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Chapter 6 A&P I

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The hard, dense structural connective tissue that provides structural support is known as

a)

bone

b)

cartilage

c)

areolar tissue

d)

dense regular connective tissue

2.

The semi-rigid structural connective tissue that provides flexibility and facilitates movement is known as

a)

bone

b)

cartilage

c)

areolar tissue

d)

dense regular connective tissue

3.

Match the following functions of the skeletal system:

a)

individual/groups of bones provide framework for the attachment of soft tissues and organs

1.

structural support

b)

work as levers allowing for delicate motion to powerful changes

2.

facilitates movement

c)

delicate tissues and organs are surrounded by skeletal elements

3.

protection

d)

hematopoiesis

4.

produces blood cells

e)

stores calcium, phosphate, fats, etc.

5.

storage of minerals

4.

Match the following features to the bone classification that it describes:

a)

cylinder-like shape; longer than it is wide

1.

long

b)

cube-like shape; equal in length, width, and thickness

2.

short

c)

thin and curved

3.

flat

d)

complex shape

4.

irregular

e)

small and rounded

5.

sesamoid

5.

The humerus, tibia, fibula. metacarpal, and phalanges are all classfied as

a)

long

b)

short

c)

flat

d)

irregular

e)

sesamoid

6.

The carpals and tarsals are classfied as

a)

long

b)

short

c)

flat

d)

irregular

e)

sesamoid

7.

The sternum, skull, and floating ribs are classfied as

a)

long

b)

short

c)

flat

d)

irregular

e)

sesamoid

8.

The vertebrae and pelvic bones are classfied as

a)

long

b)

short

c)

flat

d)

irregular

e)

sesamoid

9.

The patella is classfied as

a)

long

b)

short

c)

flat

d)

irregular

e)

sesamoid

10.

Match the following bone markings

a)

where two bones meet

1.

articulation

b)

prominent rounded surface

2.

head

c)

flat surface

3.

facet

d)

rounded surface

4.

condyle

11.

Match the following bone markings

a)

raised markings

1.

projections

b)

protruding

2.

protuberance

c)

prominence feature

3.

process

d)

sharp process

4.

spine

e)

small, rounded process

5.

tubercle

12.

Match the following bone markings

a)

rough surface

1.

tuberosity

b)

slight, elongated ridge

2.

line

c)

ridge

3.

crest

13.

Match the following bone markings

a)

elongated basin

1.

fossa

b)

small pit

2.

fovea

c)

groove

3.

sulcus

d)

holes and depressions

4.

holes

e)

hole through bone

5.

formaen

14.

Match the following bone markings

a)

passage in bone

1.

canal

b)

slit through bone

2.

fissure

c)

hole through bone

3.

foramen

d)

opening into canal

4.

meatus

e)

air-filled space in bone

5.

sinus

15.

The shaft of a bone that is mainly compact bone is the

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

metaphysis

d)

medullary cavity

16.

The wide part at each end of the bone that articulates with other bones is the

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

metaphysis

d)

medullary cavity

17.

The part of the bone that connects the shaft to the wide part of the bone is known as the

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

metaphysis

d)

medullary cavity

18.

The central space of the shaft that contains yellow bone marrow is the

a)

articular cartilage

b)

medullary cavity

c)

epiphyseal plate/line

d)

nutrient foramen

19.

Which of the following prevents damage from bone-to-bone contact and absorbs shock?

a)

articular cartilage

b)

medullary cavity

c)

epiphyseal plate/line

d)

nutrient foramen

20.

The opening in the diaphysis where blood vessels enter is the

a)

articular cartilage

b)

medullary cavity

c)

epiphyseal plate/line

d)

nutrient foramen

21.

Which of the following is a layer of hyaline cartilage in growing bone that becomes ossified at adulthood?

a)

articular cartilage

b)

medullary cavity

c)

epiphyseal plate/line

d)

nutrient foramen

22.

Which of the following wraps the superficial layer of compact bone?

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

medullary cavity

d)

metaosteum

23.

Which of the following is the incomplete cellular layer lining the medullary cavity

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

medullary cavity

d)

metaosteum

24.

Which of the following is FALSE?

a)

contains two layers: fibrous outer layer and cellular inner layer

b)

functions to isolate bone from surrounding tissues, route for blood and nerve supply, and participates in bone growth and repair

c)

allows for a very strong attachment that allows for excessive force

d)

osteogenic cells form the cellular layer

25.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning the endosteum?

a)

active during bone growth, repair, and remodeling

b)

simple layer of osteogenic cells that covers spongy bone and lines central canals

c)

contains osteoclastic crypts

d)

where layer is incomplete, exposed matrix is remodeled by osteoclasts and osteoblasts

e)

all of these are true

26.

The unmineralized, organic matter made of collagen fibers and mucopolysaccharide is known as the

a)

osteoid matrix

b)

hydroxyapatite

c)

compact bone

d)

spongy bone

27.

The "bone salts" that give bones their hardness is known as

a)

osteoid matrix

b)

hydroxyapatite

c)

compact bone

d)

spongy bone

28.

Match the following type of bone cell with its description:

a)

secretes osteoid

1.

osteoblasts

b)

dissolves bone matrix to release stored minerals (resorbs bone)

2.

osteoclasts

c)

mitotically active bone stem cell

3.

osteogenic

d)

mature bone cells that maintain mineral concentration of the matrix

4.

osteocytes

29.

To maintain homeostasis bone building is completed by ​ (a)   and bone recycling is completed by ​ (b)   and these are balanced processes.

Choose from the below words
osteoclasts
osteoblasts
osteogenic
osteocytes
30.

​ (a)   bone withstands forces in multiple directions. ​ (b)   bone withstands compressive and torsion forces.

Choose from the below words
Compact
Spongy
31.

Match the following structures associated with compact bone:

a)

basic functional unit of bone

1.

osteon

b)

rings that surround the central canal

2.

concentric lamellae

c)

lamellae wrapped around long bone that bind osteons together

3.

circumferential lamellae

d)

fills the spaces between osteons

4.

interstitial lamellae

32.

Match the following structures associated with compact bone:

a)

contain blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves

1.

central canals

b)

horizontal passageways that connect the central canals of adjacent osteons

2.

perforating canals

c)

open spaces in the bone matrix where the osteocytes are located at the borders of lamellae

3.

lacunae

d)

small channels that connect the central canal to the lacunae

4.

canaliculi

e)

functional unit of compact bone

5.

osteon

33.

The layer of spongy bone sandwiched between the two compact bone layers of the skull is known as

a)

diploe

b)

canaliculi

c)

lamellae

d)

osteon

e)

trabeculae

34.

Which of the following is FLASE concerning spongy bone?

a)

osteocytes are not not arranged in osteons

b)

lamellae form trabeculae to reduce weight and contribute to strength

c)

trabeculae are very vascular

d)

red bone marrow is between trabeculae

e)

yellow bone marrow is for fat storage

35.

Which of the following is NOT a way that mature bones receive blood supply?

a)

nutrient artery and vein that enters the diaphysis

b)

the metaphyseal vessels feed the epiphyseal cartilage

c)

the periosteal vessels supply blood to the superficial osteons

d)

the endosteal vessels that feed the circumferential lamellae

36.

Match the following terms about bone development

a)

bone formation around weeks 6 and 7

1.

osteogenesis

b)

process of replacing other tissues with bone tissue

2.

ossification

c)

process of depositing calcium salts into the bone matrix

3.

calcification

37.

Which of the following are methods of ossification?

a)

endochondral ossification

b)

intramembranous ossification

c)

intermembranous ossification

d)

perichondral ossification

38.

Reorder the following stages of intramembranous ossification:

a)

mesenchymal cells become capillaries and osteogenic cells, then osteoblasts; osteoblasts cluster into ossification center

b)

osteoblasts secrete osteoid which calcifies; osteoblasts become osteocytes; osteogenic cells make more cells

c)

osteoid is secreted around newly formed capillaries, creating trabecular matrix; periosteum forms at the surface of spongy bone

d)

osteoblasts form a layer of compact bone superficial to spongy bone; capillaries crowd in trabeculae that becomes red bone marrow

1)
2)
3)
4)
39.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning intramembranous ossification?

a)

begins around 8th week of embryonic development

b)

bone forms with mesenchymal or fibrous connective tissue

c)

produces flat and dermal bones

d)

produces bones that are fully ossified at birth

40.

Which of these is NOT a bone that is produced from intramembranous ossification?

a)

skull bones

b)

ribs

c)

sternum

d)

clavicle

e)

vertebrate

41.

The skull and clavicle are not fully ossified at birth, and continue to ossify throughout adolescence.

a)

true

b)

false

42.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning endochondral ossification?

a)

begins at the 8th week of embryonic development

b)

ossifies bones that originates as hyaline cartilage

c)

used to form all bones except the cranial bones, facial bones, and clavicle

d)

hyaline cartilage template is formed from mesenchyme that is covered with perichondrium

43.

Reorder the following stages of endochondral ossification:

a)

bone collar forms around the diaphysis of the hyaline cartilage model

b)

cartilage in the center of the diaphysis calcifies and then develops cavities

c)

the periosteal bud invades the internal cavities and spongy bone forms

d)

The diaphysis elongates and a medullary cavity forms. Secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses

e)

The epiphyses ossify. When completed, hyaline cartilage remains only in the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
44.

Longitudinal growth of bones occurs at the

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphyseal plate

c)

metaphysis

d)

medullary cavity

e)

epiphysis

45.

Longitudinal growth is hormone controlled.

a)

true

b)

false

46.

Which of the following can cause longitudinal growth in bones?

a)

growth spurt

b)

remodeling

c)

modeling

d)

ossification

47.

In early adulthood, chondrocytes stop dividing and cartilage ossifies and leaves a remnant known as the

a)

epiphyseal line

b)

epiphyseal plate

c)

epiphyseal remnant

d)

epiphyseal cartilage

48.

When bones grow in diameter it is known as?

a)

longitudinal growth

b)

appositional growth

c)

intramembranous growth

d)

endochondral growth

49.

During appositional growth the diameter of the diaphysis increases while the diameter of the medullary cavity decreases.

a)

true

b)

false

50.

When does appositional growth occur?

a)

growth

b)

formation of bones

c)

osteogenesis

d)

calcification

51.

When bone is removed from the medullary surface and new bone is deposited on the periosteal surface it is known as

a)

modeling

b)

remodeling

c)

fracture repair

d)

osteogenesis

52.

When old bone is resorbed and new bone is deposited on the same surface it is known as

a)

modeling

b)

remodeling

c)

fracture repair

d)

osteogenesis

53.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning appositional growth?

a)

osteoclasts resorb matrix at the inner surface to enlarge the medullary cavity

b)

deeper lamellae are recycled and replaced by osteons

c)

osteogenic cells differentiate into osteoclasts that produce new bone tissue underneath the periosteum

d)

new bone develops via intramembranous ossification

54.

Remodeling occurs due to mechanical stress like injuries or exercise.

a)

true

b)

false

55.

A crack or break in a bone is known as a

a)

fracture

b)

sprain

c)

strain

d)

dislocation

56.

Match the following terms associated with fractures:

a)

bone breaks cleanly but does not penetrate the skin

1.

simple

b)

broken ends of bone protrude through the tissue and skin

2.

compound

c)

break occurs perpendicular to the long axis of a bone

3.

transverse

d)

break occurs at an angle that is not 90°

4.

oblique

e)

breaks parallel to the long axis of the bone

5.

linear

57.

When the bone ends retain their position it is known as

a)

non-displaced

b)

displaced

c)

transverse

d)

oblique

e)

linear

58.

When the bone ends are out of normal alignment it is known as

a)

non-displaced

b)

displaced

c)

transverse

d)

oblique

e)

linear

59.

Match the following terms associated with displaced fractures

a)

bone segments are pulled apart as a result of a twisting motion

1.

spiral

b)

several breaks result in many small pieces between two large segments

2.

comminuted

c)

one fragment is driven into the other, usually as a result of compression

3.

impacted

d)

a partial fracture in which only one side of the bone is broken

4.

greenstick

60.

When manipulation of a fracture to return bone to its anatomical position is known as

a)

resetting

b)

remodeling

c)

modeling

d)

growth

61.

Fractures will only heal when bones have been set in the correct anatomical position.

a)

true

b)

false

62.

If resetting can be completed without surgery is is known as a ____________ reduction.

a)

closed

b)

open

c)

simple

d)

compound

63.

If resetting requires surgery is is known as a ____________ reduction.

a)

closed

b)

open

c)

simple

d)

compound

64.

Reorder the following steps of bone fracture repair

a)

hematoma formation

b)

fibrocartilaginous callus formation

c)

bony callus formation

d)

bone remodeling

1)
2)
3)
4)
65.

If calcium levels in the blood are low it is known as ​ (a)   . In this case, the ​ (b)   gland will release PTH. This hormone simulates ​ (c)   to breakdown and resorb bone, reabsorption of calcium by the​ (d)   , and vitamin ​ (e)   synthesis.

Choose from the below words
hypocalcemia
hypercalcemia
D
K
C
parathyroid
osteoclasts
osteoblasts
osteocytes
kidneys
66.

If calcium levels are high in the blood it is known as ​ (a)   . In this case, the ​ (b)   will release ​ (c)   . This hormone stimulates ​ (d)   and inhibits osteoclast activity. It also decreases reabsorption of calcium by the ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
kidneys
hypercalcemia
thyroid gland
calcitonin
osteoblasts
osteocytes
PTH
hypocalcemia
osteogenic
67.

Which of the following is the most abundant mineral in the human body?

a)

calcium

b)

magnesium

c)

fluoride

d)

vitamin D

e)

vitamin K

68.

Match the following hormones that affect the skeletal system

a)

increases length of long bones, enhances mineralization, and improves bone density

1.

growth hormone

b)

stimulates bone growth and promotes synthesis of bone matrix

2.

thyroxine

c)

stimulates absorption of calcium and phosphate from digestive tract

3.

calcitriol

d)

stimulates osteoclast proliferation and resorption of bone

4.

PTH

e)

inhibits osteoclast activity and stimulates calcium uptake by bones

5.

calcitonin

69.

__________________ is a condition whereby bone resorption outpaces bone deposition, causing a severe loss of bone density and resulting in brittle bones.

a)

osteoporosis

b)

achondroplasia

c)

acromegaly

d)

marfan syndrome

e)

Paget's disease

70.

__________________ is a genetic condition whereby the fibroblast growth factor receptor is affected causing short limbed dwarfism.

a)

osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

achondroplasia

c)

acromegaly

d)

marfan syndrome

e)

Paget's disease

71.

__________________ is a condition whereby the pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone causing enlargement of face, hands, and feet.

a)

osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

achondroplasia

c)

acromegaly

d)

marfan syndrome

e)

Paget's disease

72.

__________________ is a condition that affects connective tissue whereby individuals are tall and thin with long arms, legs, etc.

a)

osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva

c)

acromegaly

d)

marfan syndrome

e)

Paget's disease

73.

__________________ is a rare genetic disorder that causes the soft tissues to transform permanently into bone.

a)

osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva

c)

acromegaly

d)

marfan syndrome

e)

Paget's disease

74.

__________________ is a condition whereby the bone remodeling process is disrupted leading to abnormally large and weakened bones that are porous and curved.

a)

osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva

c)

acromegaly

d)

marfan syndrome

e)

Paget's disease

75.

__________________ is a condition whereby defective genes affect how the body makes collagen which can lead to weak bones and lots of fractures

a)

osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva

c)

acromegaly

d)

marfan syndrome

e)

Paget's disease

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