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Review units 4,5,6

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 4hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is correct for the way in which carbon dioxide enters the leaves of terrestrial and aquatic plants?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

2.

What is the aim when setting up a mesocosm?

a)

Allowing the entry and exit of energy from the mesocosm

b)

Establishing sustainability in the mesocosm ecosystem

c)

Testing the effect of a single factor on the mesocosm ecosystem

d)

To allow organisms to leave and enter the mesocosm freely

3.

Fungi release enzymes and digest decaying organic matter externally; therefore, they are described as

(a)  

4.

Over the last 150 years the Earth’s climate has changed. Which description best describes climate change during this time?

a)

An overall decrease in global average temperatures with numerous fluctuations

b)

A steady increase in global temperatures

c)

An overall increase in global average temperatures with numerous fluctuations

d)

A steady decrease in global temperatures

5.

Electromagnetic radiation is emitted from the Sun in a spectrum of wavelengths, including visible light. Which colour of visible light has the shortest wavelength?

a)

red

b)

green

c)

yellow

d)

blue

6.

(a)   radiation is the type of long-wavelength radiation given off from the Earth in the form of heat.

7.

Some marine organisms build an exoskeleton or shell out of calcium carbonate in a process called (a)  

8.

Which of the following processes does not increase the amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

respiration

c)

combustion

d)

methane oxidation

9.

The calcium carbonate within limestone can be decomposed when acid rain weathers the limestone.


This releases (a)   back into the atmosphere.

10.

In a diagram showing a pyramid of biomass there may be an another block on the primary consumer level in addition to herbivores. What does this additional block represent?

a)

saprotrophs only

b)

decomposers

c)

detritivores only

d)

fungi only

11.

Which of the following are ways in which energy can be lost from one trophic level to another?

I. heat

II. excretion

III. not all of the organism in one level is consumed by a consumer.

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I, II and III

d)

II and III only

12.

If a population of secondary consumers in a food chain is destroyed by disease, the populations of tertiary consumers would (a)  

13.

Not all energy is passed from one trophic level to the next. Most of the energy is lost to the surroundings as (a)  

14.

Which of the following is true of heterotrophs?

I. They are able to produce all their own organic molecules.

II. They obtain organic molecules from other organisms.

III. They may use internal or external digestion.

a)

II and III only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II, and III

15.

Which of the following statements about a hybrid is false?

a)

A hybrid often has an odd number of chromosomes.

b)

The parent species do not need to be closely related.

c)

A hybrid is the offspring of two different species.

d)

The parents must not be of the same species.

16.

Which type of organism feeds on dead organisms whilst respiring to release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Fungi

c)

Decomposers

d)

Plants

17.

Which of the following are consequences of increasing global temperatures?

i. Rising sea levels

ii. Deforestation

iii. Increased flooding of low-lying areas

iv. Loss of coral reefs

a)

i, ii, iii and iv

b)

i, ii and iv only

c)

ii and iv only

d)

i, iii and iv only

18.

In a food chain energy can be lost in a number of ways. What percentage of energy is usually lost between trophic levels?

a)

90%

b)

70%

c)

50%

d)

30%

19.

Which of the following is the correct definition of a community?

a)

Several populations of different species living together and interacting with each other.

b)

A population of one organism living in a particular area.

c)

A group of organisms that can cross-breed to produce fertile offspring.

d)

The environment where a species lives.

20.

The diagram is a representation of a carbon cycle. Which arrow will increase the greenhouse effect?

a)

i only

b)

ii only

c)

iii only

d)

ii and iv

21.

Global warming caused by the greenhouse effect is likely to have consequences for arctic ecosystems. Which of the following are a possible outcome?

I. Decreased rates of decomposition of detritus

II. Increased range of predators from temperate regions

III. Increase in numbers of pest species and pathogens

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

22.

Which represents a correct food chain from this web?

a)

roach → caddis fly larva → unicellular algae

b)

ciliates → Daphnia → roach → dragonfly nymph

c)

diatom → midge larva → caddisfly larva → roach

d)

filamentous algae → mayfly nymph → leech → roach

23.

What is the mode of nutrition of midge larva?

a)

Autotroph

b)

Chemotroph

c)

Heterotroph

d)

Saprotroph

24.

The diagram shows the carbon cycle. Which number indicates respiration?

a)

i

b)

ii

c)

iii

d)

iv

25.

The diagram shows a pyramid of energy for a swamp. What units would be appropriate for the values shown?

a)

kg yr1kg\ yr^{-1}

b)

kJ m2 yr1kJ\ m^{-2}\ yr^{-1}

c)

J m2J\ m^{-2}

d)

mg dry mass m3mg\ dry\ mass\ m^{-3}

26.

What has happened to the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere during the twentieth and twenty-first century?

a)

An upward trend with annual fluctuations.

b)

An upward trend with no annual fluctuations.

c)

Annual fluctuations but no overall trend.

d)

Random fluctuations and no overall trend.

27.

Which are decomposers?

a)

Fungi

b)

Viruses

c)

Porifera

d)

Coniferophyta

28.

What is recycled in an ecosystem?

a)

Nitrogen, carbon and energy are all recycled.

b)

Nitrogen and carbon are recycled but energy is not.

c)

Nitrogen is recycled, but not carbon or energy.

d)

Nitrogen, carbon and energy are not recycled.

29.

In a pond, two species of frogs feed on worms. The worms feed on the algae that live in the water. What constitutes a population in this ecosystem?

a)

All the living organisms.

b)

All the animals.

c)

All the fish.

d)

All the frogs of one species.

30.

What best describes the mode of nutrition of a heterotroph?

a)

It ingests only long-dead organic matter.

b)

It obtains organic molecules from other organisms.

c)

It synthesizes its organic molecules from inorganic substances.

d)

It produces its organic molecules from chemical reactions using light.

31.

Which plant phylum reproduces via spores and has roots, leaves and stems?

a)

Filicinophyta

b)

Bryophyta

c)

Coniferophyta

d)

Angiospermophyta

32.

The animal phylum (a)   have a single opening responsible for ingestion and egestion, and have radial symmetry.

33.

In selective breeding, individuals possessing desired traits or characteristics are bred in the hope that they will pass on the (a)   for the desired trait to their offspring.

34.

Which of the following is a difference between cladograms and phylogenetic trees?

a)

Cladograms show the sequence of divergence whilst phylogenetic trees show the evolutionary history of an organism and the timeline of evolution.

b)

Cladograms have nodes whilst phylogenetic trees do not.

c)

Phylogenetic trees show which organisms are the most recent common ancestors whilst cladograms do not.

d)

Cladograms can show many families whilst phylogenetic trees cannot.

35.

Which two plant phyla reproduce using spores?

a)

bryophyta and filicinophyta

b)

coniferophyta and bryophyta

c)

angiospermophyta and coniferophyta

d)

filicinophyta and angiospermophyta

36.

Which of the following measures would decrease the spread of antibiotic resistance?

I. doctors and nurses washing hands between patient consultations

II. ensuring courses of antibiotics are completed

III. prescribing antibiotics for all suspected bacterial infections

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

37.

Which of the following are reasons for overproduction of offspring?

I. Individuals best adapted to find food will survive when food is hard to find.

II. Individuals best adapted to survive disease will survive when disease spreads.

III. Individuals best adapted to attract a mate will survive and pass on their advantageous alleles.

a)

I, II and III

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

III only

38.

The beaks of Galapagos finches vary in size and shape thanks to natural selection and the types of (a)   available on the island on which they live.

39.

Meiosis produces genetically different daughter cells because homologous chromosomes are able to swap some of their alleles. This process is called (a)   .

40.

Which of the following are examples of continuous variation in birds?

I. wingspan

II. beak length

III. feather colour

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

II only

41.

Which of the following statements is true of selective breeding?

a)

Selective breeding requires human involvement.

b)

Selective breeding increases the number of alleles in a population.

c)

Selective breeding produces new species.

d)

Selective breeding takes place over one generation.

42.

If a chicken were to die in a situation in which sedimentary rock is forming, which of the following parts of the chicken would be most likely to be fossilised?

I. feathers

II. bones

III. muscle tissue

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I, II and III

43.

(a)   variation is seen in characteristics such as skin colour and height, which can be influenced by the environment in which an individual lives.

44.

Identify the correct term that describes a group of organisms, both extant (currently surviving) and extinct that share an ancestor.

a)

Cladistics

b)

Clade

c)

Cladogram

d)

Analogous structure

45.

Whales and hippopotami have been reclassified as having the same recent ancestor, despite being in different orders and appearing to be physically different. Which of the following provided evidence to support the recent reclassification of these organisms?

a)

Analysis of DNA sequences.

b)

The invention of the clade

c)

Protein structure.

d)

New fossil records.

46.

Identify the example of convergent evolution.

a)

The development of wings in birds and insects.

b)

The finches of the Galapagos Islands.

c)

The limbs of dogs, wolves, and humans.

d)

Three different species of fox.

47.

A gene mutates at a rate of 1 base pair every 150,000 years. Scientists note that there are five base pairs difference between two species. Estimate how long ago that the divergence will have taken place.

a)

Not possible to determine from the information given.

b)

30,000 years.

c)

750,000 years.

d)

500,000 years.

48.

Look at the cladogram shown. And determine the feature(s) that differentiates between primates and crocodiles.

a)

Hair and eggs with shells

b)

Hair

c)

Eggs with shells

d)

Amniotic egg

49.

Look at the cladogram shown and determine the common feature that these organisms all share between them.

a)

Vertebrae

b)

Bony skeleton

c)

Eggs with shells

d)

Hair

50.

Which of the following is the term for a group of organisms that evolve from a single common ancestor?

a)

Kingdom

b)

Domain

c)

Clade

d)

Binomial

51.

Identify the reason why the light-peppered moth was able to survive before the Industrial Revolution.

a)

It was camouflaged against the dark-coloured trees.

b)

Predators did not exist before the revolution.

c)

It was camouflaged against the light-coloured trees.

d)

They passed on their genes to the darker offspring.

52.

The following question refers to the diagram


Which event(s) indicated by "I" could lead to a bacterial population with more antibiotic resistance?

a)

Increased mutation rate.

b)

Synthesis of the enzyme needed for antibiotic resistance is increased.

c)

Increased presence of antibiotics leads to more selective pressure.

d)

The generation time of the bacteria is halved.

53.

Which is the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence homology?

a)

Dogs and wolves share many morphologies.

b)

Dogs and wolves belong to the same family.

c)

Dogs and wolves are both members of the order Carnivora.

d)

Dogs and wolves shared a common ancestor very recently.

54.

Which kind of DNA may provide the best molecular clock for constructing a cladogram of several species whose common ancestor became extinct billions of years ago?

a)

That coding for ribosomal RNA.

b)

Intronic DNA belonging to a gene whose product performs a crucial function.

55.

Cladograms constructed by using molecular data comparison (proteins and/or DNA) are based on similarities in:

a)

Morphology.

b)

The pattern of embryological development.

c)

Biochemical pathways.

d)

Mutations to homologous genes.

56.

Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family. What can we conclude on the basis of the morphological similarities of these two species? They are due to?

a)

Inheritance of acquired characteristics.

b)

Sexual selection.

c)

Inheritance of shared characters.

d)

Possession of analogous structures.

57.

The best classification system is that which:

a)

Unites organisms that possess similar morphologies.

b)

Conforms to taxonomic practices.

c)

Reflects evolutionary history.

d)

Reflects the basic separation of domains.

58.

What causes variation in both sexually and asexually reproducing organisms?

a)

Mutations

b)

Polygenic inheritance

c)

Crossing over

d)

Independent assortment

59.

Which of the following represent homologous features?

a)

Wings in birds and beetles.

b)

The appendix in humans and donkeys.

c)

Dorsal fins in fish and wings in birds.

d)

The spotted coat of the cheetah and the ocelot.

60.

What can cause genetic variation?

I. Random orientation of pairs of chromosomes in meiosis

II. Mutations

III. Crossing over

a)

II only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

I, II and III

61.

Which of the following accurately shows where nutrients are absorbed into within the villi?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

62.

Which of the following is correct for the location of the breakdown of nutrients in the digestive system?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

63.

Bile contains bile salts that are able to break large fat droplets into smaller fat droplets. This process is called (a)  

64.

In the small intestine, bile emulsifies fats into small droplets, and then…

a)

lipase digests triglycerides into monoglycerides and fatty acids.

b)

lactase digests triglycerides into monoglycerides and fatty acids.

c)

lipase digests triglycerides into amino acids and fatty acids.

d)

lactase digests triglycerides into amino acids and fatty acids.

65.

Which structures would you expect to find in or on the villi?

I. goblet cells

II. lacteals

III. capillaries

a)

I and II

b)

I, II and III

c)

I and III

d)

II and III

66.

Dialysis tubing, also known as Visking tubing, can be used to model the absorption of digested food in the small intestine. What feature of dialysis tubing makes it suitable as a model for this process?

a)

semi-permeability of the membrane

b)

full permeability of the membrane

c)

impermeability of the membrane

d)

ion-permeability of the membrane

67.

Celiac disease is an immune disease that mainly affects the walls of the small intestine. It is characterised by shortening of the villi lining the small intestine, and frequently leads to iron-deficiency anemia. What could be possible consequences of celiac disease?

a)

decrease in the rate of nutrient absorption

b)

decrease in protein digestion

c)

decrease in the metabolic rate

d)

decrease in peristaltic movements

68.

Which enzymes are secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine?

a)

protease, amylase and lipase

b)

amylase, maltase and lipase

c)

lactase, amylase and protease

d)

pepsin, amylase and lipase

69.

The wall of the small intestine is made up of several layers of tissues. Which tissue layer has villi?

a)

mucosa

b)

muscle layers

c)

serosa

d)

sub-mucosa

70.

What is the function of peristalsis in the digestive tract?

a)

digesting food and moving it in two directions

b)

digesting food and moving it in one direction

c)

churning food and moving it in one direction

d)

churning food and allowing it to be absorbed in the small intestine

71.

What is the function of the sinoatrial node?

a)

To send impulses to cause the contraction of the ventricle walls

b)

To send impulses to cause the contraction of the atrial walls

c)

To send impulses to cause the contraction of the atria and the ventricles

d)

To cause the heart to relax

72.

Which of the following statements is false about the structure of blood vessels?

a)

The innermost layer of a vein is the tunica intima

b)

Capillaries have fenestrations which allow large molecules to leave

c)

Arteries have the thickest walls

d)

Capillaries have valves to prevent backflow of blood

73.

What does the cardiovascular centre in the medulla oblongata of the brain monitor?

a)

blood pressure, blood pH and carbon dioxide concentration

b)

blood pressure, blood pH and oxygen concentration

c)

water potential, blood pressure and carbon dioxide concentration

d)

water potential, oxygen concentration and carbon dioxide concentration

74.

The stroke volume (SV) is the volume of blood pumped from a ventricle per beat. It is calculated using measurements of ventricle volumes from an echocardiogram and subtracting the volume of the blood in the ventricle at the end of a beat. Which of the factors could affect the stroke volume in a healthy heart?

a)

the size of the heart and prolonged aerobic exercise

b)

the blood pressure and prolonged aerobic exercise

c)

the size of arteries and thickness of the atrioventricular valves

d)

the concentration of oxygen in the blood and number of red blood cells

75.

A student is comparing the structure of arteries and veins. He jotted down a few similarities and differences between both vessels. Which of the comparisons is correct?

a)

Arteries have a narrow lumen and few elastic fibres in the wall while veins have a wider lumen and an abundance of elastic fibres in the wall.

b)

Arteries have a narrow lumen and abundance of elastic fibres in the wall while veins have a wider lumen and fewer elastic fibres in the wall.

c)

Arteries have thick walls and a wide lumen while veins have thinner walls and a narrower lumen.

d)

Arteries have thick walls and valves while veins have thinner walls and rarely have valves.

76.

William Harvey demonstrated that blood flow is unidirectional. What else did he prove by his experiments?

a)

Oxygenated blood returns to the heart from the body.

b)

Deoxygenated blood leaves the heart for the body.

c)

The heart pumps blood into the arteries.

d)

The heart pumps blood into the veins.

77.

Which of the following can lead to atherosclerosis?

I. Diabetes

II. Smoking

III. Exposure to UV light

a)

I, II and III

b)

I only

c)

I and III only

d)

I and II only

78.

Which hormone can be released to stimulate the heart to beat more quickly?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Insulin

c)

ADH

d)

Thyroxine

79.

Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood into the right atrium?

a)

Aorta

b)

Vena cava

c)

Pulmonary vein

d)

Pulmonary artery

80.

Which of the following is correct for the muscle layer in the walls of the different types of blood vessels?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D