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WorksheetsMedChem Ex1
Total questions: 75
Worksheet time: 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What genetic replication mechanism does HIV utilize to have such a compact sequence?
a)
Frameshifting
b)
Missense
c)
Duplication
d)
Splicing
2.
What are the relevant outer lipid bilayer protein(s) in HIV?
a)
gp120 (SU)
b)
gp41 (TM)
c)
p17 (MA)
d)
p24 (CA)
3.
What are the relevant inner lipid bilayer protein(s) in HIV?
a)
p17 (MA)
b)
p6 (NC)
c)
p7 (NC)
d)
p11 (PR)
4.
What are the relevant conical capsid protein(s) in HIV?
a)
p24 (CA)
b)
Nef
c)
Vif
d)
p6/p7 (NC)
5.
What are the relevant capsid interior protein(s) in HIV?
a)
p6/p7 (NC)
b)
p11 (PR)
c)
p51 (RT)
d)
p15 (RNaseH)
e)
p31 (IN)
6.
What are the regulatory proteins found in the HIV viral particle?
a)
Nef
b)
Vif
c)
Vpr
d)
p24 (CA)
7.
What are the regulatory proteins NOT included in the HIV viral particle?
a)
Tat
b)
Rev
c)
Vpu
d)
Nef
e)
Vpr
8.
What is the role of Nef?
a)
Altering T-Cell signaling & growth
b)
CD4 downregulation & expression
c)
Nuclear entry
d)
Reverse transcriptase
9.
What is the role of Vif?
a)
Inh. Antiviral defense protein
b)
RT facilitation
c)
Viral maturation
d)
CD4 Downregulation
10.
What is the role of Vpr?
a)
Nuclear entry of PIC
b)
Modulation of cell transcription
c)
Splicing transport
d)
CD4 Degradation
11.
What is the role of the Tat/TAR complex?
a)
Enhancing HIV gene expression
b)
Cellular machinery recruitment
c)
Particle release
d)
Rev binding
12.
What is the role of Rev?
a)
HIV RNA transport to cytoplasm
b)
Enhancing HIV gene expression
c)
Binding to Tat
d)
RT activation
13.
Which viral RNA sequence binds to Rev and is essential?
a)
RRE
b)
TAR
c)
VPU
d)
Vif
14.
What is the role of Vpu?
a)
Enhancing release of viral particles
b)
CD4 degradation
c)
Nuclear entry
d)
Altering T-Cell signaling
15.
Stavudine is an example of…
a)
Nucleoside analog
b)
Nucleotide analog
c)
NNRT
d)
Protease Inhibitor
16.
Efavirenz is an example of…
a)
NNRT
b)
Nucleoside analog
c)
Nucleotide Analog
d)
Protease Inhibitor
17.
Complera is a combination of…
a)
rilpivirine (NNRT)
b)
tenofivir (NRT)
c)
emtricitabine (NRT)
d)
abacavir (NRT)
18.
Striblid is a combination of…
a)
elvitegravir (IN)
b)
cobicistat (CYP)
c)
tenofivir (NRT)
d)
emtricitabine (NRT)
19.
Triumeq is a combination of...
a)
dolutegravir (IN)
b)
abacavir (NRT)
c)
lamivudine (NRT)
d)
emtricitabine (NRT)
20.
When using rational drug design to create an antiretroviral, one needs to…
a)
Base design on known peptide substrate
b)
Attempt to mimic the transition state
c)
Minimize amide bonds
d)
Minimize the MW
e)
Enhance binding according to 3D active site structure
21.
The strongest type of binding
a)
Covalent
b)
Ionic
c)
Dipole-Dipole
d)
VdW
22.
The binding based on permanent charge interactions
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
c)
Dipole-Dipole
d)
VdW
23.
The binding based on both permanent charges and dipoles
a)
Ion-Dipole
b)
Dipole-Dipole
c)
Covalent
d)
Ionic
24.
H-Bonding is an example of…
a)
Dipole-Dipole
b)
Ionic
c)
Ion-Dipole
d)
VdW
25.
Dipole-Dipole binding requires…
a)
An assymmetrical molecule
b)
A strong charge
c)
Covalent interactions
d)
Friends
26.
London Dispersion forces require
a)
Transient and unequal distribution of electron density
b)
Nonpolar molecules interacting through VdW
c)
A slow shifting/settling of molecular interactions
d)
An actual understanding of chemistry so that you can generate 4 questions
27.
Hydrophobic interactions are a direct interaction between functional groups
a)
Yes
b)
Nah
28.
Enantiomers are…
a)
A chiral molecule and its' mirror image
b)
Two superposable molecules
c)
Stereoisomers which are not chirally related
d)
Substantially different in both chemical and physical properties
29.
The Easson-stedman principle is also known as
a)
Three-point binding
b)
Enantiomeric convalescence
c)
Quaternarmy ammonium
d)
Superposable hydroxylation
30.
Asymmetric Synthesis requires…
a)
A chiral catalyst to direction formation of the desired enantiomer
b)
Two similar molecules but are asymmetric
c)
Filtering out the undesired enantiomer
d)
Money
31.
What is the theoretical yield of Enzymatic Resolution?
a)
1
b)
0.75
c)
0.5
d)
0.25
e)
1-100%
32.
Select the acidic functional groups
a)
Carboxylic Acid
b)
2ndary Alcohol
c)
Phenol
d)
Tetrazole
e)
Tertiary Amine
33.
Select the basic functional groups
a)
Primary amine
b)
Quarternary ammonium
c)
Pyridine
d)
Pyrrole
e)
Imidazole
34.
What is the pKa of a Carboxylic Acid?
a)
5
b)
10
c)
7
d)
8
35.
What is the pKa of a Phenol?
a)
10
b)
5
c)
8
d)
7
36.
What is the pKA of an Activated Amide?
a)
10
b)
5
c)
8
d)
7
37.
What is the pKa of a Tetrazole?
a)
5
b)
10
c)
7
d)
6
38.
What is the pKa of a Pyridine?
a)
5
b)
7
c)
6
d)
3
39.
What is the pKa of a 2ndary Amine?
a)
10
b)
8
c)
6
d)
3
40.
What is the pKa of a Primary/Tertiary amine?
a)
8
b)
10
c)
5
d)
6
41.
What is the pKa of an Aniline?
a)
5
b)
8
c)
6
d)
10
42.
A molecule only needs one ionizable functional group to be soluble?
a)
Yes
b)
No
43.
Permanently charged species are always soluble?
a)
Yes
b)
No
44.
Quaternary Ammoniums are always soluble?
a)
Yes
b)
No
45.
A competitive inhibitor binds to
a)
The activate site
b)
The enzyme
c)
The enzyme + substrate
46.
A noncompetitive inhibitor binds to
a)
The enzyme
b)
The enzyme + substrate
c)
The active site
47.
An uncompetitive inhibitor binds to
a)
The enzyme + substrate
b)
The enzyme
c)
The active site
48.
Activated ketones are…
a)
Slow, tight-binding inhibitors
b)
Affinity labeling agents
c)
Noncompetitive inhibitors
d)
Allosteric modulators
49.
Affinity labeling agents are…
a)
Irreversible
b)
Reversible
c)
Slow, tight-binding
d)
Useless
50.
Mechanism-based enzyme inactivators are…
a)
Irreversible
b)
Reversible
c)
Slow, tight-binding
d)
Noncompetitive
51.
A transition-state analog will bind tighter than a substrate analog
a)
true
b)
false
52.
An agonist..
a)
turns on the biological response
b)
turns off the biological response
c)
partially turns on the biological response
d)
lowers the basal receptor activity
53.
A partial agonist…
a)
partially turns on the biological response
b)
turns off the biological response
c)
turns on the biological response
d)
lowers the basal receptor activity
54.
An anatagonist…
a)
blocks biological response
b)
lowers the basal receptor activity
c)
turns on the biological response
d)
partially turns on the biological response
55.
IC50 is…
a)
[] required to inhibit biological processes by 50%
b)
[] required to induce 50% of maximal response
c)
[] required to kill 50% of a population
d)
[] required to see a toxic effect in 50%
56.
EC50 is...
a)
[] required to induce 50% of maximal response
b)
[] required to inhibit biological processes by 50%
c)
[] required to kill 50% of a population
d)
[] required to see a toxic effect in 50%
57.
LD50 is…
a)
[] required to kill 50% of a population
b)
[] required to inhibit biological processes by 50%
c)
[] required to induce 50% of maximal response
d)
[] required to see a toxic effect in 50%
58.
TD50 is…
a)
[] required to see a toxic effect in 50%
b)
[] required to kill 50% of a population
c)
[] required to inhibit biological processes by 50%
d)
[] required to kill 50% of a population
59.
A 'good drug' wants…
a)
Small IC50/EC50 and LargeLD50/TD50
b)
Large IC50/EC50 and Small LD50/TD50
60.
Therapeutic Index is defined as…
a)
LD50/EC50
b)
EC50/LD50
c)
TD50/LD50
d)
The 'feel-good' range
61.
A sulfanilamide has the following ideal traits…
a)
Para-amino to sulfonyl
b)
Unsubstituted anilino
c)
Monosubstituted N
62.
Common features of diuretics include…
a)
O-chloro substitutions
b)
R-groups with H-bonding substituents
c)
Three-point binding
d)
Low LD50
63.
Sulfanilamide Antidiabetics have…
a)
A para subtitution on the ring
b)
Either heterocyclic or acyclic N-subtituents
c)
Acidic NH
d)
Basic N
64.
What is the pharmacophore?
a)
The region that is essential for drug activity
b)
The database that drug companies use
c)
The collection of known chemicals
d)
It's one of the other 3
65.
What are isosteres?
a)
Functional groups with similar properties
b)
Functional groups with assimilar properties
c)
Like isomers
66.
Nicotinic AChr receptors are ionotropic, meaning they
a)
Are permeable to ions (e.g. Na+, K+, Cl-)
b)
Increase cardiac contractility
c)
Are activated by ions (e.g. Na+, K+, Cl-)
d)
Affect neurons over a long time frame
67.
Muscarinic AChr receptors are metabotropic, meaning they
a)
Affect neurons over a long time frame
b)
Are permeable to ions (e.g. Na+, K+, Cl-)
c)
Increase/Decrease metabolism
d)
Are GPCRs
68.
Carbachol is…
a)
Slowly hydrolyzed by AchE
b)
Non-selective for AChr receptors
c)
Used as eye drops
d)
Not hydrolyzed by AChE
69.
Bethanechol is…
a)
Not hydrolyzed by AChE
b)
Selective for muscarinic receptors
c)
Used for urinary retention
d)
Slowly hydrolyzed by AChE
70.
Physostigmine is…
a)
An indirect MAChR/NAChR agaonist
b)
A reversible AChE inhibitor
c)
Permeable to the BBB
d)
Not permeable to the BBB
71.
Neostigmine Bromide is…
a)
More effective on SM than Physostigmine
b)
Not capable of crossing the BBB
c)
Capable of crossing the BBB
d)
Natural
72.
Pyridostigmine Bromide is…
a)
Prophylaxis for the nerve agent Soman
b)
Synthetic
c)
Poorly absorbed in the gut due to permanent charge
d)
Capable of crossing the BBB
73.
Donepezil is…
a)
100% orally bioavailable
b)
Capable of crossing the BBB
c)
A treatment for Alzheimer's
d)
A competitive, reversible inhibitor of AChE
74.
Galantamine is..
a)
A competitive, reversible AChE inhibitor
b)
A treatment for Alzheimer's
c)
100% orally bioavailable
d)
Natural
75.
Rivastigmine is…
a)
A competitive, reversible AChE inhibitor
b)
100% orally bioavailable
c)
A treatment for Alzheimer's
d)
The first approved treatment for Parkinson's
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