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AP Psych Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is a common cause of multiple sclerosis?
a)
Myelin sheath degeneration
b)
Axon terminals
c)
Cell body
d)
Synapse gap
2.
What natural morphine does the body create that is considered a “runner’s high”
a)
Dopamine
b)
Serotonin
c)
Glutamate
d)
Endorphins
3.

Drugs that occupy (block) receptors but do not activate them are called?

a)

Antagonists

b)

Agonists

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Gamma-aminobutyric acid

4.
What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?
a)
Autonomic and Somatic
b)
Peripheral and Central
c)
Sensory and Motor
d)
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
5.
In what order does an electrical impulse travel through a neuron?
a)
Nucleus, cell body, Dendrite, axon terminal, axon
b)
Synapse, Nucleus, Dendrite, Axon
c)
Dendrite, Cell Body, Axon, Axon Terminals
d)
Cell Body, Dendrite, Axon Terminals, Synapse
6.
What is the small gap/space between one neuron's axon terminal and another's dendrite?
a)
Myaline sheath
b)
Synapse
c)
Cell Body
d)
Receptor Site
7.
What is it called when a brief electrical charge travels down a neuron's axon?
a)
Resting Potential
b)
Depolarization
c)
Action Potential
d)
Repolarization
8.
What is the master gland of the brain?
a)
Hippocampus
b)
Thalamus
c)
Pituitary Gland
d)
Pons
9.
What is the process called when extra neurotransmitters are reabsorbed?
a)
Reuptake
b)
Excitatory
c)
Repolarization
d)
Action potential
10.
What connects the right and left hemispheres of the brain?
a)
Pons
b)
Thalamus
c)
Corpus Callosum
d)
Amygdala
11.
Steven is a 5 year old boy who just had a hemispherectomy. Because of _______, his brain will create new learning pathways to regain normal function.
a)
Association areas
b)
Dual processing
c)
Lateralization
d)
Placticity
12.
Which organ of the brain processes the emotions of fear and anger?
a)
Thalamus
b)
pons
c)
medulla oblongata
d)
amygdala
13.
What is the function of the hippocampus with in the brain?
a)
The organization of emotional events
b)
To store long term memorie and regulate short term memories
c)
to regulate fear and anger
d)
the process of connecting the left and right hemispheres
14.
Which brain scan is used to see areas that are being activated while performing different task?
a)
EEG
b)
CT Scan
c)
MRI
d)
PET
15.
In a CT (computed tomography) scan, what signals are used to detect the structure of the brain?
a)
Magnetic Fields
b)
Electrodes placed on the skull
c)
the pass of X-rays through the brain
d)
detection of glucose
16.
To walk across the street, a person would rely most directly on his:
a)
Autonomic Nervous System
b)
Sympathetic Nervous System
c)
Parasympathetic Nervous System
d)
Somatic Nervous System
17.

Where is the somatosensory cortex?

a)

frontal lobe

b)

occipital lobe

c)

parietal Lobes

d)

temporal lobe

18.
Hasan is nervous for an oral presentation. His heart beats rapidly, his palms are sweaty, and his breathing has increased. Which part of the nervous system would be activated?
a)
Central
b)
Somatic
c)
Sympathetic
d)
Parasympathetic
19.
Penelope claims to be bothered by the fact that her left hand unties her show while her right hand ties it. She appears to be unable to integrate messages between her left and right hemisphere. This may be a result of:
a)
an intact corpus callosum
b)
neurogenesis
c)
plasticity
d)
a split-brain surgery
20.
Which neurotransmitter affects mood, hunger, sleep, and arousal?
a)
Acetylcholine (ACh)
b)
Serotonin
c)
GABA
d)
Dopamine
21.
Which type of cell communicates within the nervous system and processes information between incoming and outgoing messages?
a)
Glial cells
b)
Motor neurons
c)
Interneurons
d)
Sensory neurons
22.

The peripheral nervous system consists of:

a)

association areas.

b)

the spinal cord.

c)

the reticular formation.

d)

sensory and motor neurons.

23.

Which of the following activities is NOT primarily a function of the left hemisphere?

a)

listening to a piano concerto

b)

reading your psychology book

c)

reading junk mail

d)

listening to a poetry reading

24.

While out for a bike ride, you can think about what you’ll make for dinner rather than concentrate on how to operate the bicycle. This illustrates:

a)

parallel processing.

b)

Sigmund Freud’s concept of the unconscious.

c)

the function of delta waves.

d)

auditory hallucinations.

25.

An undersupply of serotonin is most closely linked to

a)

euphoria

b)

schizophrenia

c)

depression

d)

Parkinson's disease

26.

Studies of identical twins who had been reared apart most clearly highlight the importance of ________ in personality development.

a)

mutation

b)

genetic predispositions

c)

natural selection

d)

home environments

27.

What sense helps maintain balance?

a)

Vestibular

b)

Kinesthetic

c)

Proprioception

d)

Audition

e)

Olfaction

28.

The specialized cells in each of the sense organs that collect information to send to the brain are called...

a)

sensory cells

b)

sensory nuerons

c)

bipolar cells

d)

ganglion cells

e)

sensory receptors

29.

The classic gate-control theory suggests that pain is experienced when small nerve fibers activate and open a neural gate in the...

a)

basilar membrane

b)

spinal cord

c)

semicircular canal

d)

olfactory bulbs

e)

fovea

30.

Where is the basilar membrane located?

a)

middle ear

b)

auditory canal

c)

semicircular canal

d)

cochlea

e)

feature detected

31.

The coiled, fluid filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses is called...

a)

eustachian tube

b)

auditory canal

c)

semicircular canal

d)

cochlea

e)

vestibular aparatus

32.

What color afterimage would occur after viewing the color blue?

a)

blue

b)

red

c)

yellow

d)

green

e)

white

33.

The process by which your ears convert sound waves to neural impulses is called...

a)

sensory adaptation

b)

accommodation

c)

parallel processing

d)

sensory introduction

e)

Transduction

34.

The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant proportion for their difference to be perceived is known as...

a)

opponent process theory

b)

feature detector

c)

sensory interaction

d)

Weber's law

e)

absolute threshold

35.

a person typically fails to consciously perceive their own nose in their line of vision. This best illustrates...

a)

subliminal perception

b)

change blindness

c)

cocktail party effect

d)

selective attention

e)

visual cliff

36.

Although Bill was seated next to his friend, he was able to smell the burning popcorn a full minute earlier than his friend. Bill must have a lower _________ for smell.

a)

accommodation level

b)

absolute threshold

c)

tolerance level

d)

gustatory saturation level

e)

adaptation level

37.
Clues about distance based on the image of one eye.
a)
binocular depth cues
b)
monocular depth cues
c)
subliminal stimulation
38.
Clues about distance requiring two eyes.
a)
monocular depth cues
b)
place theory
c)
binocular depth cues
39.

This is an example of what type of monocular depth cue?

a)

Texture gradient

b)

Linear perspective

c)

interposition

d)

motion parallax

40.
We rely on binocular vision to
a)
perceive depth
b)
see colors
c)
understand optical illusions
d)
see motion
41.
A 3-D movie enhances our sense of depth perception by simulating the effects of

a)
interposition.
b)
retinal disparity.
c)
perceptual constancy. 
d)
gestalt cues.
42.

Retinal disparity occurs because

a)

the eyes converge on a particular object and thus they look disparate

b)

the brain detects a change in the eye muscles

c)

each retina receives a slightly different visual image due to their distance apart

d)

we are all unique and different.

43.

The illusion of movement in animated neon signs is known as:

a)

the phi phenomenon,

b)

relative motion

c)

retinal disparity

d)

visual capture

e)

interposition.

44.
Which of the following is not related to forgetting?
a)
Retroactive interference
b)
Repression
c)
Decay
d)
Long term potentiation
45.
Which of the following memories happen with conscious awareness?
a)
Implicit Memories
b)
Episodic Memories
c)
Procedural Memories
d)
Repressive Memories
46.
Memory decay is fastest for which type of memory?
a)
Sensory Memory
b)
Short Term Memory
c)
Working Memory
d)
Long Term Memory
47.
Which of the following has a tendency to be the hardest way to learn something?
a)
When positive transfer occurs.
b)
Using shallow processing.
c)
Using elaborative rehearsal
d)
Using deep processing.
48.
Which brain part is responsible for facilitating explicit memories?
a)
brain stem
b)
cerebellum
c)
amygdala
d)
hippocampus
49.

This model of memory says that memory exists in three stages: Encoding, storage, and retrieval.

a)

Levels-of-Processing Model

b)

Parallel Distributed Processing Model

c)

Information Processing Model

d)

Connectionism

e)

Relationism

50.

Which type of sensory memory works with visual stimuli?

a)

Short-Term memory

b)

Working memory

c)

Iconic Memory

d)

Echoic Memory

e)

Explicit Memory

51.

What is the term that states we remember the first (primacy) and last (recency) items on a list?

a)

State-Dependent Learning

b)

Mood Congruent Memory

c)

Retrieval Failure

d)

Serial Position Effect

e)

Recall

52.

When a person has a strong emotional connection to a memory and is able to remember vivid details about that situation, they have just experience a _______________ memory.

a)

Iconic

b)

Echoic

c)

Non-Declarative

d)

Flash-bulb

e)

Recency

53.

If information that has been stored in memory is not used for an extended period of time, what will most likely happen to that memory?

a)

Encoding Failure

b)

Retrieval Failure

c)

Retrograde Interference

d)

Storage Decay

e)

Anterograde Amnesia

54.

Which type of amnesia keeps us from remembering information from the first 2-3 years of our lives?

a)

Anterograde

b)

Retrograde

c)

Infantile

d)

Iconic

e)

Echoic

55.

If a person is unable to remember anything new moving forward from an injury, which type of amnesia are they experiencing?

a)

Anterograde

b)

Retrograde

c)

Infantile

d)

Iconic

e)

Echoic

56.

(Negative Effects) Depression, memory loss, organ damage, impaired reactions

a)

alcohol

b)

heroin

c)

caffeine

d)

methamphetamine

57.

(Depressant) Initial high followed by relaxation and disinhibition

a)

alcohol

b)

heroin

c)

caffeine

d)

methamphetamine

58.

(Depressant) Rush of euphoria, relief from pain

a)

herion

b)

caffeine

c)

methaphetamine

d)

cocaine

59.

(Stimulant) Increased alertness and wakefulness

a)

caffeine

b)

methamphetamine

c)

cocaine

d)

nicotine

60.

(Negative Effects) Anxiety, restlessness and insomnia in high doses; uncomfortable withdrawal

a)

caffeine

b)

methamphetamine

c)

cocaine

d)

nicotine

61.

(Stimulant) Euphoria, alertness, energy

a)

methamphetamine

b)

cocaine

c)

nicotine

d)

ecstasy

62.

(Stimulant) Rush of euphoria, confidence, energy

a)

cocaine

b)

nicotine

c)

ecstasy

d)

marijuana

63.

(Stimulant,Hallucinogen) Emotional elevation, disinhibition

a)

ecstasy

b)

marijuana

c)

alcohol

d)

herion

64.

(Hallucinogen) Enhanced sensation, relief of pain, distortion of time, relaxation

a)

marijuana

b)

alcohol

c)

heroin

d)

caffeine

65.

•When you hear familiar words in your native language, it is virtually impossible not to register the meanings of the words. This best illustrates the importance of:

a)

A. chunking.

b)

B. flashbulb memory.

c)

C. automatic processing.

d)

D. iconic memory.

66.

•Memories of emotional events are especially likely to be facilitated by activation of the:

a)

A. amygdala

b)

B. hypothalamus

c)

C. sensory cortex

d)

D. motor cortex

67.

Priming refers to:

a)

A. the sense that one has been in a particular situation before.

b)

B. better recall for experiences that are consistent with one’s current mood.

c)

C. attributing a memory to an erroneous source.

d)

D. the activation of associations in memory.

68.

The reason most North Americans cannot accurately describe the head of a penny is due to:

a)

A. storage decay

b)

B. encoding failure

c)

C. motivated forgetting

d)

D. retrieval failure

69.

A lion in a circus learns to stand up on a chair and jump through a hoop to receive a food treat.

a)

classical conditioning

b)

operant conditioning

c)

observational learning

70.
Ivan Pavlov has been credited with the initial discovery of
a)
operant conditioning.
b)
reinforcement
c)
classical conditioning.
d)
vicarious conditioning.
71.
In a classic experiment, "Little Albert," a very young boy, was conditioned to be afraid of a rat. He also became fearful of white furry rabbits and bearded men. This is an example of
a)
classical conditioning.
b)
higher order conditioning.
c)
reinforcement.
d)
operant conditioning.
72.
In John Watson's "Little Albert" experiment, what was the UCS?
a)
The white rat
b)
Anything white and furry
c)
The loud noise
d)
Fear
73.

An operant conditioning procedure in which people earn a token for exhibiting a desired behavior and can exchange it for privileges/treats:

a)

law of effect

b)

token economy

c)

operant chamber

d)

primary reinforcer

74.
A little girl gets to eat dessert because she finished all the food on her plate. This is an example of:  
a)
Positive punishment
b)
Negative punishment
c)
Positive Reinforcement
d)
Negative Reinforcement
75.
When shaping a behavior, you would couple a treat with, "good dog" to get your pet to sit.  The "good dog" is considered __.
a)
Negative Reinforcement
b)
Primary Reinforcer
c)
Secondary Reinforcer
76.
Anything that seeks to continue a desired behavior by the removal, escape from, or avoidance of undesired stimulus is called __.
a)
Negative Reinforcement
b)
Punishment
c)
Positive Reinforcement
d)
Partial Reinforcement
77.

Which Sleep stage features vivid dreaming and muscle paralysis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

REM

78.

The name for a living things biological processes (such as sleep) that occur roughly every 24 hours is the

a)

Circle of life

b)

Superchiasmatic Nucleus

c)

Circadian Rhythm

d)

Circulo de respirar

79.
Which of the following is the best definition of conformity?
a)
A change in behaviour or belief toward a group as a result of real or imagined group pressure
b)
A change in behaviour or belief as a result of direct pressure from a person in authority.
c)
Change in behaviour or belief as a result of indirect pressure from a person in authority.
d)
A change in behaviour or belief as a result of a direct request by someone with no authority.
80.
What term refers to the phenomenon in which a group of people are less likely to help out in an emergency than an individual? 
a)
Bystander Effect
b)
Diffusion of Responsibility 
c)
Conformity
d)
Assumption of Responsibility
81.
Which researcher's work was key to our understanding of obedience 
a)
Asch
b)
Milgram
c)
Eichmann
d)
Durkheim 
82.
Which researcher's work was key to our understanding of conformity? 
a)
Asch
b)
Milgram
c)
Eichmann
d)
Durkheim 
83.
What term best describes an actor in an experiment who is working for the researcher? 
a)
Confederate
b)
Participant
c)
Learner
d)
Subject
84.
Feelings, often based on our beliefs, that predispose us to respond in a particular way to objects, people, and events are called
a)
roles.
b)
norms.
c)
attitudes.
d)
attributions.
85.
Repetition of the same arguments resulting in stronger attitudes in support of the majority view is an example of
a)
group polarization.
b)
role conflict.
c)
groupthink.
d)
social networking.
86.
The mental stress or discomfort caused ban individual experiencing inconsistency between thoughts and actions. 
a)
Cognitive Dissonance
b)
Groupthink
c)
Deindividuation
d)
Attitude
87.
The tendency to believe that people get what they deserve. 
a)
Bystander effect
b)
Proximity
c)
Discrimination
d)
Belief in a Just World
88.
Preferential or disadvantageous behavior toward an individual or group. 
a)
Obedience
b)
Prejudice
c)
Discrimination
d)
Other-race-effect
89.

The loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity.

a)

Deindividuation

b)

Entitlement

c)

Group Dynamics

d)

Group Attitude

90.
___ states that the more we see or experience of something, the more we will like it.
a)
The Social Thinking Theory
b)
Attraction
c)
The Mere Exposure Effect
d)
Foot in the Door