Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Case Studies Cases 1-3

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a type of shock?

a)

traumatic

b)

hypovolemic

c)

cariogenic

d)

neurogenic

2.

You see a burn that appears charred. The victim does not complain of much pain, but has a significant amount of swelling in the area. What degree burn does the victim have?

a)

3rd degree

b)

2nd degree

c)

1st degree

d)

it is not a burn, it is internal bleeding

3.

Blisters, popped or intact represent which severity of burn?

a)

2nd degree

b)

1st degree

c)

3rd degree

d)

4th degree

4.

Which layer of skin contains blood vessels and nerves?

a)

dermis

b)

epidermis

c)

hypodermis

d)

subcutaneous

5.

Which layer of the skin functions to attach the skin to the underlying structures?

a)

subcutaneous

b)

epidermis

c)

hypodermis

d)

endodermis

6.

The epidermis is only one layer thick

a)

false

b)

true

7.

The epidermis contains all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

blood vessels

b)

keratin

c)

melanin

8.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin

a)

support

b)

temperature regulation

c)

synthesis of vitamins

d)

receive stimulus

9.

If their are no nerves in the epidermis, why is a burn that only burns those layers still painful?

a)

when the superficial layers are injured, the deeper nerves are exposed

b)

inflammation stimulates the deeper nerves

c)

bleeding causes the nerves to be stimulated

d)

a superficial burn is not painful

10.

If someone were burned on the front of both legs, what percentage of the body would be burned?

a)

18%

b)

36%

c)

9%

d)

30%

11.

A person burned over the entire trunk, front and back of one arm and the face would be burned over what percentage of their body?

a)

40.5%

b)

36%

c)

22.5%

d)

50%

12.

A burn only affects the tissue that was damaged.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What other systems might be involved in the inflammatory responses for a burn patient? (Mark all that apply)

a)

Kidneys ability to filter and create urine

b)

the bodys ability to regulate temperature

c)

the senses ability to sense touch, pressure or pain in those areas burned

d)

the lungs ability to spontaneously fill with air

14.

What is a stem cell?

a)

a cell that can become any type of cell

b)

a premature skin cell

c)

a cell that has already served its purpose and is nearly dead

d)

a cell that does not serve a purpose in the body

15.

How might stem cells be used for burn healing?

a)

cells can be grown into skin cell to be used for grafting

b)

stem cells be placed in the blood stream to travel to the area

c)

stem cells are not a treatment option

d)

stem cells could be used to delay the inflammatory process

16.

How does administration of a lactated ringers solution help a burn patient?

a)

restores fluid loss, induces urine output and helps maintain pH

b)

replaces lost fluid only

c)

helps maintain pH of the blood only

d)

lactated ringers solution is not proven to help a burn patient.

17.

Why is core temperature elevated in a burn patient?

a)

the thermostat in the brain is literally turned up

b)

it will be lower, not elevated

c)

because of the chemicals released from the injury

d)

because the heart is beating faster, it causes the temperature to rise.

18.

What is a mechanical ventilator?

a)

a machine that will assist with breathing for a patient

b)

a machine that will help the patients heart to beat

c)

a machine that helps keep the airway open

d)

a machine that regulates the patients body temperature

19.

What type of diet is recommended for a patient with an NG tube?

a)

high protein, high CHO, low fat diet

b)

low calorie high protein diet

c)

high fat, high protein, low CHO diet

d)

low sodium, low fat, low protein, high CHO diet

20.

Without adequate nutritional support, how much weight might an adult patient lose with a surface burn of 40%

a)

25% of preadmission weight

b)

50% of preadmission weight

c)

10% of preadmission weight

d)

40% of preadmission weight

21.

When should feedings start for a burn patient?

a)

4-36 hours post injury

b)

within 12 hours of the injury

c)

within 24 hours of the injury

d)

at the patients discretion

22.

What does tachypenia mean?

a)

rapid breathing

b)

rapid heart rate

c)

swelling

d)

abnormal breath sounds

23.

What is edema?

a)

swelling

b)

abnormal breath sounds

c)

rapid breathing

d)

rapid heart rate

24.

What is the role of the physical therapist in this case?

a)

assist the patient to regain normal mobility

b)

stabilized the patient in her home prior to transport

c)

assisted the doctor in surgery

d)

repaired the damaged tissue with grafting

25.

The knee joint contains all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

malleolus

b)

femur

c)

patella

d)

tibia

26.

Which of the following best describes the location of the ACL in the knee?

a)

in the middle of the knee

b)

the medial side of the knee

c)

the front of the knee

d)

the lateral side of the knee

27.

Ligaments are connective tissue that function to:

a)

connect bone to bone

b)

connect muscle to bone

c)

connect cartilage to bone

d)

connect bursae to bone

28.

The function of the anterior cruciate ligament is:

a)

to prevent the tibia from moving forward

b)

to prevent side to side motion of the knee

c)

to prevent the tibia from moving backward

d)

to keep the patella in place

29.

If an athlete can talk to you, you know all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

how severe his pain is

b)

they are breathing

c)

they are conscious

d)

they have a pulse

30.

If an athlete does not respond to you when you first approach them, what is your care?

a)

call 911

b)

wait a few seconds to see if they become conscious, then determine severity of the injury

c)

move the athlete to the sidelines for further evaluation

d)

remove any gear that may be restricting breathing such as a helmet, face mask or head gear

31.

Before an athlete can be moved, you must determine which of the following? Mark all that apply

a)

the athlete has not sustained a fracture

b)

that the athlete is conscious

c)

the athlete can be moved safely

d)

the injury is stable

32.

Valgus refers to:

a)

moving the distal segment away from the midline

b)

moving the distal segment towards the midline

c)

moving the distal segment anteriorly

d)

moving the distal segment posteriorly

33.

Varus refers to:

a)

moving the distal segment towards the midline

b)

moving the distal segment away from the midline

c)

moving the distal segment anteriorly

d)

moving the distal segment posteriorly

34.

The lachman's test, the anterior drawer test and the pivot shift test all test:

a)

the severity of injury to a ligament

b)

to determine the presence of a fracture

c)

the degree of injury to a muscle

d)

the presence of a blood clot

35.

Hemarthrosis refers to:

a)

blood in the joint

b)

swelling in the joint

c)

a torn ligament in the joint

d)

the need for surgery in the joint

36.

Arthroscopic surgery requires:

a)

the insertion of a small probe for viewing the joint

b)

sedation by a surgical technician

c)

help to drain the swelling off the knee to allow for quicker healing

d)

the surgeon to repair the ligament

37.

An MRI shows: (Mark all that apply)

a)

injury to a bone

b)

injury to a ligament

c)

injury to cartilage

d)

injury to muscle

38.

Movements allowed by the knee include: (Mark all that apply)

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

abduction

d)

adduction

39.

Surgical repair options for the ACL include:

a)

allograft

b)

hamstring

c)

patellar tendon

d)

all of the choices are correct

40.

The professional responsible for keeping a patient sedated during surgery is:

a)

anesthesiologist

b)

surgical technician

c)

physician

d)

physical therapist

41.

The repaired ACL needs to be immobilized

a)

in a post operative brace

b)

in a cast

c)

in a functional brace

d)

in a sling

42.

Physical therapy includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

removing the stitches

b)

balance and proprioception

c)

strengthening

d)

stretching

43.

Electrical muscle stimulation functions to:

a)

cause hypertrophy

b)

cause atrophy

c)

cause healing

d)

cause scarring

44.

The role of the athletic trainer in the ACL injury is to:

a)

evaluate the injury initially, refer the athlete to a physician, ensure athlete returns only when rehab and proper clearance have been given

b)

ensure there is no fracture

c)

help the athlete select the appropriate method of surgical repair

d)

refer the patient to therapy following surgery

45.

The radiologist is responsible for:

a)

interpreting the MRI

b)

taking the MRI

c)

ordering the MRI

d)

Making sure the MRI is in the operating room

46.

An arthroscope might be used: (mark all that apply)

a)

to repair a ligament

b)

to drain fluid from the joint

c)

to repair the meniscus

d)

to view the joint

47.

The meniscus functions to:

a)

cushion the knee

b)

protect the knee

c)

lubricate the knee

d)

anchor the ligaments

48.

rehabilitation of an ACL repair will take

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

1 month

d)

18 months

49.

Demyelination of nerves in multiple sclerosis is caused by:

a)

Attack by the body's immune system with subsequent inflammation

b)

Bacterial toxins

c)

Elevated serum proteins

d)

Slowing of nerve impulses

50.

In the case study, Janet experiences symptoms of MS followed by periods of remission. This type of MS most closely resembles Primary Progressive MS.

a)

true

b)

false

51.

What part of the neuron that collects impulses and sends them to the cell body?

a)

dendrites

b)

axon

c)

terminal buds

d)

myelin

52.

Pick the list of symptoms most closely associated with Multiple Sclerosis.

a)

Impaired motor skills, fatigue, numbness and tingling of extremities

b)

Fatigue, numbness and tingling of extremities, unexplained weight gain.

c)

Fatigue, excessive urination, excessive thirst

d)

Visual disturbances, unexplained weight loss, bone pain

53.

Which 3 tests would be most helpful in diagnosing multiple sclerosis?

a)

Evoked potentials, lumbar puncture, MRI

b)

CT scan, serum protein levels, visual acuity

c)

CT scan, MRI scan, visual acuity

d)

Evoked potentials, CBC, serum protein levels

54.

A confirmatory blood test is now available to diagnose Multiple Sclerosis.

a)

true

b)

false

55.

Which treatment option for multiple sclerosis shortens the body's immune response against myelin?

a)

beta interferons

b)

Stem Cell transplant

c)

steroids

d)

surgery

56.

Which of the following professionals is a

Doctor that performs visual exam to assess problems with vision.

a)

Ophthalmologist

b)

neurologist

c)

home health aide

d)

radiologist

57.

Which of the following is a doctor specializing in the neurological system that diagnoses and treats patients with MS.

a)

neurologist

b)

ophthalmologist

c)

radiologist

d)

nephrologist

58.

Which of the following provides skilled nursing care for patients in the home.

a)

home health aide

b)

nurse

c)

medical assistant

d)

post op nurse

59.

What is visual field?

a)

total area seen by the eyes while fixed on a central point

b)

measuring to the smallest line possible on an eye chart

c)

the shape of the eye

d)

the rate at which the eye can perceive an object and the brain can interpret it

60.

What happens to the myelin sheath of the nerve with MS?

a)

the myelin sheath is attacked and destroyed

b)

the sheath is thickened

c)

the nodes of ranvier are filled with scar tissue

d)

the axon is weakened

61.

Why does MS occur?

a)

it is an autoimmune disease

b)

it is due to an infection

c)

it is due to a virus

d)

it is purely genetic in nature

62.

What functions may be affected by MS?

a)

vision, speech, walking, memory, writing

b)

only vision and sensation are affected

c)

only speech and vision are affected

d)

the first sign is loss of function of internal organs

63.

Which of the following is NOT a type of MS?

a)

continuous

b)

relapsing remitting

c)

progressive

d)

progressive remitting

64.

Which type of MS is most common?

a)

relapsing remitting

b)

progressive

c)

progressive remitting

d)

continuous

65.

What is the difference between primary progressive MS and relapsing remitting MS?

a)

primary progressive is continuous decline with short periods of relief and relapsing has long periods where there are no symptoms followed by an attack

b)

primary progressive is predicable

c)

primary progressive is sporadic in nature

d)

PP MS there is a gradual decline with short periods of relief

66.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of MS?

a)

difficulty breathing

b)

vision disturbances

c)

tingling and numbness

d)

muscle weakness

67.

What type of rays are used with a CT scan?

a)

x-rays

b)

magnetic rays

c)

electrical waves

d)

Lumbar puncture

68.

How does MRI differ from CT scans?

a)

MRI uses magnetic waves and shows more detail

b)

CT uses x rays and shows more detail

c)

MRI uses xrays and shows more detail

d)

CT uses xrays and shows more detail

69.

What is lumbar puncture?

a)

insertion of a needle into the spinal canal to remove fluid for evaluation

b)

MRI of the lower back region

c)

CT of the lower back region

d)

use of a needle to evaluate the lunbar region

70.

What causes the plaques seen in MS?

a)

scar tissue

b)

myelin

c)

inflammation

d)

calcium deposits

71.

What is the function of steroids in MS treatment?

a)

control inflammation

b)

prevent myelin loss

c)

decrease pain

d)

increase muscle strength

72.

What is the function of the beta interferrons in MS treatment?

a)

prevent additional myelin destruction

b)

control inflammation

c)

improve muscle strength

d)

enhance the creation of myelin

73.

What is the function of an evoked potential test?

a)

evaluate the speed of nerve transmission

b)

determine the thickness of myelin

c)

determine visual acuity

d)

determine visual field

74.

A person who has continuous loss of sensation in hands and feet may be showing signs of which type of MS?

a)

primary progressive

b)

relapsing remitting

c)

secondary progressive

d)

continuous

75.

the cure for MS includes:

a)

there is no cure for MS

b)

CSF transplant

c)

stem cell injections

d)

beta interferron injections

76.

The myelin that is destroyed in MS is on the:

a)

axon

b)

cell body

c)

dendrites

d)

synapses

77.

MS usually affects people:

a)

randomly

b)

at birth

c)

when they are chronically ill

d)

who have had a previous history of migraines

78.

Visual acuity tests examine for:

a)

sharpness of vision

b)

the amount that can be seen when vision is fixed on a central point

c)

the ability of vision to recover after quick movements

d)

the rate vision is interpreted