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Biochemistry Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In 1953, Urey and Miller carried out an experiment in which they subjected a mixture of H2O, CH4, NH3, and H2 to electrical discharges. Which of the following were among the products?

a)

proteins

b)

amino acids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

ribosomes

e)

all of the above

2.

Which arrow points at a phosphate ester bond?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

3.

Which arrow points at a glycosidic bond?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

4.

A reaction with a ______ ΔH and a ______ ΔS will never be spontaneous.

a)

positive, positive

b)

positive, negative

c)

negative, positive

d)

negative, negative

e)

none of the above

5.

A spontaneous process

a)

occurs without the addition of free energy.

b)

has a ΔG<0.

c)

is exergonic

d)

is all of the above

e)

is none of the above

6.

Enzymes accelerate biochemical reactions by

a)

decreasing the ΔG for the reactions.

b)

increasing the ΔG for the reactions.

c)

establishing a ‘closed system’ for each reaction.

d)

promoting reaction pathways associated with a positive ΔG.

e)

providing a more favorable pathway for the reactions.

7.

The strongest noncovalent interactions are

a)

ionic interactions.

b)

hydrogen bonds.

c)

dipole-dipole interactions.

d)

London dispersion forces.

e)

van der Waals forces.

8.

Urea is a water-soluble product of nitrogen metabolism. How many hydrogen bonds can one urea molecule donate to surrounding water molecules?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

e)

6

9.

Amphiphilic molecules

a)

have both oxidizing and reducing groups.

b)

are micelles.

c)

have chromophores in two different wavelength regions.

d)

have both acidic and basic groups.

e)

have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic groups.

10.

Which of the following is the best explanation for the hydrophobic effect?

a)

It is caused by an affinity of hydrophobic groups for each other.

b)

It is caused by the affinity of water for hydrophobic groups.

c)

It is an entropic effect, caused by the desire of water molecules to increase their entropy by forming highly ordered structures around the hydrophobic groups.

d)

It is an entropic effect, caused by the desire of water molecules to increase their entropy by excluding hydrophobic groups, which they must otherwise surround with highly ordered structures.

e)

It is an entropic effect caused by the desire of hydrophobic groups to increase their entropy by associating with other hydrophobic groups.

11.

The capacity of a buffer to resist changes in pH upon addition of protons or hydroxide ions depends on

a)

the pKa of the weak acid in the buffer.

b)

the pH of the buffer.

c)

the total concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate base in the buffer.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

12.

What group is attached to the pyrimidine ring in thymine and is not present in uracil?

a)

ribose

b)

—CH3

c)

—NH2

d)

deoxyribose

e)

none of the above

13.

By convention, the sequence of nucleotide residues in a nucleic acid is written ___________ starting with the ____ end.

a)

left to right; 3'

b)

right to left; 3'

c)

left to right; 5'

d)

right to left; 3'

e)

top to bottom; 3'

14.

Chargaff’s rules state that:

a)

The amount of guanine plus cytosine in mammalian genomes varies from about 39 to 46%.

b)

DNA is always double stranded and RNA is always single stranded.

c)

DNA contains two grooves, a major groove and a minor groove.

d)

In DNA the number of adenine residues is identical to the number of thymine residues and the number of guanine residues is identical to the number of cytosine residues.

e)

DNA contains two strands that run in opposite directions.

15.

Knowledge about the tautomeric forms of the bases of nucleic acids is needed

a)

to understand H-bonding between the complementary bases

b)

to understand how the bases are linked to ribose.

c)

to understand how bases are linked to deoxyribose.

d)

to understand the ability of nucleotides to act as energy carriers.

e)

to distinguish the 5’-end of a DNA strand from the 3’-end.

16.

Nucleotides in a DNA molecule are linked together through

a)

glycosidic bonds.

b)

amide linkages.

c)

hydrogen bonds.

d)

phosphoanhydride bonds.

e)

phosphodiester bonds.

17.

Genomic DNA is ______, resulting in the production of _________.

a)

transcribed; mRNA

b)

translated; tRNA

c)

transcribed; protein

d)

translated; protein

e)

translated; rRNA

18.

Small circular DNA molecules used to carry foreign DNA fragments are called ________.

a)

mRNAs

b)

bacteriophage

c)

clones

d)

plasmids

e)

nucleotides

19.

About half of the 20 amino acids are called essential because

a)

they are essential for the synthesis of pyrimidines.

b)

they are essential for the synthesis of purines.

c)

they are essential for nitrogen metabolism.

d)

our bodies need them for protein synthesis.

e)

our bodies cannot synthesize them and therefore they need to be present in our diet.

20.

Which amino acid does not have a primary α-amino group?

a)

glutamine

b)

arginine

c)

lysine

d)

proline

e)

glutamate

21.

Zwitterions are

a)

amino acids.

b)

ionic molecules that are racemic.

c)

ions that bear both negatively and positively charged groups.

d)

side chain carboxylate anions.

e)

delocalized ions.

22.

Which of the following amino acids has a charged polar side chain at pH 7.0?

a)

Leu

b)

Ala

c)

Met

d)

Trp

e)

Glu

23.

Which of the following amino acids has a sulfur atom in its side chain?

a)

Asn

b)

Ser

c)

Phe

d)

Met

e)

Tyr

24.

The disulfide bond between two cysteine molecules

a)

is a peptide bond.

b)

is an ionic interaction that is stable at physiological pH.

c)

is a covalent bond formed by oxidation.

d)

is a hydrogen bond between the two sulfhydryl groups.

e)

is a dipole-dipole interaction.

25.

The isoelectronic point of an amino acid is the point where

a)

the pKa of the α-carboxylic acid is the same as the pKa of the α-amino group.

b)

the α-carboxylic acid is protonated and the α-amino group is unprotonated.

c)

the solubility of the amino acid is maximized.

d)

the α-carboxylic acid and the α-amino group are both half protonated.

e)

the amino acid carries no net electrical charge.

26.

The peptide AYDG has an N-terminal _________ residue.

a)

glycine

b)

glutamic acid

c)

glutamine

d)

aspartic acid

e)

alanine

27.

Ribosomes use L amino acids to synthesize proteins. These amino acids are called “L” because

a)

they are chiral.

b)

they turn polarized light to the left.

c)

they have a configuration of groups around the Cα that can be related to the configuration of groups around the asymmetric carbon in L-glyceraldehyde.

d)

they are all (S)-amino acids.

e)

they are all (R)-amino acids.

28.

Typically, modified amino acids, those with side chain modifications that are present in proteins,

a)

are synthesized due to genetic mutations.

b)

are assembled by specialized bacterial enzymes.

c)

are formed by modification of standard side chain residues after the protein is synthesized.

d)

are toxic.

e)

are racemic.

29.

Which of the following has the most dramatic influence on the characteristics of an individual protein?

a)

the amino-acid sequence

b)

the amino-acid composition

c)

the location of its encoding gene within the genome

d)

the stereochemistry at the a-carbon

e)

the sequence of tRNA molecules involved in its translation

30.

Which physical characteristic is not commonly used in protein separation?

a)

solubility

b)

stereochemistry

c)

size

d)

charge

e)

polarity

31.

Adding additional salt to a protein solution can cause:

a)

an increase in solubility called ‘salting in’.

b)

a decrease in solubility called ‘salting out’.

c)

protein precipitation from solution.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

32.

You are trying to separate five proteins, which are listed below, by gel filtration chromatography. Which of the proteins will elute first from the column?

a)

cytochrome c (12 kDa)

b)

RNA polymerase (99 kDa)

c)

glutamine synthetase (621 kDa)

d)

interferon-γ (34 kDa)

e)

hemoglobin (62 kDa)

33.

SDS-PAGE separates proteins primarily due to differences in

a)

isoelectric point.

b)

mass.

c)

polarity.

d)

solubility.

e)

amino acid sequence.

34.

In two homologous proteins, which residue is most likely to replace a Glu residue as a conservative substitution?

a)

Asp

b)

Trp

c)

Met

d)

Ile

e)

Lys

35.

In a protein, the most conformationally restricted amino acid is ______; the least conformationally restricted is ______.

a)

Trp, Gly

b)

Met, Cys

c)

Pro, Gly

d)

Ile, Ala

e)

Ala, Pro

36.

Which one of these characteristics is not true for the α helix?

a)

There are 3.6 amino acids per turn.

b)

There is a requirement for glycine every third amino acid residue.

c)

A hydrogen bond forms between the carbonyl oxygen of the nth amino acid residue and the -NH group of the (n + 4)th amino acid residue.

d)

Proline is typically not found in the α helix.

e)

It is right-handed.

37.

Which of these characteristics does not describe the β sheet?

a)

Amino acid side chains are located both above and below the sheet.

b)

β sheets have a pleated edge-on appearance.

c)

They can exist in either parallel or antiparallel configurations.

d)

The sheets contain as few as two and as many as 22 polypeptide chains.

e)

Parallel β sheets containing fewer than five chains are the most common.

38.

Which of the following amino acids combinations have side chains with groups that have the greatest ability to stabilize the tertiary structure of a protein?

a)

Lys and Arg

b)

Cys and Glu

c)

Glu and Lys

d)

Gln and Glu

e)

Pro and Asp

39.

Which of the following occurs first when folding a disordered polypeptide chain into a stable protein formation?

a)

formation of a low energy state

b)

association of ordered subunits

c)

aggregation of hydrophobic regions in the protein

d)

tertiary structure refinement

e)

formation of a low entropy state

40.

In general molecular chaperone proteins function by

a)

mediating disulfide bond formation.

b)

synthesizing new proteins when one is misfolded.

c)

preventing premature folding by binding hydrophobic regions of the protein.

d)

enhancing salt bridge formation.

e)

none of the above

41.

Proteins can denature due to a change in

a)

pH

b)

temperature

c)

ionic strength

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

42.

Which structure shown in the figure above is a ketohexose?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

none of the above

43.

Alcohols react with aldehydes to form

a)

hemiketals.

b)

lactones.

c)

lactams.

d)

glycosides.

e)

hemiacetals.

44.

A saccharide that has free aldehyde group is called a(n) _____________.

a)

ketose

b)

nonreducing sugar

c)

reducing sugar

d)

aldohexose

e)

alditol

45.

Which of these polysaccharides is a branched polymer?

a)

chitin

b)

amylose

c)

cellulose

d)

amylopectin

e)

hyaluronic acid

46.

Glycoproteins

a)

are only found in bacteria.

b)

are extremely homogeneous.

c)

are typically less than 1% carbohydrate by weight.

d)

are assembled under strict genetic control.

e)

exhibit microheterogeneity.

47.

N-linked oligosaccharides can be covalently linked to proteins at which amino acid?

a)

Gly

b)

Ser

c)

Glu

d)

Tyr

e)

Asn

48.

Which of the following lipid types is the least polar?

a)

triacylglycerols

b)

glycerophospholipids

c)

sphingolipids

d)

gangliosides

e)

glycolipids

49.

Cholesterol

a)

incorporation into the membrane results in increased rigidity.

b)

functions as a precursor to cerebrosides.

c)

is synthesized in two-carbon units.

d)

is synthesized from steroid hormones.

e)

all of the above

50.

Unsaturated fatty acids:

a)

are commonly found in plants and animals

b)

usually contain a double bond with cis stereochemistry

c)

sometimes contain multiple double bonds

d)

have lower melting points than the analogous saturated fatty acids

e)

all of the above

51.

Which of the following is comprised primarily of fatty acids and other single tailed amphiphiles?

a)

lipid bilayers

b)

two-dimensional membranes

c)

liposomes

d)

micelles

e)

solvent-filled vesicles

52.

The _________ model describes the cell membrane as an assortment of integral proteins suspended freely in a lipid bilayer.

a)

FRAP

b)

cellular fusion

c)

transverse diffusion

d)

lateral diffusion

e)

fluid mosaic

53.

Glycosphingolipids with several attached carbohydrates (including at least one sialic acid) are called:

a)

plasmalogens

b)

ceramides

c)

sphingosides

d)

gangliosides

e)

cerebrosides

54.

Which of the structures above is an example of an ω-3 polyunsaturated fatty acid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

none of the above

55.

Coated vesicles are used to ensure that the enclosed protein maintains its proper orientation. Clathrin is one type of protein used to coat vesicles. Which of the following is true regarding clathrin vesicles?

a)

They transport proteins between successive components of the Golgi compartments.

b)

They transport transmembrane proteins and GPI-linked proteins from the Golgi to the plasma membrane.

c)

They transport proteins from the ER to the Golgi.

d)

They form a rigid complex capable of protecting protein structure and orientation as it is passed from hydrophobic to hydrophilic environments.

e)

None of the above.

56.

A pore that simultaneously transports two different molecules in different directions is called

a)

a symport.

b)

a uniport.

c)

a gap junction.

d)

an equilibrium channel.

e)

an antiport.

57.

Based on the diagram above, which of the following statements is TRUE?

a)

F requires ATP directly

b)

B is an example of symport

c)

B is gradient driven

d)

B requires ATP directly

e)

none of the above are true

58.

Which of these amino acid groups would not make a good nucleophilic catalyst?

a)

amino

b)

sulfhydryl

c)

imidazole

d)

methyl

e)

hydroxyl

59.

Which of the following is TRUE about enzymes?

I. Enzymes typically catalyze reactions at much higher rates than chemical catalyst.

II. Enzymes are often very specific for their substrates.

III. Enzyme activities can often be regulated.

IV. Enzymes typically act under milder conditions of temperature and pH than chemical catalysts.

a)

I, II, III

b)

I, II, III, IV

c)

II, II

d)

III, IV

e)

II, III, IV

60.

Proton transfer from an acid, lowering the free energy of a reaction’s transition state, is characteristic of

a)

electrostatic catalysis.

b)

nucleophilic catalysis.

c)

general base catalysis.

d)

general acid catalysis.

e)

concerted acid-base catalysis.

61.

Which of the following processes would yield and increase in rate?

a)

the proximity of the reacting groups

b)

the rotational motions of the substrates and catalytic groups

c)

the orientations of the substrates and catalytic groups

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

62.

The transition state of an enzyme and substrate reaction

a)

must always bind the enzyme active site with lower energy than the products.

b)

is stabilized by enhancing the reverse reaction of E + S→ES.

c)

is composed of true covalent bonds which decrease its energy.

d)

is stabilized due to the specificity of the active site for the substrate.

e)

is stabilized by decreasing the effective concentration.

63.

Research scientists are trying to clone a gene. In order to accomplish this task they join two pieces of DNA. Which class of the enzymes below might accomplish this task?

a)

oxidoreductase

b)

ligase

c)

hydrolase

d)

isomerase

e)

lyase

64.

The enzyme pictured above is shown in two configurations, A (open) and B (closed). Upon binding substrate in the active site, the enzyme converts the structure shown in B. Which of the following is true based on the given information?

a)

The enzyme requires a high concentration of substrate to function.

b)

This example exemplifies the “lock-and-key” model.

c)

This enzyme must require ATP.

d)

This example exemplifies the of “induced fit” model.

e)

None of these are true.

65.

For a reaction A + B → C, if the concentration of B is much larger than A so that [B] remains constant during the reaction while [A] is varied, the kinetics will be

a)

sigmoidal.

b)

pseudo-first-order.

c)

unimolecular.

d)

zero-order.

e)

hyperbolic.

66.

KM is

a)

a measure of the catalytic efficiency of the enzyme.

b)

equal to half of Vmax.

c)

the rate constant for the reaction ES → E + P.

d)

the [S] that half-saturates the enzyme.

e)

a ratio of substrate concentration relative to catalytic power.

67.

An enzyme is near maximum efficiency when

a)

its turnover number is near Vmax.

b)

kcat/KM is near 108 M-1s-1.

c)

k1 << k-1.

d)

kcat/KM is equal to kcat.

e)

KM is large when k2 exceeds k1.

68.

A compound that distorts the active site, rendering the enzyme catalytically inactive is called

a)

a uncompetitive inhibitor.

b)

an allosteric effector.

c)

an inactivator.

d)

a competitive inhibitor.

e)

none of the above

69.

Allosteric activators

a)

bind via covalent attachment.

b)

stabilize conformations with higher Ks.

c)

stabilize conformations with higher substrate affinity.

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

70.

From the graph above plotting data that was collected under steady state conditions, velocity on the y-axis in units of μM/s and substrate concentration of the x-axis in units of μM, what is the KM?

a)

0.24 μM/s

b)

18 μM

c)

0.2 μM

d)

0.24 μM

e)

0.12 μM/s