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Unit 5 Exam Review (CED Unit 7)

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Undersea landslides can disrupt marine habitats by burying organisms that live on the ocean floor. The graph above shows the size of a population of a certain organism that lives on the ocean floor. The population was affected by a recent landslide at the time indicated on the graph. Which of the following best predicts how the population will be affected by the landslide?

a)

The surviving organisms will evolve into a new species.

b)

The reduced population will likely have allelic frequencies that are different from the initial population.

c)

The population will adapt to deeper waters to avoid future landslides.

d)

The reduced population will have a greater number of different genes than the initial population.

2.

Data regarding the presence (+) or absence (-) of five derived traits in several different species are shown in the table below.


Which of the following cladograms provides the simplest and most accurate representation of the data in the table?

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.

The divergence between the two populations of Rhagoletis must have occurred very rapidly because

a)

the apple tree was imported into North America with European settlement approximately 200 years ago

b)

flies were imported into North America with European settlement approximately 200 years ago

c)

long-distance rail transport of fruit increased only after the American Civil War (1861–1865)

d)

heavy use of gunpowder during the American Civil War (1861–1865) led to increased mutation rates in many natural populations of plants and animals

4.

The divergence between the two populations of Rhagoletis must have occurred very rapidly because

a)

the apple tree was imported into North America with European settlement approximately 200 years ago

b)

flies were imported into North America with European settlement approximately 200 years ago

c)

long-distance rail transport of fruit increased only after the American Civil War (1861–1865)

d)

heavy use of gunpowder during the American Civil War (1861–1865) led to increased mutation rates in many natural populations of plants and animals

5.

Initially, which of the following isolating mechanisms is likely to have been the most important in preventing gene flow between the two populations of Rhagoletis?

a)

Gamete incompatibility

b)

Temporal isolation

c)

Mechanical isolation

d)

Reduced hybrid viability

6.

Matings between individuals from the two populations of Rhagoletis produce hybrid flies that appear to be healthy and have normal life spans. The eggs laid by these hybrid flies, however, hatch less often than those of flies from either of the two populations. What isolating mechanism seems to be important in this hybrid population?

a)

Prezygotic isolation

b)

Mechanical isolation

c)

Reduced hybrid fertility

d)

Habitat isolation

7.

A group of mice was released into a large field to which no other mice had access. Immediately after the release, a representative sample of the mice was captured, and the fur color of each individual in the sample was observed and recorded. The mice were then returned to the field. After twenty years, another representative sample of the mice was captured, and the fur color of each individual in the sample was again recorded. Which of the following best explains the change in the frequency distribution of fur color phenotypes in the mouse population, as shown in the figures above?

a)

The allele for gray fur color is unstable, and over twenty years most of those alleles mutated to become alleles for black fur.

b)

The field was composed primarily of light-colored soil and little vegetation, affording gray mice protection from predators.

c)

Sexual selection led to increased mating frequency of black and brown versus gray and brown.

d)

The gray mice were hardest to capture and so were underrepresented in the twenty-year sample.

8.

Scientists have found that the existing populations of a certain species of amphibian are small in number, lacking in genetic diversity, and separated from each other by wide areas of dry land. Which of the following human actions is most likely to improve the long-term survival of the amphibians?

a)

Cloning the largest individuals to counteract the effects of aggressive predation

b)

Reducing the population size by one-fifth to decrease competition for limited resources

c)

Constructing a dam and irrigation system to control flooding

d)

Building ponds in the areas of dry land to promote interbreeding between the separated populations

9.

To determine the evolutionary history and relationships among organisms, scientists gather evidence from a wide variety of sources including paleontology, embryology, morphology, behavior, and molecular biology. A phylogenetic tree of vertebrates is shown.


Which of the following statements is most consistent with the phylogenetic tree shown?

a)

Birds and turtles evolved their own means of gas exchange independently of the other vertebrates.

b)

Mammals are most closely related to birds because they share a direct common ancestor.

c)

The common ancestor of reptiles, birds, and mammals produced amniotic eggs.

d)

Crocodiles are direct descendents of ray-finned fishes since they live in the same environment.

10.

The data below demonstrate the frequency of tasters and nontasters of a certain compound in four isolated populations that are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The allele for nontasters is recessive. In which population is the frequency of the recessive allele highest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.

Possessing a single copy of the HbS allele has been shown to provide some resistance to infection by Plasmodium falciparum, the parasite that causes malaria. Which of the following individuals represented in the pedigree would have the greatest selective advantage in an area where malaria is common?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

V

12.

Ellis-van Creveld syndrome is a recessive genetic disorder that includes the characteristics of short stature and extra fingers or toes. In the general population, this syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in 150,000 live births. In a particular isolated population, however, the incidence of this syndrome among live births is 1 in 500.


Assume that both the isolated population and the general population are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to this syndrome. Which of the following best describes the difference between the frequency of the allele that causes the syndrome in the general population and the frequency of the allele in the isolated population?

a)

The frequency of the Ellis-van Creveld allele is 0.002 in the isolated population and 0.0000066 in the general population, which suggests that selection for this trait is occurring in both populations.

b)

The frequency of the Ellis-van Creveld allele is 0.0447 in the isolated population and 0.0026 in the general population, showing that the rate of genetic mutation is highest among individuals in the isolated population.

c)

The frequency of the Ellis-van Creveld allele is 0.002 in the isolated population and 0.0000066 in the general population, which demonstrates gametic incompatibility between the populations.

d)

The frequency of the Ellis-van Creveld allele is 0.0447 in the isolated population and 0.0026 in the general population, which suggests that genetic drift has occurred in the isolated population.

13.

Which of the following describes the function of the vibrant coloration found in the peacock feathers?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

cryptic coloration

c)

intersexual selection

d)

intrasexual selection

14.

Which of the following describes the process occurring in populations with an alpha male with multiple females?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

polyandry

c)

intersexual selection

d)

intrasexual selection

15.

Which of the following best describes the biological species concept?

a)

two species are able to breed to produce feeble, sterile offspring

b)

two species are unable to breed to produce feeble, sterile offspring

c)

two species are able to breed and to produce viable, fertile offspring

d)

two species are unable to breed to produce viable, fertile offspring

16.

What type of barrier inhibits the eastern and western skunks that reproduce at different times of the year (different seasons)?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

ecological isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

temporal isolation

17.

What barrier inhibits the formation of a mule (offspring of horse and donkey that is sterile)?

a)

reduced hybrid fertility

b)

reduced hybrid viability

c)

hybrid breakdown

d)

gametic isolation

18.

When two organisms meet in the hybrid zone and the hybrid species is more favorable than the parent species, which of the following happens to the barriers?

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Fusion

c)

Stabilization

d)

Mutations

19.

Which of the following describes why does sympatric speciation result in more reproductive barriers than allopatric speciation?

a)

sympatric involves geographic barriers that inihibit interactions

b)

sympatric involves more interactions due to an absence of geographical barriers

c)

allopatric involves same location to increase interactions

d)

allopatric involves human interaction to generate hybrid species that is absent in nature

20.

Which of the following describes the barrier that inhibits fostering of a bird by another species from being able to mate with its own species?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

ecological isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

21.

Which of the following reproductive barriers is essential for external fertilization?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

gametic isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

22.

Which of the following is likely to occur in the hybrid zone when the hybrid species is as favorable as the parent species?

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Fusion

c)

Stabilization

d)

Hybridization

23.

Based on the data given in the table, which two are most closely related?

a)

Human & Gorilla

b)

Gorilla & Orangutan

c)

Human & Chimpanzee

d)

Chimpanzee & Orangutan

24.

Based on the given cladogram, which organism is the outgroup?

a)

human

b)

chimpanzee

c)

gorilla

d)

orangutan

e)

gibbon

25.

Based on the figure, which organism is most closely related to the polar bear?

a)

black bear

b)

european brown bear

c)

western north american brown bear

d)

asian brown bear

26.

Based on the figure, how long ago was the common ancestor of the European Brown Bear and the Asian Brown Bear?

a)

4.5 hundreds of thousands of years ago

b)

3.5 hundreds of thousands of years ago

c)

2.2 hundreds of thousands of years ago

d)

1.4 hundreds of thousands of years ago

27.

Which evidence would be the most accurate when developing a cladogram?

a)

morphological

b)

molecular

c)

ecological

d)

fossil

28.

Based on the figure, which organism is most closely related to A. forsteri?

a)

E. ferus

b)

D. polylepis

c)

G. gallus

d)

E. africanus

29.

Based on the figure, which organism would be considered the outgroup?

a)

E. ferus

b)

D. polylepis

c)

G. gallus

d)

E. africanus

e)

A. forsteri

30.

Based on the figure, which organism is most closely related to E. africanus?

a)

E. ferus

b)

D. polylepis

c)

G. gallus

d)

E. africanus

31.

Based on the figure, which three organism are closely related?

a)

cat, horse, human

b)

cat, horse, pig

c)

cow, horse, human

d)

cow, horse, pig

32.

Based on the figure, which two organisms are closely related?

a)

cat & human

b)

cat & cow

c)

human & pig

d)

human & horse

33.

Which of these is a condition that must be met for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

extremely small population size

b)

no natural selection

c)

gene flow

d)

nonrandom mating

34.

If the frequency of dominant phenotype is 0.36, what is the frequency of the dominant allele?

a)

0.2

b)

0.48

c)

0.6

d)

0.8

35.

What does p stand for?

a)

dominant allele

b)

recessive allele

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

homozygous recessive

e)

heterozygous

36.

Which of the following is the equation that you would use for Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

p + 2q = 1

b)

2p + 2q = 1

c)

2p + q = 1

d)

p + q = 1

37.

Which of the following is the equation that you use for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

b)

p2 + q2 = 1

c)

p3 + q3 = 1

d)

p3 + 3pq + q3 = 1

38.

In generation 1, the recessive allele has a frequency of 0.6 and in generation 40, the recessive phenotype has a frequency of 0.36. Is the population is Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

No, the frequency changed from one generation to another.

b)

Yes, the frequency changed from one generation to another

c)

No, the frequency remained the same from one generation to another

d)

Yes, the frequency remained the same from one generation to another

39.

If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for the frequency of the dominant allele.

a)

0.76

b)

0.86

c)

0.57

d)

0.71

40.

If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for the frequency of the recessive allele.

a)

0.28

b)

0.14

c)

0.38

d)

0.42

41.

If a population is suffering from genetic drift, which of the Hardy-Weinberg conditions is not being met?

a)

no gene flow

b)

random mating

c)

extremely large population size

d)

no mutations

42.

If the frequency of recessive allele is 0.2, what is the frequency of the homozygous recessive individuals?

a)

0.04

b)

0.16

c)

0.4

d)

0.8