c)
osteons
d)
canaliculi
9.
When blood calcium levels drop below homeostatic level, the parathyroid gland stimulates hormones to release which cell?
a)
osteocytes
b)
osteoclasts
c)
osteoblasts
d)
osteons
10.
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains:
a)
cartilage and lamallae
b)
osteoclasts and osteoblasts
c)
blood vessels and nerve fibers
d)
red marrow
11.
Skeletal muscle are
a)
not striated and voluntary
b)
striated and involuntary
c)
striated and voluntary
d)
not striated and involuntary
12.
Myofibrils are
a)
skeletal muscle fibers
b)
long, ribbon-like organelles that fill cytoplasm
c)
cytoplasm of muscle cell
d)
plasma membrane of a muscle cell
13.
The structure that bundles muscle fibers is
a)
endomysium
b)
perimysium
c)
epimysium
d)
fascicle
14.
The I band is indicated by the letter
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
15.
The site where the axon and muscle fiber meet is called ______ and the gap between them is the _________.
a)
motor unit; synaptic cleft
b)
axon terminal; sarcolemma
c)
synaptic cleft; axon terminal
d)
neuromuscular junction; synaptic cleft
16.
Which of these events must occur first to trigger the skeletal muscle to generate an action potential and contract:
a)
sodium ions rush into the cell
b)
acetylcholine (ACh) causes temporary permeability to sodium
c)
diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell
d)
operation of the sodium-potassium pump
17.
The number that represents the structure that releases Ach to cross the synaptic cleft.
a)
5
b)
3
c)
7
d)
8
18.
Place these structures of the skeletal muscle in order from smallest to largest:
1. fascicle
2. myofilament
3. muscle fiber (cell)
4. myofibril
5. sarcomere
1. fascicle
2. myofilament
3. muscle fiber (cell)
4. myofibril
5. sarcomere
a)
1, 3, 4, 5, 2
b)
1, 4, 3, 2, 5
c)
2, 5, 4, 3, 1
d)
3, 1, 2, 4, 5
19.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contraction?
a)
neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum, sliding of myofilaments, ATP- driven power stroke
b)
neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum, ATP- driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
c)
release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, ATP- driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
d)
neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, ATP-driven power-stroke, release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum, sliding of myofilaments
20.
During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to active sites of:
a)
myosin filaments
b)
actin filaments
c)
Z discs
d)
the H zone
21.
The mechanical force of contraction is generated by:
a)
shortening of the thick filaments
b)
shortening of the thin filaments
c)
a sliding of thin filaments past thick ones
d)
the "accordian-like" folding of thin and thick filaments
22.
Cell bodies of the motor neurons of the spinal nerves are located in:
a)
the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
b)
the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
c)
the thalamus
d)
the hypothalamus
23.
Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc:
a)
effector, afferent neuron, control center, efferent neuron, receptor
b)
receptor, afferent neuron, control center, efferent neuron, effector
c)
effector, efferent neuron, control center, afferent neuron, receptor
d)
receptor, efferent neuron, control center, afferent neuron, effector
24.
Sympathetic division fibers leave the spinal cord in the:
a)
cranium and saccral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
b)
thoracic and lumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
c)
cranium and saccral region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
d)
thoracic and lumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
25.
An action potential is caused by an influx of these ions into the cell and causes the inside of the cell to be what charge?
a)
potassium; positive
b)
sodium; positive
c)
potassium; negative
d)
sodium; negative
26.
The pituitary gland is most closely associated with the:
a)
hypothalamus
b)
thalamus
c)
pineal gland
d)
midbrain
27.
The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called:
a)
axon
b)
dendrites
c)
schwann cells
d)
neurolemmas
28.
The _____part of the autonomic nervous system is active while digesting food.
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
c)
somatic
d)
peripheral
29.
The inner ear contains the cochlear, semicircular canals, and ___.
a)
Auricle
b)
Helix
c)
Vestibule
d)
Ampullae
30.
The part of your eye that gives it its color. It is a muscle that controls the size of your pupil.
a)
cornea
b)
lens
c)
pupi
d)
iris
31.
The back of the eye; an upside-down image of whatever you are looking at is projected here.
a)
lens
b)
cornea
c)
pupi
d)
retina
32.
Controls how much light enters the eye by changes the size of the pupil. It is also the color part of your eye.
a)
iris
b)
cornea
c)
Retina
d)
pupil
33.
bones of the ear
a)
papillae
b)
photoreceptors
c)
ossicles
d)
hair cells
34.
smell, taste, vision, equilibrium, and hearing
a)
special senses
b)
somatic senses
c)
thermoreceptors
d)
chemoreceptors
35.
muscles on the exterior of the eye that move the eyeball around in its socket
a)
extrinsic muscles
b)
accessory muscles
c)
orbiularis oculi
d)
levator palpabrae
36.
a)
Left atrium
b)
Right atrium
c)
Left ventricle
d)
Right ventricle
37.
Blood type A+ has which antigens?
a)
B, Rh
b)
A, B, Rh
c)
A, Rh
d)
None
38.
Which of the following cells are responsible for fighting diseases?
a)
thrombocytes (platelets)
b)
erythrocytes (RBC)
c)
leukocytes (WBC)
d)
plasma
39.
When considering blood type, the universal recipient is?
a)
A+
b)
B+
c)
AB+
d)
O-
40.
Which part of the heart pumps deoxygenated (oxygen-poor) blood?
a)
Left side
b)
Right side
c)
Top side
d)
Bottom side
41.
Which vessels exchange gases and nutrients?
a)
Veins
b)
Arteries
c)
Capillaries
42.
When cholesterol builds up inside a vessel it is called
a)
high blood pressure
b)
a stroke
c)
artherosclerosis
d)
heart failure
43.
The part of our blood that helps stop bleeding
a)
Plasma
b)
Red Blood Cells
c)
Platelets
d)
White Blood Cells
44.
What type antigens does type A blood have?
a)
A only
b)
B
c)
A and B
d)
A and O
45.
During mid-late diastole and atrial systole, the the valves that are closed are
a)
semilunar valves
b)
atrioventricular valves
c)
systemic valves
d)
pulmonary valves
46.
The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called:
a)
homeostasis
b)
coagulation
c)
hemostasis
d)
agglutination
47.
Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis:
a)
platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm
b)
vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
c)
coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
d)
vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
48.
Which one of the following mechanisms do not occur during coagulation?
a)
fibrin forms a mesh
b)
clot is formed
c)
thrombin enzyme catalyzes reaction
d)
smooth muscle contracts
49.
Inhalation brings in fresh ________ and exhalation removes ________.
a)
cabon dioxide, oxygen
b)
oxygen, nitrogen
c)
oxygen, carbon dioxide
d)
nitrogen, carbon dioxide
50.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of human lungs?
a)
Both right and left lungs are composed of three lobes.
b)
Bronchi divide to form bronchioles.
c)
Capillary supply is abundant to facilitate gas exchange with the blood.
d)
The alveoli are tiny air sacs arranged in clusters.
51.
Location of gas exchange
a)
alveoli
b)
myocardium
c)
raveoli
d)
pulmonary vent
52.
2?
a)
thyroid cartilage
b)
epiglottis
c)
vocal cords
d)
trachea
53.
D?
a)
blood flowing to the heart
b)
blood flowing away from heart
c)
microcirculation
d)
blood filled w/ CO2
54.
Given the following structures:
1. larynx
2. nasal cavity
3. pharynx
4. trachea
Which of the following is the correct order that air would flow during inhalation.
1. larynx
2. nasal cavity
3. pharynx
4. trachea
Which of the following is the correct order that air would flow during inhalation.
a)
1,2,3,4
b)
2,3,1,4
c)
2,1,3,4
d)
4,2,3,1
55.
Inhalation brings in fresh ________ and exhalation removes ________.
a)
cabon dioxide, oxygen
b)
oxygen, nitrogen
c)
oxygen, carbon dioxide
d)
nitrogen, carbon dioxide
56.
What occurs according to Boyle’s law when the diaphragm contracts?
a)
volume increases, pressure increases
b)
volume increases, presseure decreases
c)
volume decreases, pressure increases
d)
volume decreases, pressure decreases
57.
The second nutrient to be chemically digested is _______ by the enzyme ______.
a)
polysaccharide; amylase
b)
protein; amylase
c)
protein; pepsin
58.
Digestion is primarily controlled by the:
a)
sympathetic division of ANS
b)
medulla oblongata
c)
parasympathetic division of ANS
d)
Somatic nervous system
59.
The hormone responsible for causing the stomach to release pepsinogens(pepsin), mucus, and hydrochloric acid is:
a)
rennin
b)
bile
c)
gastrin
d)
amylase
60.
The sequence of steps by which large food molecules are broken down into their respective building blocks by catalytic enzymes within hydrolysis reactions is called:
a)
mechanical digestion
b)
chemical digestion
c)
propulsion
d)
absorption
61.
Bile is stored in the _____ but produced by _____.
a)
liver; pancreas
b)
liver; gallbladder
c)
gallbladder; liver
d)
gallbladder; pancreas
62.
Which of the following influence the release of pancreatic juice and bile:
a)
rennin and cholecystokinin
b)
gastrin and rennin
c)
secretin and gastrin
d)
cholecystokinin and secretin
63.
The nonselective, passive process performed by the glomerulus that forms blood plasma without blood proteins is called
a)
absorption
b)
secretion
c)
filtration
d)
tubular reabsorption
64.
The correct order for the renal tubules is:
a)
proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle
b)
distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct
c)
proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct
d)
collecting duct, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule
65.
Identify Letter A
a)
Bowman's Capsule
b)
Afferent Arteriole
c)
Efferent Arteriole
d)
Glomerulus
66.
In homeostasis, the kidney regulates the:
a)
levels of electrolytes
b)
amount of water in the body
c)
pH
d)
all of the above
67.
Which of the following is part of innate immunity?
a)
Neutrophils
b)
Cell-Mediated Response
c)
Inflammation
d)
Humoral Response
68.
T cells mature in the
a)
Bone marrow
b)
Thymus
c)
Blood
d)
Thyroid
69.
A secondary immune response will be faster when...
a)
The individual has encountered the pathogen already
b)
The individual's macrophages are on high alert
c)
The individual has encountered the pathogen and has memory B cells circulating
d)
All of the above
70.
What is the job of a cytotoxic "killer" T cell?
a)
make B cells
b)
promote more WBC's
c)
make more T cells
d)
kill cells infected by pathogen
71.
Which one of the following target cell's membrane and disintegrates nucleus rapidly?
a)
Phagocyte
b)
Killer T-Cell
c)
Memory B Cells
d)
Natural killer cell
72.
An antigen is___, whereas an antibody is___.
a)
a foreign substance to which lymphocytes respond; a globular protein that reacts with an antigen to eliminate them
b)
an immunoglobin; foreign protein
c)
a hapten; an enzyme
d)
none of these is correct
73.
An immune response that is slower to respond but more specific for the pathogen is the
a)
innate defense
b)
general defense
c)
specific defense
d)
all of these are fast
74.
Below is a diagram of the male reproductive system. Which structure is represented by the letter D?
a)
scrotum
b)
testes
c)
prostrate gland
d)
epididymus
75.
Located in testicles and the sperm factory
a)
epididymis
b)
seminiferous glands
c)
bulbourethral gland
d)
prostate gland
76.
Maturing sperm gain their ability to swim while in the:
a)
epididymis
b)
seminiferous tubules
c)
prostate
d)
seminal vesicles
77.
Fertilization occurs in which structure:
a)
ovary
b)
uterus
c)
cervix
d)
fallopian tube
78.
The final outcome of meiosis within both the testicles and the ovaries is:
a)
one gamete
b)
four gametes
c)
one zygote
d)
four zygotes
79.
The process by which a mature egg is ejected from the ovary is called:
a)
ejaculation
b)
menses
c)
fertilization
d)
ovulation
80.
What functions does this lobe carry out?
a)
Hearing and auditory processing
b)
Vision and visual processing
c)
Processing fear
d)
Judgment, impulse control, planning, problem solving, and other executive functions
81.
This lobe receives and processes visual information and then sends it to other parts of the brain for further processing and storage.
a)
Occipital Lobe
b)
Parietal Lobe
c)
Temporal Lobe
d)
Frontal Lobe
82.
Part of the diencephalon that controls hormones, blood pressure, body temperature, and hunger.
a)
hypothalamus
b)
pituitary gland
c)
hippocampus
d)
thalamus
83.
The mastery gland
a)
pituitary gland
b)
pineal gland
c)
thalamus
d)
hypothalamus
84.
Vertigo is a condition that causes dizziness and makes objects appear they are moving when not. It can be caused by an infection of the inner ear. Which structure is most likely being effected?
a)
malleus
b)
auricle
c)
semicircular canal
d)
cochlea
85.
Hearing aides work to capture sound, making waves louder at the location of the receptor neurons. Which structure does the hearing aid effect?
a)
semicircular canal
b)
cochlea
c)
incus
d)
auditory tube
86.
Cataracts is a disease that is defined by a cloudy lens. If the lens is cloudy, then the receptors will not be able to process the visible light. Which structure contains the receptor rods and cones?
a)
cornea
b)
optic nerve
c)
retina
d)
optic disc
87.
Astigmatism usually is caused by an irregularly shaped cornea. Instead of the cornea having a symmetrically round shape (like a baseball), it is shaped more like a football. Which one of the following best describes why vision is disrupted?
a)
The receptor cells are completely blocked from the visible light.
b)
Light entering the eye is not focused on a single point on the retina, so objects both near and far become blurred or distorted.
c)
The optic disc creates a larger blind spot.
d)
The lense becomes cloudy and cataracts are formed.
88.
What antigens are present in a person with AB- blood?
a)
A, B, and Rh
b)
Rh, only
c)
A and B
d)
No antigens
89.
What antibodies are present in a person with A- blood?
a)
A, only
b)
B and Rh
c)
B, only
d)
A and Rh
90.
Using the table, under which conditions would agglutination most likely occur?
a)
Row 1
b)
Row 2
c)
Row 3
d)
Row 4
91.
Mom is AO and Dad is BB - what blood types are possible?
a)
A, B, and AB
b)
AB and A
c)
AB and B
d)
Just B
92.
Each sperm and ovum have:
a)
23 chromosomes
b)
46 chromosomes
c)
46 pairs of chromosomes
d)
23 pairs of chromosomes
93.
At resting potential, the neuron is
a)
polarized
b)
depolarized
c)
repolarized
94.
During repolarization, which ion(s)moves outside of neuron?
a)
sodium
b)
potassium
c)
sodium and potassium
95.
Which of the following pituitary hormones regulate fluid balance?
a)
LH
b)
FSH
c)
Oxytocin
d)
ADH
96.
What element is needed to produce proper amounts of Thyronine (T3) and Thyroxine (T4)?
a)
Iodine
b)
Iron
c)
Calcium
d)
Zinc
97.
The master gland of the body, secreting a large number of hormones that affect other glands, growth and development. Housed within a bony cradle deep within the skull.
a)
Thymus
b)
Pineal
c)
Thyroid
d)
Pituitary
98.
This substance plays a role in regulating circadian rhythms, and is produced by the pineal body.
a)
Benadryl
b)
Melatonin
c)
Melanin
d)
Ambien
99.
The hormone that causes calcium to be deposited in bone is
a)
calcitonin
b)
parathyroid hormone
c)
thyroxine
d)
insulin
100.
How does a hormone transfer to the target cell?
a)
The hormone is sent as an electrical signal through the nervous system.
b)
The hormone is secreted externally through ducts.
c)
The gland will secrete the hormone into the blood stream and it will travel to target organ or cell.
d)
It is secreted as mucus and proteins into target cell.
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