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WorksheetsPharm Test 4
Total questions: 99
Worksheet time: 53mins
Which immune system component is best described by the statement below:
"Cells who make antibodies"
B Lymphocytes
Helper T lymphocytes
Cytolytic T lymphocytes
Macrophages.
Which immune system component is best described by the statement below:
"Cells who don't make antibodies, but attack and kill target cells directly"
B Lymphocytes
Helper T lymphocytes
Cytolytic T lymphocytes
Macrophages.
Which immune system component is best described by the statement below:
"Cells who activate other cells to do their job, They are required for effective immune response."
B Lymphocytes
Helper T lymphocytes
Cytolytic T lymphocytes
Macrophages.
Which of the following statement apply to Macrophages? (Select all that apply)
They begin in bone marrow
They are the principal scavengers of the body; phagocytize cells tagged by antibodies
They enter blood as monocytes and evolve into macrophages.
They produce antibodies and help other cells to produce antibodies.
Macrophages act as APC and final mediators of DTH
Which immune system component is best described by the statement below:
"Cells who who are found in lymph nodes that have an antigen presenting cell function, but do NOT act as scavengers. "
Dendritic cells
Helper T lymphocytes
Cytolytic T lymphocytes
Macrophages.
Which immune system component is best described by the statement below:
"Any mediator molecule (other than the antibody) released by any immune system cell. Ex -interleukines, interferons, TNF (tumor necrosis factor)"
B Lymphocytes
Helper T lymphocytes
Cytokines
Macrophages.
The body's response to a foreign agent or substance is know as a(n)
Antigen
Antibody
Immunoglobulins
Mast cell
Which immune system component is best described by the statement below:
" They phagocytize bacteria and other foreign particles that have been coated with antibodies of the immunoglobulin (Ig) G class. "
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Mast Cells
Which immune system component is best described by the statement below:
"They attack and destroy helminths (worms) & foreign particles that have been coated with antibodies of the immunoglobulin (Ig) E class. "
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Mast Cells
Which statement best describes the difference between mast cells and basophils?
Mast cells and basophils mediates immediate hypersensitivity reactions
Mast cells and basophils releases histamine/heparin in compounds involve Hypersensitivity reaction
Basophils are found in blood only
Mast cells come from basophils and are found in soft tissue and skin
Which statement best describes the Ig A class of antibody?
Hint: Airway
Located in the mucous membranes of GI tract and lungs and in many secretions; serves as first line of defense for microbes who enter via this route; secreted in breast milk
Found only on the surface of mature B cells, where it serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Antibody that binds to mast cell/parasitic worms surface. Stimulates release of histamine, heparin from mast cells. Allergy Rxn
Major antibody of the body. Fixes complement /promotes target cell lysis & enhances phagocytosis. Transferred across placenta
First class produced in response to antigen. Fixes complement/promotes cell lysis. Found on mature B cells /serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Which statement best describes the Ig D class of antibody?
Hint: What letter rhymes with B
Located in the mucous membranes of GI tract and lungs and in many secretions; serves as first line of defense for microbes who enter via this route; secreted in breast milk
Found only on the surface of mature B cells, where it serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Antibody that binds to mast cell/parasitic worms surface. Stimulates release of histamine, heparin from mast cells. Allergy Rxn
Major antibody of the body. Fixes complement /promotes target cell lysis & enhances phagocytosis. Transferred across placenta
First class produced in response to antigen. Fixes complement/promotes cell lysis. Found on mature B cells /serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Which statement best describes the Ig E class of antibody?
Hint: SnEEzE Worm
Located in the mucous membranes of GI tract and lungs and in many secretions; serves as first line of defense for microbes who enter via this route; secreted in breast milk
Found only on the surface of mature B cells, where it serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Antibody that binds to mast cell/parasitic worms surface. Stimulates release of histamine, heparin from mast cells. Allergy Rxn
Major antibody of the body. Fixes complement /promotes target cell lysis & enhances phagocytosis. Transferred across placenta
First class produced in response to antigen. Fixes complement/promotes cell lysis. Found on mature B cells /serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Which statement best describes the Ig G class of antibody?
Hint: Greatest Amounts
Located in the mucous membranes of GI tract and lungs and in many secretions; serves as first line of defense for microbes who enter via this route; secreted in breast milk
Found only on the surface of mature B cells, where it serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Antibody that binds to mast cell/parasitic worms surface. Stimulates release of histamine, heparin from mast cells. Allergy Rxn
Major antibody of the body. Fixes complement /promotes target cell lysis & enhances phagocytosis. Transferred across placenta
First class produced in response to antigen. Fixes complement/promotes cell lysis. Found on mature B cells /serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Which statement best describes the Ig M class of antibody?
Hint: PriMary
Located in the mucous membranes of GI tract and lungs and in many secretions; serves as first line of defense for microbes who enter via this route; secreted in breast milk
Found only on the surface of mature B cells, where it serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Antibody that binds to mast cell/parasitic worms surface. Stimulates release of histamine, heparin from mast cells. Allergy Rxn
Major antibody of the body. Fixes complement /promotes target cell lysis & enhances phagocytosis. Transferred across placenta
First class produced in response to antigen. Fixes complement/promotes cell lysis. Found on mature B cells /serves as a receptor for antigen recognition
Which statement best describes the difference between active and passive immunity?
In active immunity the immune system produces antibodies, but in passive immunity the immune system provided antibodies
In passive immunity, the immune system produces antibodies, but in active immunity the immune system provided antibodies
Which type of immunity is described in the phrase below
"vaccine administered to produce antibodies"
Active-artificial immunity
Active-natural immunity
Passive-artificial immunity
Passive-natural immunity
Which type of immunity is described in the phrase below
"antigen enters the body naturally and stimulates the body to produce antibodies"
Active-artificial immunity
Active-natural immunity
Passive-artificial immunity
Passive-natural immunity
Which type of immunity is described in the phrase below
"Giving a patient preformed antibodies (immune globulins). Protects immediately but persists only as long as the antibodies remain in the body. "
Active-artificial immunity
Active-natural immunity
Passive-artificial immunity
Passive-natural immunity
Which type of immunity is described in the phrase below
"Antibodies are passed from a mother to a fetus via placenta or mother to newborn via breast milk "
Active-artificial immunity
Active-natural immunity
Passive-artificial immunity
Passive-natural immunity
A patient receives an organ transplant. Which component of the immune system will recognize self from nonself (the transplanted organ) in this patient?
Major histocompatibility complex molecules
Helper T cells (CD4 cells)
Complement system
Monokines
A patient asks the nurse to explain how antibodies protect the body against bacterial diseases. Which statement is an accurate response by the nurse?
“Antibodies that destroy bacteria are part of the body’s natural immunity. No prior exposure to the bacteria is needed for the body to respond.”
“Antibodies attach to the antigens (or large molecules) on the bacteria surface, creating a way for white blood cells to attach and destroy the bacteria.”
Antibodies are large molecules present on the surface of bacteria. White blood cells are able to neutralize these antibodies and destroy the bacteria.”
“Most antibodies that protect against bacteria are called immunoglobulin A. These antibodies are found on the surface of mature B cells.”
All of the following statements about antibodies are true EXCEPT:
Mediate natural (innate) immunity
Family of structurally related glycoproteins that recognize and bind with specific antigens
Produced by B lymphocytes
Five classes: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM
Mediate humoral immunity
Which of the following statements regarding antigens are TRUE ?
Molecules that induce specific immune responses
They may trigger production of antibodies or cytotoxic T cells, or both
Only small portions of the antigen are bound and selected by the antibody
Antigens can only bind to one antibody at a time
Antibody-Mediated (Humoral) immunity
Produces Antibodies
Is composed of 3 cells types - B cells, Helper T cells, Macrophages/Dendritic cells (APCs)
Have antibody effector mechanisms (opsonization of bacteria, activation of complement system, Neutralize bacteria & toxins)
Cell-Mediated Immunity
Is composed of 2 branches
Delayed type hypersensitivity - Activates helper T cells/macrophages
Cytolytic T Lymphocytes - (Activate Killer T cells, Recognition of infected target cells, cause target cell lysis)
What is a vaccine?
Whole or fractionated microorganisms used to stimulate an immune response may be killed or live.
Bacterial toxin that has been changed to a nontoxic form
Any vaccine or toxoid
What is a toxoid?
Whole or fractionated microorganisms used to stimulate an immune response may be killed or live.
Bacterial toxin that has been changed to a nontoxic form
Any vaccine or toxoid
What is a vaccination?
Whole or fractionated microorganisms used to stimulate an immune response may be killed or live.
Bacterial toxin that has been changed to a nontoxic form
Any vaccine or toxoid
Which of the following are only LIVE vaccines?
MMR, Varicella (Chicken Pox), Influenza (Nasal Spray)
DTAP, MMR, Polio
HiB, Influenza, Polio
Influenza, Tdap, HiB
Which of the following statements are FALSE about the influenza vaccine?
Influenza vaccine may be given as a IM shot or nasal spray
The shot may be administered to age 6months+ and the nasal spray can be administered to ages 2-49yrs.
Only the shot may be administered to pregnant women
Adverse effects include: Seizures, Risk of Guillain-Barre, Myalgia, Vomiting, Diarrhea
None of the statements about the influenza vaccine are false
Which statements apply to the DTAP, Tdap, DT vaccinations? (select all that apply)
The vaccination protects against diptheria, tetanus, & pertussis (whooping cough)
The vaccine can cause behavioral changes (anorexia, drowsiness, irritability)
Adverse effects include; high fever 105, acute encephalopathy, inconsolable crying, seizures
Which of the following are adverse effects of the MMR vaccine?
Low platelet count; Thrombocytopenia
Deafness
Seizures; Brain damage
Pneumonia
Intussception
Which of the following people should get the MMR vaccine?
A pregnant woman
A man who has had a blood transfusion in the last 5 months
A child who is allergic to eggs, gelatin, or neomycin
A person with a history of thrombocytopenia
A child with a mild fever, cough, and runny nose
Which of the following statements about the varicella (chicken pox) vaccine is FALSE?
It is contraindicated in pregnant women and those allergic to gelatin or neomycin
Adverse effects include pneumonia, low blood count, severe brain reactions
It is administered in 2 doses to confer full immunity to the disease.
Only children should get the varicella vaccine
Anyone who has never had the chickenpox or been vaccinated should receive the vaccine.
The polio vaccine
has eradicated the polio disease - poliomyelitis
contraindicated in those allergic to neomycin, streptomycin, or polymyxin B
only adverse effects includes tenderness at the injection site
The HiB vaccine
protects against the Haemophilus influenzae (causes Hib meningitis, pneumonia, pericarditis)
Adverse effects include fever over 101, vomiting, diarrhea, crying
Is not for use in children less than 6 weeks old.
Which of the following vaccines CAN'T be given to a child younger than 12 months?
MMR
Varicella
HiB/Polio
Influenza
DTAP
Which of the following vaccinations can be administered to a child as young as 2 months?
DTap
HiB/Polio
Varicella
Influena (Shot)
MMR
Which child should not receive the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) virus vaccine?
A child who is allergic to penicillin and milk
A child with a fever of 100.6°F (tympanic)
A child with acute lymphocytic leukemia
A child with asymptomatic HIV infection
The parent of a 6-month-old baby asks about the recommended childhood schedule for varicella vaccine. The nurse should inform the parent that the infant may receive the vaccine at which age?
6 months
8 months
10 months
12 months
Which vaccine has been identified as the safest, the one for which no adverse effects have been reported?
MMR
Varicella
Hepatitis B
Haemophilus influenzae type b
A nurse is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for seasonal influenza immunization. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than injection?
1 year old with no health problems
17 year old who has a hypersensitivity to penicillin
25 year old who is pregnant
52 year old who take a multivitamin supplement
A nurse is teaching a group of new guardians about immunizations. The nurse should instruct the guardians that the series for which of the following vaccines is completed prior to the first birthday.
Varicella
Rotavirus
Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
A nurse at a provider's office is preparing to administer RV, DTaP, Hib, PCV13, and IPV immunizations to a 4 month old infant. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Administer IPV only
Administer subcutaneous injection in the anterolateral thigh
Administer IM injections in the deltoid muscle
Give the infant a pacifier during vaccine injections
Teach caregiver to give aspirin on a schedule for 24hrs after immunizations
A 12 month old child just received the first MMR vaccine. For which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the family to monitor for as adverse effects of the MMR vaccine.
Rash
Swollen glands
Bruising (due to low platelet count)
Headache
Inconsolable crying
A nurse is caring for a group of client who are not protected against varicella. The nurse should prepare to administer varicella vaccine at this time to which of the following clients.
24 year old client who is pregnant
12 year old with severe allergy to neomycin
2 month old infant who has no health problems
32 yr old cleint who has essential hypertension
Which of the following is the mechanism of action for the immunosuppressants Cyclosporine and tacrolimus
They inhibit calcineurin which suppresses the production of interleukin (IL-2) needed for T-cell proliferation
They suppress immune response by killing B and T lymphocytes undergoing proliferation
They suppress B and T lymphocytes by interfering with folate metabolism
They blocks activation of T cells by IL-2
What is the therapeutic use of the immunosuppressants cyclosporine & tacrolimus?
Drug of choice for organ rejection (kidney, liver, and heart) of an allogenic transplant
Only for prevention of renal transplant rejection
Suppresses cell-mediated and humoral immune responses
What are the adverse effects of the immunosuppressant Cyclosporine?
Nephrotoxicity, Hepatotoxicity, Hirsutism , Gynecomastia, Leukopenia, lymphoma, Hyperkalemia, Hypertension, infection, Gingival hyperplasia, sinusitis, anaphylactic reactions
Nephrotoxicity, Neurotoxicity, Gastrointestinal (GI) effects
Hypertension, Hyperkalemia, Hyperglycemia, Hirsutism
Gum hyperplasia, Anaphylaxis with IV administration
Increased risk of infection, Raises levels of cholesterol and triglycerides, Risk of renal injury, Severe complications in the liver and lung, rash, acne, anemia, thrombocytopenia, joint pain, diarrhea, hypokalemia
Peripheral edema, Constipation, Hypertension , Nausea
Anemia , Urinary tract infection , Hyperlipidemia
What are the adverse effects of the immunosuppressant Tacrolimus?
Nephrotoxicity, Hepatotoxicity, Hirsutism , Gynecomastia, Leukopenia, lymphoma, Hyperkalemia, Hypertension, infection, Gingival hyperplasia, sinusitis, anaphylactic reactions
Nephrotoxicity, Neurotoxicity, Gastrointestinal (GI) effects
Hypertension, Hyperkalemia, Hyperglycemia, Hirsutism
Gum hyperplasia, Anaphylaxis with IV administration
Increased risk of infection, Raises levels of cholesterol and triglycerides, Risk of renal injury, Severe complications in the liver and lung, rash, acne, anemia, thrombocytopenia, joint pain, diarrhea, hypokalemia
Peripheral edema, Constipation, Hypertension , Nausea
Anemia , Urinary tract infection , Hyperlipidemia
Which of the following is the mechanism of action for the immunosuppressant Sirolimus?
They inhibit calcineurin which suppresses the production of interleukin (IL-2) needed for T-cell proliferation
They suppress immune response by killing B and T lymphocytes undergoing proliferation
They inhibit the enzyme mTOR (mammalian target of rapamycin ) which regulates cell growth, proliferation & Survival
They blocks activation of T cells by IL-2
What is the the therapeutic use of the immunosuppressant Sirolimus?
In conjunction with cyclosporine and glucocorticoids, It is used to prevent the rejection of renal transplants.
It is used to treat cancer
It is used as a decongestant
Which of the following is the mechanism of action for the immunosuppressant Evrolimus?
They inhibit calcineurin which suppresses the production of interleukin (IL-2) needed for T-cell proliferation
They suppress immune response by killing B and T lymphocytes undergoing proliferation
They inhibit the enzyme mTOR (mammalian target of rapamycin ) which regulates cell growth, proliferation & Survival
It prevents activation of B Cells & T Cells
What is the mechanism of action for the cytotoxic drug Azathioprine?
It suppresses cell-mediated and humoral immune responses
They inhibit calcineurin which suppresses the production of interleukin (IL-2) needed for T-cell proliferation
They inhibit the enzyme mTOR (mammalian target of rapamycin ) which regulates cell growth, proliferation & Survival
What are the adverse effects of the cytotoxic drug Azathioprine?
Nephrotoxicity, Hepatotoxicity, Hirsutism , Gynecomastia, Leukopenia, lymphoma, Hyperkalemia, Hypertension, infection, Gingival hyperplasia, sinusitis, anaphylactic reactions
Nephrotoxicity, Neurotoxicity, Gastrointestinal (GI) effects
Hypertension, Hyperkalemia, Hyperglycemia, Hirsutism
Gum hyperplasia, Anaphylaxis with IV administration
Increased risk of infection, Raises levels of cholesterol and triglycerides, Risk of renal injury, Severe complications in the liver and lung, rash, acne, anemia, thrombocytopenia, joint pain, diarrhea, hypokalemia
Blood dyscrasias, Nausea and vomiting, Mutagenic and teratogenic, Neoplasms, Pancreatitis
What is the therapeutic use of the cytotoxic drug azathioprine?
Drug of choice for organ rejection (kidney, liver, and heart) of an allogenic transplant
Only for prevention of renal transplant rejection
Suppresses cell-mediated and humoral immune responses
Used as an adjuvant treatment with transplants and for some autoimmune disorders.
What is the therapeutic use of the antibody Basiliximab?
Used for prophylaxis of acute organ rejection after renal transplantation
Only for prevention of renal transplant rejection
Suppresses cell-mediated and humoral immune responses
Used as an adjuvant treatment with transplants and for some autoimmune disorders.
What are the adverse effects of the antibody drug Basiliximab?
None - its generally well tolerated, does not increase the risk of opportunistic infections, and no cancers have been observed 1 year after treatment.
Nephrotoxicity, Neurotoxicity, Gastrointestinal (GI) effects
Hypertension, Hyperkalemia, Hyperglycemia, Hirsutism
Gum hyperplasia, Anaphylaxis with IV administration
Increased risk of infection, Raises levels of cholesterol and triglycerides, Risk of renal injury, Severe complications in the liver and lung, rash, acne, anemia, thrombocytopenia, joint pain, diarrhea, hypokalemia
Blood dyscrasias, Nausea and vomiting, Mutagenic and teratogenic, Neoplasms, Pancreatitis
What is the mechanism of action for the antibody drug Basiliximab?
It suppresses cell-mediated and humoral immune responses
They inhibit calcineurin which suppresses the production of interleukin (IL-2) needed for T-cell proliferation
They inhibit the enzyme mTOR (mammalian target of rapamycin ) which regulates cell growth, proliferation & Survival
It blocks activation of T cells by IL-2
T or F - Minimum age for inactivated influenza vaccine is age 6 months
T
F
Which drug is the antidote for rivaroxaban and apixaban?
Protamine sulphate
Vitamin K
Coagulation Factor Xa
Coagulation factor VII
Which is a possible adverse effect of doxorubicin?
Cardiotoxicity
Neurotoxicity
Pulmonary toxicity
Hyperuricemia
Which of the following is a symptom of cytarbine syndrome?
Hypertension
Red man syndrome
Seizures
Conjunctivitis
What is the antidote for hypermagnesium?
Glucose
Insulin
Potassium
Calcium glucanate
Basiliximab is used to treat which condition?
Rejection from a kidney transplant
Migraines
Gastroenteritis
Osteoarthritis
What is an adverse effect of methotrexate?
Mucosal ulceration
Birth defects if taken when pregnant
Bone marrow suppression
Sleeping difficulties
What should a patient take with their ferrous sulfate?
Antacid
Milk
Cereal
Nothing
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of diphenhydramine?
Urinary hesitancy
Drowsiness
Dry Mouth
Diarrhea
What drug group does Fexofenadine belong to?
Anticholinergic
Antihistamine
Antihypertensive
Anti-Arrythmia
Promethazine is a(n)
Anti-tussive
Antihistamine (H1)
Antihistamine (H2)
Anti-emetic
Cyclooxygenase selective 2 inhibitors affect both COX-1 & COX-2 pathways
T
F
The nurse would administer the varicella vaccine to a 15-month old child diagnosed with what?
Long term use of chemotherapy
Leukemia
AIDS
Mild Upper respiratory tract infection
What is a common side effect of Tamoxifen?
Increased risk of glaucoma
Increased risk of endometrial cancer
Increased bleeding time
Decreased bone density
Which of the following is an adverse effect of Vincristine?
Urinary retention
Weak hand grasps
Peripheral Edema
Constricted pupils
T or F - Intrinsic factor helps the small intestine absorb vitamin B12
T
F
Deficiency of thiamine causes
Influenza
Pellagra
Beri-Beri
Anemia
Folic acid helps to
Grow nails and hair
Heal cuts and bruises
Create collagen
Prevent Spina Bifida
What does Vitamin A help us with?
Night Vision
Bone health
Wound healing
Antioxidants
These vitamins include B & C
Fat soluble vitamin
Water soluble vitamin
The patient is receiving epoetin alfa. Which lab result indicate therapeutic effect of the medication?
Hematocrit of 35%
WBC count of 6000
Blood urea nitrogen level of 15mg/dl
Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm3
What is an example of a DMARD?
Acetaminophen
Allopurinol
SNRIs
Methotrexate
Which of the following is a drug interaction with celecoxib?
Increase effect of lisinopril
Lithium level is increased
Increases effect of furosemide
Fluconazole decreases effect of celecoxib
What lab value is used to monitor warfarin therapy?
PT/NR
RBC
WBC
PTT
What lab value is used to evaluate heparin therapy?
PTT
PT
INR
RBC
Which of the following is anti-platelet drug?
Aspirin
Warfarin
Coumadin
Streptokinase
What is Filgrastim used to treat?
Neutropenia
Constipation
Sepsis
Nausea
What medication can be used to treat hyperkalemia?
Ace inhibitors, sodium polystyrene sulfate
Phosphorus, sodium chloride
Spironolactone, Calcium channel blocker,
Insulin/glucose, sodium polystyrene sulfate
What is the MOA of Dabigatran?
Inhibition of glycoprotein llb/llla complex
Vitamin K antagonist
Direct inhibitor of thrombin
Selective inhibitor of factor Xa
Oral potassium chloride supplements must be
never administered by mouth
administered on an empty stomach
Given IV bolus, never by mouth
Diluted prior to administration
Which adverse effect may be seen while a client is on cyclophosphamide?
Hemorrhagic cystitis
Red man syndrome
Body fluids turned red
Peripheral neuropathy
You are administering cyclosporine to your patient. You understand this is needed to prevent
Rejection of a transplanted organ
A fungal infection
An increase in uric acid
The immune system from attacking itself
What should the nurse include in the discharge instruction for a patient on cyclosporine>
Avoid large crowds and people who are sick
Take this medication on an empty stomach
Use a soft bristled toothbrush and avoid flossing
Change positions slowly to avoid hypotension
What are the symptoms of salicylate intoxication?
Headache
Tinnitus
Nausea
All of the above
What should you teach a patient/family about enoxaparin on discharge?
How to administer IM
PT/INR will be done weekly
Watch for bleeding/excessive bruising
Avoid green leafy vegetables
T o F - You can give Alteplase with a hemorrhagic stroke?
T
F
What is the classification of Clopridogrel?
Anti-platelet
Anti-Coagulant
Thrombolytic
Direct thrombin inhibitor
What does allopurinol treat?
Acute gout
Chronic Gout
Fluid Retention
Pain
What is an acute treatment for gout?
Colchicine
Allopurinol
Probenecid
Febuxostat
