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2nd Semester Study Guide

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that all living things share?
a)
a cellular organization
b)
using energy
c)
movement
d)
reproduction
2.
A change in an organism's surroundings that causes it to react is called
a)
a response
b)
a stimulus
c)
energy
d)
development
3.
Which of the following do all living things need to survive?
a)
water 
b)
oxygen 
c)
sunlight
d)
carbon dioxide
4.
Homeostasis refers to an organism’s ability to
a)
maintain stable internal conditions.
b)
compete for living space.
c)
dissolve chemicals.
d)
obtain energy.
5.
Which classification level is broader than the kingdom level?
a)
order 
b)
class
c)
family 
d)
domain
6.
An organism’s scientific name consists of
a)
its class name and its family name.
b)
its kingdom name and its phylum 
name.
c)
its genus name and its species name.
d)
its phylum name and its species name.
7.
Why do scientists organize living things into groups?
a)
so they can find them in the wild more 
easily
b)
so that the organisms are easier to study
c)
so they can make sense of the variety of
rocks on Earth
d)
so products from living things can be
easily found in groceries
8.
What is taxonomy?
a)
the scientific study of how living things are classified
b)
the name of Aristotle's classification system
c)
the process used by geologists to classify rocks
d)
the process of observing an organism's behavior
9.
Which of the following would you use to identify an organism?
a)
a domain
b)
a controlled experiment
c)
a taxonomic key
d)
a eukaryote
10.
The source of energy for most autotrophs is
a)
sun
b)
water
c)
heterotrouphs
d)
other autotrouphs
11.
Which of the following characteristics do all plants share?
a)
being unicellular
b)
producing flowers
c)
being a prokaryote
d)
being an autotroph
12.
The more classification levels that two organisms share,
a)
the closer together on Earth they live. 
b)
the easier it is to tell them apart
c)
the more characteristics they have in common
d)
the more distantly related they are
13.
A new one-celled organism is found by a scientist.  This organism is said to be
a)
prokaryotic
b)
eukaryotic
c)
multicellular
d)
unicellular
14.
The experiments of Redi and Pasteur helped to demonstrate that
a)
species gradually change over time
b)
living things do not arise from nonliving material
c)
organisms can be plaved in groups based on their similarities
d)
the chemicals of life could have arisen on early Earth
15.
What captures energy from sunlight during photosynthesis?
a)
solar cells
b)
stomata
c)
chlorophyll and other pigments
d)
carbohydrates
16.
An organism that makes its own food is
called a(n)
a)
heterotroph
b)
eukaryote
c)
autotroph
d)
prokaryote
17.
What are the eight levels of classification (in order)?
a)
Phylum, family, genus, domain,
kingdoms, species, class, order
b)
Genus, domain, family, class, phylum,
order, species, kingdoms
c)
Domain, kingdoms, phylum, class, 
order, family, genus, species
d)
Species, genus, phylum, kingdoms,
domain, class, family, order
18.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
carbon dioxide and water
b)
oxygen and water
c)
carbon dioxide and sugars
d)
oxygen and sugars
19.
What happens during photosynthesis?
a)
the cell uses oxygen to make food
b)
the cell uses the energy in sunlight to make food
c)
the cell uses gllucose to make oxygen
d)
the cell uses the energy in sunligh to make carbon dioxide
20.
The energy-releasing process that does not require oxygen is called
a)
photosynthesis
b)
respiration
c)
ferilization
d)
fermentation
21.
How does photosynthesis benefit
heterotrophs?
a)
It adds carbon dioxide to the air
b)
it creates food that they can eat
c)
it eliminates harmful sugars
d)
It creates clean water 
22.
How are photosynthesis and respiration
related?
a)
they have opposite equations
b)
they have the same equation
c)
they both produce carbon dioxide
d)
they both produce oxygen
23.
The stage of respiration that releases most of the energy in glucose occurs in the
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
cytoplasm
d)
mitocondria
24.
What is the difference between asexual and sexual reproduction?
a)
Asexual requires 2 parents while sexual
requires 1 parent.
b)
Asexual requires 1 parent while sexual 
requires 2 parents.
c)
Asexual produces 1 offspring while 
sexual produces 2 offspring.
d)
Asexual produces 2 offspring while 
sexual produces 1 offspring.
25.
What happens during respiration?
a)
Oxygen is released into the air.
b)
Glucose is broken down, releasing
energy.
c)
Carbohydrates are released into the 
bloodstream.
d)
Water and carbon dioxide are
converted into energy.
26.
What is copied during replication?
a)
the cell's organells
b)
chromosomes
c)
the cell's DNA
d)
two daughter cells
27.
Mitosis is the stage of the cell cycle during which
a)
the cell’s nucleus divides into two new 
nuclei.
b)
the cell’s DNA is replicated.
c)
the cell divides into two new cells.
d)
the cell’s cytoplasm divides.
28.
Factors that control traits are called
a)
genes
b)
purebreds
c)
recessives
d)
parents
29.
What happens during cytokinesis in cells?
a)
A new round of mitosis begins.
b)
Two new daughter cells are formed.
c)
Each organelle divides into two parts.
d)
A cell plate forms in the middle of the 
cell.
30.
During what stage of the cell cycle does
replication occur?
a)
interphase
b)
metaphase
c)
cytokinesis
d)
telophase
31.
The stage of the cell cycle that follows
mitosis is called
a)
interphase
b)
metaphase
c)
cytokinesis
d)
telophase
32.
The regular cycle of growth and division that cells undergo is called
a)
replication
b)
the cell cycle
c)
interphase
d)
mitosis
33.
Who was known as the “Father of Genetics”?
a)
Refinalt Punnett
b)
Gregor Mendel 
c)
Dmitri Mendeleev
d)
Thomas Hunt Morgan
34.
The study of where organisms live is called
a)
dispersal
b)
biogeography
c)
ecology
d)
climatology
35.
What is one achievement of Thomas Hunt Morgan?
a)
He created the Mendel foundation
b)
He discovered the phases of mitosis
c)
He laid the groundwork for modern genetics
d)
He showed how to predict the outcome of a genetcic cross using a Punnet square
36.
What happens during meiosis?
a)
Two sex cells combine
b)
Chromosome pairs separate and are disrupted into new sex cells
c)
Each sex cell copies itself to form four new chromosomes
d)
Chromosome pairs remain together when new sex cells are formed
37.
The step in the water cycle in which water vapor becomes liquid water is 
a)
condensation 
b)
nitrogen fixation
c)
recycling
d)
precipitation
38.
In which process do molecules of liquid water absorb energy and change into the gas state?
a)
condensaation
b)
precipitation
c)
evaporation
d)
recycling
39.
In which process do producers use carbon from carbon dioxide to produce other carbon containing molecules?
a)
the nitrogen cycle
b)
photosynthesis
c)
precipitaiton
d)
the water cycle
40.
Which biome is extremely cold and dry?
a)
desert
b)
tundra
c)
grassland
d)
mountains
41.
The typical weather pattern in an area over a long period of time is called
a)
climate
b)
precipitaiton
c)
the water cycle
d)
weather
42.
The ocean prevents the Australian kangaroo from dispersing throughout the world. The ocean is an example of which limit to dispersal?
a)
climate
b)
a physical barrier
c)
competition
d)
an exotic species
43.
A group of land ecosystems with similar climates and organisms is called
a)
energy pyramid
b)
climate
c)
biome
d)
food web
44.
The very slow movement of the continents is called
a)
continental drift
b)
biogeography
c)
dispersal
d)
distribution
45.
Certain bacteria change free nitroen gas into a usable form in a process called
a)
nodules
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
biogeography
46.
A large stream of moving water that flows through the oceans is called a(n)
a)
current
b)
tsunami
c)
tide 
d)
undertow
47.
In the Northern Hemisphere, currents curve to the right because of the
a)
longshore drift
b)
density
c)
Coriolis effect
d)
moon's gravity
48.
Which of the following is true of El Niño?
a)
Scientists fully understand the 
conditions that create El Niño.
b)
El Niño affects only the ocean, not the 
land.
c)
El Niño begins with unusual wind 
patterns.
d)
El Niño usually occurs twice a year.
49.
When a rapidly moving cold air mass
overtakes a slow-moving warm air mass and moves it, the result is a(n)
a)
cold front 
b)
occluded front
c)
warm front
d)
stationary front
50.
Weather associated with high pressure is generally
a)
cloudy but dry
b)
unpredictable
c)
wed and cloudy
d)
dry and clear
51.
When a warm air mass and a cold air mass meet and neither can move the other, the result is a(n)
a)
occluded front 
b)
warm front 
c)
stationary front
d)
cold fron
52.
On weather maps, a line with half circles indicates
a)
a hurricane 
b)
a cold front
c)
a warm front
d)
snow
53.
Scientists who study weather and try to
predict it are called
a)
astronomers
b)
climatologists 
c)
meteorologists
d)
weatherologists
54.
What is a fast-flowing and narrow
atmospheric current that significantly affects climate?
a)
jet stream
b)
polar winds
c)
westerlies
d)
trade winds
55.
cumulonimbus clouds cirrus cloudsLayered clouds that often cover much of the sky and are a dull gray color are called
a)
cumulus clouds
b)
cumulonimbus clouds
c)
cirrus clouds
d)
cumulus clouds
56.
A cloud cover symbol that is 3/4 black and 1/4 white represents
a)
20–30 percent cloud cover.
b)
50–60 percent cloud cover.
c)
70–80 percent cloud cover.
d)
90–100 percent cloud cover.
57.
When a warm air mass pushes a cold air mass out of the way, it forms a(n)
a)
occluded font
b)
warm front
c)
stationary front
d)
cold front
58.
The color of a mineral’s powder is called its
a)
streak
b)
luster
c)
density
d)
hardness
59.
What is the hardest known mineral?
a)
talc
b)
quartz
c)
diamond
d)
gold
60.
A mineral is inorganic, which means that it contains
a)
compounds
b)
materials made by humans
c)
parts of living things
d)
no materials that were once part of 
living things.
61.
The term used to describe how light is
reflected from a mineral’s surface is
a)
flourescence
b)
streak
c)
density
d)
luster
62.
Rock that forms from the cooling of magma below the surface or lava at the surface is called
a)
sedimentary rock
b)
metamorphic rock
c)
igneous rock
d)
coarse-grained rock
63.
Igneous rock that formed from lava that
erupted onto Earth’s surface is called
a)
extrusive rock 
b)
intrusive rock 
c)
clastic rock 
d)
sedimentary rock
64.
Generally, a rock is made up of
a)
large crystals
b)
a mixture of minerals and other materials
c)
small crystals
d)
a compound of several elements
65.
Chalk formed from sediments made of
skeletons of microscopic living things in the 
ocean must be a(n)
a)
clastic rock
b)
organic rock
c)
chemical rock
d)
igneous rock 
66.
Heat and pressure deep beneath Earth’s surface can change any rock into
a)
chemical rock
b)
gemstones
c)
metamorphic rock 
d)
sedimentary rock
67.
The sun produces energy by
a)
attracting it with the force of gravity.
b)
nuclear fission
c)
burning fuels such as oil
d)
nuclear fusion
68.
The texture of a metamorphic rock that has grains arranged in parallel layers is described as
a)
foliated 
b)
jagged grained
c)
coarse grained 
d)
non-foliated
69.
During a total lunar eclipse the moon is in Earth’s
a)
corona
b)
ellipse
c)
shadow
d)
orbit
70.
The heliocentric system gained support when Galileo observed that
a)
one side of the moon always faces 
Earth.
b)
most of the smaller planets are closer to 
the sun.
c)
Venus goes through phases similar to 
those of Earth’s moon.
d)
the orbit of each planet is an ellipse.
71.
For a solar eclipse to occur,
a)
the sun must be directly between Earth 
and the moon.
b)
the moon must be directly between 
Earth and the sun.
c)
the moon must be directly behind
Earth.
d)
Earth must be directly between the sun  and the moon.
72.
What layer are you looking at when you look at an image of the sun?
a)
photosphere
b)
chromosphere
c)
corona
d)
prominence
73.
In a heliocentric system, Earth revolves
around
a)
Mars
b)
the stars
c)
the moon
d)
the sun
74.
The fact that each planet’s orbit is an ellipse was discovered by
a)
Copernicus
b)
Galileo
c)
Kepler
d)
Brahe
75.
Copernicus explained that
a)
the sun is at the center of the planets.
b)
the sun and planets revolve around 
Earth.
c)
the geocentric system is correct.
d)
there are only six planets.
76.
Which parts of the sun’s atmosphere become visible during an eclipse?
a)
photosphere and corona
b)
chromosphere and corona
c)
photosphere and chromosphere
d)
prominences and flares
77.
What can convection zones best be compared to?
a)
Magma circulations
b)
Steam rising from the core
c)
volcanic eruptions
d)
Lava Lamps
78.
How can nuclear fusion best be described?
a)
Helium atoms collide to form hydrogen
b)
Hydrogen atoms collide to form helium
c)
Aluminum atoms collide to form Iron
d)
Hydrogen and Oxygen collide to form 
water.
79.
Who was a Greek astronomer in A.D. 140 who believed the planets moved in 
small circles that moved in bigger circles.
a)
Copernicus
b)
Kepler
c)
Galileo
d)
Ptolemy
80.
The first human in space was
a)
Laika Sputnik.
b)
Alan Shepard.
c)
John Glenn.
d)
Yuri Gagarin.
81.
One of the main uses of satellites is
a)
launchig deep-space expeditions
b)
controlling the weather
c)
observing Earth's surface
d)
Preventing ozone depletion
82.
The solar wind is a stream of electrically charged particles that extend outward from the sun’s
a)
chromosphere
b)
photosphere
c)
corona
d)
core
83.
A feeling of weightlessness in orbit is called
a)
thrust
b)
microgravity
c)
vacuum
d)
antigravity
84.
For a solar eclipse to occur,
a)
the sun must be directly between Earth 
and the moon.
b)
the moon must be directly between 
Earth and the sun.
c)
the moon must be directly behind Earth.
d)
Earth must be directly between the sun 
and the moon.
85.
Which answer gives the correct sequence of important early space flights?
a)
Apollo 11, Yuri Gagarin, Alan Shepard
b)
Alan Shepard, Apollo 11, Laika
c)
Yuri Gagarin, Laika, Alan Shepard
d)
Yuri Gagarin, Alan Shepard, Apollo 11
86.
A large artificial satellite on which people can live and work for long periods is called a
a)
space shuttle
b)
space probe
c)
space station
d)
rover
87.
Which event began the space race?
a)
Yuri Gagarin went into space.
b)
The United States landed on the moon.
c)
The United States launched Explorer 1.
d)
The Soviet Union launched Sputnik I.
88.
What uses longer-life batteries in an internal body device to provide a normal heartbeat by electronic stimulation?
a)
Pacemaker
b)
Dehydrated food
c)
fireproof suits
d)
GPS
89.
The space race was between
a)
The United States and China
b)
Great Britian and the Soviet Union
c)
The Soviet Union and China
d)
The United States and the Soviet Union
90.
What was the telescope launched in 1990 that orbits Earth and takes pictures of far away locations.
a)
Explorer 1
b)
Cassini
c)
Voyager
d)
Hubble
91.
Who was the first human on the moon?
a)
Yuri Gagarin
b)
Neil Armstrong
c)
John Glenn
d)
Sally Ride
92.
The American program to land people on the moon was called
a)
Mercury
b)
Freedom
c)
Apollo
d)
Eagle
93.
Exploration of space beyond the moon has been done by
a)
space probes with no human crew
b)
astromauts in space shuttles
c)
 space probes with human crews
d)
the International Space Station
94.
Because space is a vacuum,
a)
there is no air to breath in space
b)
astromauts fall through space
c)
satellites orbit faster
d)
none of the above
95.
A space spinoff is
a)
a item that can only be used in space
b)
a item that was originally developed for use in space but has uses on earth
c)
a piece of loose space junk that "spins off" into orbit
96.
Nuclear reactions result in tremendous
amounts of
a)
uranium
b)
energy
c)
fission
d)
mass
97.
Which of these is an example of a biomass fuel?
a)
oil
b)
natural gas
c)
wood
d)
coal
98.
Which of the following is an advantage of solar energy?
a)
It will not run out for billions of years
b)
It is not available at night
c)
No backup energy sources are needed
d)
It must be collected from a huge area
99.
The intense heat from Earth’s interior that warms the magma beneath Earth’s surface is called
a)
hydrogen power
b)
tidal energy
c)
geothermal energy
d)
solar energy
100.
What is the most widely used source of
renewable energy in the world today?
a)
hydro power
b)
solar power
c)
biomass fuels
d)
tidal power