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Worksheets

AP GoPo Review (so far)

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements can be supported from information in the table above?

I. Federal grants to state and local governments have increased substantially in total dollar amount since 1950.

II. In 1994 the federal government devoted a larger percentage of outlays to grants than in 1980.

III. Between 1980 and 1990, grants decreased as a percentage of federal outlays.

IV. In 1994 states were more dependent on federal grants for revenue than in 1990, 1970, or 1960.

a)

IV only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

II and IV only

e)

I, III, and IV only

2.

The use of ballot initiatives and referendums is most consistent with which model of democracy?

a)

Participatory Democracy

b)

Pluralist Democracy

c)

Elite Democracy

d)

Illiberal Democracy

3.

In a pluralist democracy, who has the most influence on government policy

a)

The wealthy and elite

b)

The average voter

c)

Interest Groups

d)

The Elderly

4.

Which event demonstrated the weakness of the central government under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Whiskey Rebellion

b)

Shay's Rebellion

c)

Civil War

d)

The War of 1812

5.

Which of the following was not a weakness of the Articles of Confederation?

a)

There was no national military

b)

Congress could not directly tax the people

c)

There was no national currency

d)

States had to vote unanimously to pass laws

6.

The Great (Connecticut) Compromise created a

a)

Bicameral Legislature

b)

An independent court system

c)

The electoral college

d)

A single executive

7.

If a presidential candidate earns 52% of the vote in New Jersey, how many of New Jersey's 14 electoral college votes would the candidate receive?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

14

d)

It is impossible to know without knowing how many votes other candidates received?

8.

What power gives the Supreme Court the ability to limit the power of the other branches?

a)

Impeachment

b)

Judicial Review

c)

Writs of Certiorari

d)

Writs of Habeas Corpus

9.

Levying and Collecting taxes is an example of a

a)

Delegated Power

b)

Reserved Power

c)

Concurrent Power

d)

Denied Power

10.

Which of the following is the source of Congress' implied powers?

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

Necessary and Proper Clause

c)

Due Process Clause

d)

10th Amendment

11.

Which of the following was designed to address Anti-federalist concerns about the Constitution?

a)

Bill of Rights

b)

14th Amendment

c)

Necessary and Proper Clause

d)

Commerce Clause

12.

In Federalist No. 10, which of the following does Madison argues prevents tyranny of the majority?

a)

Direct Democracy

b)

A Confederation of Small Republics

c)

A large Republic

d)

An absolute monarchy

13.

If the president vetoes a bill, how can the veto be overridden?

a)

By a majority vote of the Supreme Court

b)

By a 2/3 vote of the Senate

c)

By a 2/3 vote of both house of Congress

d)

By a majority vote in both houses

14.

Who has the power of advice and consent to confirm presidential nominees?

a)

Senate

b)

House of Representatives

c)

Both houses of Congress

d)

Supreme Court

15.

The concept that the government's powers should be predefined and restricted by a constitution

a)

Limited Government

b)

Popular sovereignty

c)

National Supremacy

d)

Natural rights

16.

Powers of Congress that are clearly stated in the constitution are known as

a)

Implied Powers

b)

Enumerated Powers

c)

Reserved powers

d)

Inherent Powers

17.

Which provision of the constitution protects state powers?

a)

10th Amendment

b)

14th Amendment

c)

Necessary and Proper Clause

d)

Commerce Clause

18.

Which constitutional provision requires other states to recognize a New Jersey driver's license?

a)

Commerce Clause

b)

Full Faith and Credit Clause

c)

Necessary and Proper Clause

d)

10th Amendment

19.

Which of the following tools can the federal government use most effectively to shape state policies?

a)

Revenue Sharing

b)

Block Grants

c)

Categorical Grants

d)

Mandates

20.

Which of the following do state governments prefer

a)

Categorical Grants

b)

Block Grants

c)

Mandates

21.

Which of the following is an attempt to return reserved powers to the states?

a)

Devolution

b)

Decentralization

c)

Communism

d)

Socialism

22.

US v Lopez limited Congress' power under the

a)

Commerce Clause

b)

Necessary and Proper Clause

c)

14th Amendment

d)

Due Process Clause

23.

Differences in educational funding among the states is best explained by

a)

Federalism

b)

Logrolling

c)

Pork Barrel Spending

d)

Mandates

24.

Which of the following statements about Congress is true?

a)

Congress cannot override a presidential veto.

b)

A proposed constitutional amendment must be approved by 2/3 of the delegates of both house of Congress.

c)

Congress can establish an official church of the United States.

d)

Congressional power over the bureaucracy is less than that of the president.

25.

The struggle of competing interest groups for govermental influence is called ____.

a)

pluralism

b)

direct action politics

c)

direct democracy

d)

oligarchy

e)

grassroots mobilization

26.

The belief that political authority should rest with the people themselves is called ____.

a)

political culture

b)

political equality

c)

pluralism

d)

popular sovereignty

e)

federalism

27.

The Constitution's Preamble, beginning with the words "We the People," is an illustration of ____.

a)

laissez-faire capitalism

b)

political equality

c)

popular sovereignty

d)

minority rights

e)

political rights

28.

All of the following issues were decided at the Constitutional Convention EXCEPT

a)

representation in the legislature

b)

voting qualifications of the electorate

c)

method of electing the President

d)

congressional power to override a presidential veto

e)

qualifications for members of the House and Senate

29.

In the early part of the twenty-first century, public opinion polls showed that a majority of Americans believed it should be illegal to burn the American flag. As a result, many members of Congress introduced amendments to make it illegal to burn or desecrate the American flag. However, these efforts have been unsuccessful. Which of the following statements best explains why these efforts have been unsuccessful?

a)

Congress and the states have agreed to add this amendment; however, recent presidents have refused to sign it.

b)

The framers made the amendment process difficult in order to protect individual rights.

c)

The Supreme Court has stated such an amendment is unconstitutional, thus blocking its ratification.

d)

The framers specifically wrote the amendment process to prevent using it to limit freedom of expression.

30.

Brutus was an example of an Anti-Federalist because he

a)

believed a centralized government posed a major threat to individual rights

b)

argued that a national military force was needed to deal with insurrections

c)

argued that the laws passed by the national government were supreme over state laws

d)

believed that compromise between the branches of government would ensure a limited government

31.

Constitutional checks and balances, especially applied to the president, are designed to

a)

provide for a balanced budget

b)

minimize the threat of tyranny from any one branch of government

c)

ensure that the states do not become too powerful

d)

ensure efficient government

e)

ensure that the federal government is militarily strong

32.

Cooperative federalism can best be described by which of the following statements?

a)

Different levels of government are involved in common policy areas

b)

Government must have cooperation from the people in order to make legislative decisions.

c)

Local levels of government can make decisions on issues more efficiently than state and national governments can

d)

The federal government must make regulations that can be applied across every state in the same way

e)

Business and government can work together to more effectively accomplish shared goals.

33.

Which of the following is an accurate description of the decision in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) ?

a)

The federal government exceeded its authority in establishing a national bank, and Maryland’s tax was unconstitutional.

b)

Maryland was within its authority to tax the federal government, but the Bank of the United States exceeded federal authority.

c)

The federal government had the authority to establish a national bank, but it had to pay Maryland’s tax.

d)

The federal government had the authority to establish a national bank, and Maryland’s tax was unconstitutional.

34.

Which of the following is an accurate description of the decision in United States v. Lopez (1995) ?

a)

The Gun-Free School Zones Act of 1990 was upheld as constitutional because regulating arms is an enumerated power.

b)

The Gun-Free School Zones Act of 1990 was upheld as constitutional because any interstate commerce is implied in the commerce clause

c)

The Gun-Free School Zones Act of 1990 was struck down as unconstitutional because it exceeded the commerce clause.

d)

The Gun-Free School Zones Act of 1990 was struck down because it exceeded the state’s power to regulate guns.

35.

Diversity of public policy throughout the United States is primarily a consequence of

a)

separation of powers

b)

innovation within bureaucratic agencies

c)

decentralization in the Senate

d)

lack of party discipline in the House

e)

federalism

36.

Despite the Fifteenth Amendment, which extended the right to vote to African American males, Southern states were able to block black voting for many years because

a)

the Fifteenth Amendment did not apply to all states

b)

Congress passed legislation that restricted the application of the Fifteenth Amendment to placate Southerners

c)

the framers allowed the individual states to create voting processes and voter qualifications

d)

the Supreme Court had declared the Fifteenth Amendment unconstitutional

37.

Which is not an Enumerated powers of the federal government?

a)

coin money

b)

declare war

c)

regulate interstate commerce

d)

regulate intrastate commerce

e)

tax

38.

Many scholars argue that categorical grants-in-aid do which of the following?

a)

Give states far too much power over national monies

b)

Broaden state power beyond that outlined in the Constitution

c)

Strengthen the impact of the Tenth Amendment

d)

Give new life to the idea of dual federalism

e)

Weaken the power of state governors and legislators

39.

Of the following, which has been used most to expand the power of the national government?

A B C D

a)

The commerce clause of the Constitution

b)

The habeas corpus clause of the Constitution

c)

The bill of attainder clause of the Constitution

d)

The First Amendment

e)

The Fifth Amendment

40.

States and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from

a)

categorical grants

b)

matching grants

c)

block grants

d)

project grants

e)

grant-in-aid

41.

The Americans with Disabilities Act was widely unpopular with governors and mayors because it

a)

required that people with disabilities be given equal access to public facilities

b)

required that buildings be retrofitted or remodeled to give equal access to people with disabilities

c)

did not go far enough to establish equal access to public facilities

d)

applied only to federal facilities and did nothing to accommodate people in municipal buildings

e)

required that states and cities pay for federally mandated construction and remodeling

42.

Which congressional power has been contested most frequently in the federal courts?

a)

establish post offices

b)

coin money

c)

levy taxes

d)

regulate commerce with foreign nations

e)

regulate interstate commerce

43.

The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those powers

a)

not specifically granted to the national government or denied to the states

b)

implied in the Fifth Amendment

c)

listed specifically in the Tenth Amendment

d)

exercised by both national and state governments

e)

granted to states as part of the implied powers doctrine

44.

Which of the following actions by the federal government best illustrates the concept of unfunded mandates?

a)

Requiring that polling booths remain open beyond the hours of the workday

b)

Requiring states and municipalities to provide certain services for their citizens without providing resources to pay for those services

c)

Requiring state governments to guarantee short-term bonds issued by large municipalities in their states

d)

Requiring all municipalities to impose a minimum property tax on all residential and business properties

e)

Requiring states and municipalities to privatize many previously publicly funded services

45.

Which of the following clauses in the Constitution justifies the “implied powers doctrine” ?

a)

The executive power clause

b)

The privileges and immunities clause

c)

The necessary and proper clause

d)

The debts and engagements clause

e)

The contract clause

46.

Which of the following constitutional principles best explains why there is variation among states on the use of capital punishment?

a)

Separation of powers

b)

Judicial review

c)

Checks and balances

d)

Federalism

47.

Read the following excerpt, and then tell from which document it comes:


When a majority is included in a faction, the form of popular government, on the other hand, enables it to sacrifice to its ruling passion or interest, both the public good and the rights of other citizens. To secure the public good, and private rights, against the danger of such a faction, and at the same time to preserve the spirit and the form of popular government, is then the great object to which our inquiries are directed. . . .

a)

Federalist 51

b)

Brutus 1

c)

Federalist 10

d)

Federalist 70

e)

Federalist 78

48.

Read the following excerpt, and then tell the source:


Suppose the legislature of a state should pass a law to raise money to support their government and pay the state debt, may the Congress repeal this law, because it may prevent the collection of a tax which they may think proper and necessary to lay, to provide for the general welfare of the United States? For all laws made, in pursuance of this constitution, are the supreme law of the land, and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, any thing in the constitution or laws of the different states to the contrary notwithstanding.

a)

Federalist 51

b)

Brutus 1

c)

Federalist 10

d)

Federalist 70

e)

Federalist 78

49.

Read the excerpt, and then choose where the quote comes from:


If men were angels, no government would be necessary. If angels were to govern men, neither external nor internal controls on government would be necessary. In framing a government which is to be administered by men over men, the great difficulty lies in this: you must first enable the government to control the governed; and in the next place oblige it to control itself.

a)

Federalist 10

b)

Brutus 1

c)

Federalist 51

d)

Federalist 70

e)

Federalist 78

50.

Read the excerpt, and the tell what the source is:


A feeble executive implies a feeble execution of the government. A feeble execution is but another phrase for a bad execution; and a government ill executed, whatever it may be in theory, must be, in practice, a bad government.


Taking it for granted, therefore, that all men of sense will agree in the necessity of an energetic executive; it will only remain to inquire, what are the ingredients which constitute this energy? How far can they be combined with those other ingredients which constitute safety in the republican sense? And how far does this combination characterize the plan which has been reported by the convention?


The ingredients which constitute energy in the executive are unity; duration; an adequate provision for its support; and competent powers.

a)

Federalist 10

b)

Brutus 1

c)

Federalist 51

d)

Federalist 70

e)

Federalist 78

51.

Read the excerpt, and then tell the source:


[T]hat as, from the natural feebleness of the judiciary, it is in continual jeopardy of being overpowered, awed or influenced by its coordinate branches; and that as nothing can contribute so much to its firmness and independence as permanency in office, this quality may therefore be justly regarded as an indispensable ingredient in its constitution, and in a great measure as the citadel of the public justice and the public security.

a)

Federalist 10

b)

Brutus 1

c)

Federalist 51

d)

Federalist 70

e)

Federalist 78

52.

Read the excerpt, and then tell the source:


Article XIII.

Every state shall abide by the determinations of the united states in congress assembled, on all questions which by this confederation are submitted to them. And the Articles of this confederation shall be inviolably observed by every state, and the union shall be perpetual; nor shall any alteration at any time hereafter be made in any of them; unless such alteration be agreed to in a congress of the united states, and be afterwards confirmed by the legislatures of every state...

a)

Constitution

b)

Declaration of Independence

c)

Articles of Confederation

d)

Brutus 1

53.

Rad the excerpt, and then tell the source:


We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness.--That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed...

a)

Declaration of Independence

b)

Constitution

c)

Articles of Confederation

d)

Federalist 10

54.

Case Details -- 1819 -- Necessary & Proper Clause and the Supremacy Clause...

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

McCulloch v. Maryland

c)

Heart of Atlanta Motel case

d)

U.S. v. Lopez

55.

Case Details -- 1803 -- Established the principle of judicial review empowering the Supreme Court to nullify an act of the legislative or executive branch that violates the Constitution

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

McCulloch v. Maryland

c)

Heart of Atlanta Motel Case

d)

U.S. v. Lopez

56.

Case Details -- 1995 -- Congress may not use the commerce clause to make possession of a gun in a school zone a

federal crime

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

McCulloch v. Maryland

c)

Heart of Atlanta Motel Case

d)

U.S. v. Lopez

57.
Where did the Constitutional Convention take place?
a)
Philadelphia, Pennsylvania
b)
Washington, DC
c)
Richmond, Virginia
d)
Paris, France
58.
What was the original purpose of the Constitutional Convention?
a)
To rewrite the Declaration of Independence
b)
To rewrite the Articles of Confederation
c)
To write the Treaty of Paris
d)
To elect the first president
59.
The three branches of government are ________________
a)
Executive, Legislative, and Judicial
b)
Legislative, Judicial, and National
c)
Executive, Principle, and Judicial
d)
Judicial, National, and Legislative
60.
Which branch of government has two houses?
a)
Executive
b)
Legislative
c)
Judicial
d)
National
61.
Which part of the legislative branch has the same number of representatives for each state?
a)
House of Representatives
b)
Judicial
c)
Executive
d)
Senate
62.
Which part of the legislative branch has representation based on population?
a)
Senate
b)
Judicial
c)
House of 
Representatives
d)
House of Congress
63.
The _______________ was the solution to the disagreement about how many representatives each state would have. 
a)
Great Compromise
b)
Three-fifths Compromise
c)
Great Dispute
d)
Big Agreement
64.
How were slaves counted as part of the population when deciding the number of representatives for a state?
a)
All slaves were counted.
b)
Three-fifths of the number of slaves was added to the population.
c)
Slaves were not counted at all.
d)
Slaves were allowed to vote and be elected to represent each state.
65.
What document replaced the Articles of Confederation and established a new national government? 
a)
The Declaration of Independence 
b)
The Constitution 
c)
The Magna Carta 
d)
The English Bill of Rights 
66.
Before the U.S. Constitution was ratified, the United States was governed by which document?
a)
Magna Carta
b)
Articles of Confederation
c)
Mayflower Compact
d)
Declaration of Independence
67.
A major weakness under the Articles of Confederation was-
a)
Congress could not negotiate treaties
b)
Congress could print money
c)
Congress did not have the power to raise money or enforce laws
d)
Congress established the Northwest Ordinance
68.

This document warned of the dangers of a strong federal government, and argued that the territory was too vast and needs too diverse to be met by one central government...

a)

Federalist #51

b)

Declaration of Independence

c)

Brutus #1

d)

Federalist #10

69.

This document argued that the best was to control factions was with a strong central government so that groups would have to work together and no single group could dominate the others...

a)

Brutus #1

b)

Federalist #10

c)

Federalist #78

d)

Articles of Confederation

70.

What is the minimum age to become a Senator?

a)

No prerequisite

b)

25

c)

30

d)

35

71.

What is the minimum age to be a member of the House of Representatives?

a)

No prerequisite

b)

25

c)

30

d)

35

72.

Reapportionment and redistricting are affected every ten years as a result of....

a)

pork barrel spending

b)

standing committees

c)

midterm elections

d)

the census

73.

Cloture is a process designed to accomplish...

a)

bringing a bill out of committee

b)

the ending a filibuster

c)

Gerrymandering

d)

select committee chairmen

74.

This chamber of the legislature has the power of confirming presidential appointments.

a)

The House of Representatives

b)

The Senate

75.

Logrolling generally refers to...

a)

the changing of committee chairs after a change in the majority party after a congressional election

b)

the trading of "yea" votes in return for future favors

c)

minority leader in the House of Representatives

d)

findings of the Congressional Budget Office

76.

What do we call a person who is up for reelection?

a)

the challenger

b)

the lame duck

c)

the whip

d)

the incumbent

77.

Which of the following Court Cases dealt primarily with gerrymandering with the purpose of creating minority majority districts?

a)

Roe v Wade

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

McCulloch v. Maryland

d)

Baker v. Carr

78.

Which Supreme Court case established the doctrine, "One man, one vote"?

a)

Shaw v Reno

b)

US v Lopez

c)

Baker v Carr

d)

Pridy v Hatton

79.

Who casts the deciding vote in the Senate in the event of a tie?

a)

President of the United States

b)

President pro Tempore

c)

Senate majority leader

d)

Vice President of the United States

80.

Prior to the passage of the 17th Amendment, how were senators selected?

a)

straw poll

b)

state governors

c)

state legislatures

d)

Supreme Court

81.

Treaties signed by the President are Ratified by the

a)

House of Representatives

b)

Supreme Court

c)

Thomas Jefferson

d)

Senate

82.

Congressional committees are usually Chaired by

a)

Majority party members

b)

Presidential Appointees

c)

Minority party members

d)

The Oldest members of Congress.

83.

A government that has the President, House of Representatives, and the Senate all controlled by the same party is known as

a)

Divided Government

b)

Inept Government

c)

Immobile Government

d)

Unified Government

84.

Where in the Constitution can one find the enumerated powers of the legislative branch?

a)

10th Amendment

b)

Article 1 Section 1

c)

Article 1 Section 8

d)

all legislative powers are implied

85.

The War Powers Act, passed in 1973, is intended to check the power of the executive on the issue of...

a)

troop deployment to armed conflict

b)

troop deployment for humanitarian aid

c)

troop deployment outside the western hemisphere

d)

troop deployment to NATO allied countries

86.

Who holds the "Power of the Purse"?

a)

Congressional Budget Office

b)

Senate

c)

House of Representatives

d)

Office of Management and Budget

87.

To place as many voters as you can into one district when redistricting is called...

a)

cracking

b)

packing

c)

hijacking

d)

kidnapping

88.

What is it called when Congress makes sure the agencies of government are operating properly and as intended?

a)

hindsight

b)

oversight

c)

whistlblowing

d)

impeachment

89.

The President is the symbol and ceremonial head of the government. Which role is being described?

a)

Chief Legislator

b)

Chief Executive

c)

Chief of State

d)

Commander-in-Chief

90.

The President attends a private fundraiser for a member of his own political party to help with that person's reelection. Which Presidential role is being described?

a)

Chief Economist

b)

Chief of Party

c)

Chief Diplomat

d)

Chief Administrator

91.

The President has direct and immediate control of the nation's armed forces. Which Presidential role is being described?

a)

Chief Executive

b)

Chief Citizen

c)

Chief Administrator

d)

Commander-in-Chief

92.

The President controls and is responsible for managing over 2.5 million government employees. Which Presidential role is being described?

a)

Chief Diplomat

b)

Chief Administrator

c)

Chief of State

d)

Chief Legislator

93.

The President sets the overall shape of the congressional agenda and public policies. Which Presidential role is being described?

a)

Chief Legislator

b)

Chief Citizen

c)

Commander-in-Chief

d)

Chief Executive

94.

Which of the following people would not be appointed by the President?

a)

Cabinet members

b)

federal judges

c)

members of Congress

d)

ambassadors to other countries

95.

Which of the following is the best description of the President's "State of the Union" speech?

a)

Make treaties with other countries

b)

To protect and defend the Constitution

c)

Announce the pardon of an individual

d)

Update Congress on how things are going in the country

96.

Which of the following is true about executive orders given by the President?

a)

Executive orders are directives or rules that have the force of law

b)

Executive orders have never been challenged in the courts

c)

Executive orders allow the President to declare congressional laws unconstitutional

d)

Executive orders allow the President to remove a judge from office

97.

The President claims the Constitution gives him the power to refuse to reveal certain information to Congress or the federal courts. This idea is known as

a)

clemency

b)

line-item veto

c)

executive privilege

d)

reprieve

98.
The executive branch is created in 
a)
Article 1
b)
Article 2
c)
Article 3
d)
Article 4
99.
Which of the following is NOT an expressed power of the president?
a)
declare war
b)
commander-in-chief
c)
grant pardons
d)
make appointments
100.

Which of the following confirms the president's cabinet appointments?

a)

the House of Representatives

b)

the Senate

c)

a joint committee of both houses

d)

the Supreme Court

101.

How many Cabinet positions are there?

a)

11

b)

13

c)

15

d)

17

102.

Of the following, which is closest to the President and most loyal to him?

a)

White House Staff

b)

Congressional Leadership

c)

Cabinet secretaries

d)

ambassadors

103.
Which of the following rights and freedoms is specifically guaranteed by the first 1st amendment?
a)
Right to an education
b)
Freedom of press
c)
Right to bear arms
d)
Right to privacy 
104.
The Fifth Amendment states that a person cannot be
a)
tried for the same crime twice.
b)
forced to give evidence against himself or herself.
c)
deprived of life, liberty, and property without due process of law.
d)
all of the above
105.
According to the Fourth Amendment, the police can search and seize a person's property only if
a)
the neighbors sign a petition.
b)
the chief of police gives permission.
c)
a judge issues a warrant.
d)
the have a written note from your mother. 
106.
Which of these is not allowed, according to the Eighth Amendment?
a)
reasonable bail
b)
reasonable fines
c)
jail terms
d)
cruel punishments
107.
Why was the Ninth Amendment added to the Constitution?
a)
because the framers worried they might have forgotten an important right
b)
because the framers wanted to make clear that basic rights were guaranteed even if they were not stated specifically
c)
because the Bill of Rights had to have ten parts
d)
because the English Bill of Rights listed nine rights
108.
The Tenth Amendment states that
a)
most powers belong to the national government.
b)
powers not given to the national government or prohibited from the states belong to the states or the people.
c)
the people are the source of all government powers.
d)
the states are the most important part of our government system.
109.
Which amendment gives a "well-regulated militia...the right of the people" to bear arms.
a)
1st Amendment
b)
4th Amendment
c)
5th Amendment
d)
2nd Amendment 
110.
a)
9th Amendment
b)
10th Amendment
c)
11th Amendment
d)
12th Amendment
111.
a)
1st Amendment
b)
3rd Amendment
c)
4th Amendment
d)
5th Amendment
112.
a)
1st Amendment
b)
2nd Amendment
c)
3rd Amendment
d)
4th Amendment