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AP Biology - Unit 6 - Gene Expression

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have plasmids. What are plasmids?

a)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

b)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

c)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

d)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

2.

Operons are found in which of the following organisms?

a)

Bacteria(prokaryotes)

b)

plants and animals(eukaryotes)

c)

only animals

d)

virsuses

3.

Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines.

a)

Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring

b)

Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring

c)

Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring

d)

Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring

4.

Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

5.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA strands?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

6.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

c)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

7.

Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications?

a)

5' cap

b)

intron removal

c)

poly-A tail

d)

TATA box

8.
An operon consists of all the the following EXCEPT
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
regulatory gene
d)
genes of the operon
9.

During transcription, what is the relationship between DNA and RNA?

a)

Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

b)

Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

c)

Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

d)

Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

10.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5'

b)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

c)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

11.

How do the three types of RNA work together?

a)

mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome

b)

mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information

c)

mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome

d)

mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose

12.

What determines the level of effect of a mutation?

a)

environmental context

b)

codon-anticodon pairing

c)

structure of protein

d)

process of meiosis

13.

How do retroviruses violate the central dogma?

a)

Retroviruses are responsible for using DNA to synthesize more viral RNA

b)

Retroviruses are pre-historic and existed prior to the central dogma

c)

Retroviruses use enzymes to make DNA from RNA & integrate into host DNA

d)

Retroviruses use host DNA to make viral RNA, then incorporate into host DNA

14.

Which of the following describes epigenetic changes that affect gene expression?

a)

alternative RNA splicing

b)

post-transcriptional modification

c)

DNA methylation or histone acetylation

d)

operon inhibition

15.

Identify the primary source of genetic variation

a)

crossing over

b)

mutations

c)

random fertilization

d)

independent assortment

16.

Which enzyme is requires RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

17.

Which of the following genetic engineering techniques is incorrectly described?

a)

Electrophoresis separates molecules based on size & charge

b)

Bacterial transformation introduces DNA to bacterial cells

c)

PCR allows for DNA fragments to be stabilized for engineering processes

d)

DNA sequencing determines the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule

18.

Which is not a component of DNA nucleotides?

a)

Ribose sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Deoxyribose sugar

19.

Which enzyme is responsible for joining the fragments on the lagging strand?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

20.

Translation is a process where:

a)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of rRNA codons.

b)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of tRNA codons.

c)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of mRNA codons.

d)

a DNA nucleotide sequence is used to produce mRNA codon sequence.

21.

Hox genes are the most powerful control on the morphology of animals. They do this by:

a)

being highly conserved.

b)

coding for the body plan.

c)

coding body segmentation.

d)

regulating transcription of other genes.

22.

Translation in eukaryotes occurs:

a)

outside of the nucleus.

b)

inside of the nucleus.

23.

What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called?

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

triplet box

d)

wobble

24.
Which biotechnology is used to make exact DNA copies of an organism?
a)
Gel electrophoresis
b)
Genetic Engineering
c)
Inbreeding
d)
Cloning
25.

Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

26.

True or False: All of your body cells contain the same genes.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

What is an operon?

a)

a part of a ribsome

b)

a part of a Rna

c)

a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task

d)

needed for dna replication

28.

What does a promoter do?

a)

binds RNA polymerase for transcription

b)

binds DNA polymerase for replication

c)

binds the operator

d)

binds the repressor

29.

Which RNA type is the result of transcription?

a)

tRNA

b)

Non-coding RNA

c)

rRNA

d)

mRNA

30.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
31.

How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote?

a)

Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA

b)

Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA

c)

Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has prokaryote DNA

d)

Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA

32.

When subunits are available in the environment, a cell will use them to create necessary macromolecules. What type of operon would it most likely use for this process?

a)

repressible operon

b)

inducible operon

33.

What is 1 in the diagram?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Inducer

c)

Repressor

d)

Operator

34.

Double-stranded DNA has ________ bonds in-between base pairs, and _________ bonds that make up the sugar-phosphate backbone.

a)

hydrogen, covalent

b)

covalent, hydrogen

35.
An application of using DNA technology to help environmental scientists would be ___.
a)
use PCR to analyze DNA at a crime scene
b)
create a tobacco plant that glows in the dark
c)
clone the gene for human growth hormone to treat pituitary dwarfism
d)
make transgenic bacteria that can be used to clean up oil spills more quickly than do the natural bacteria
36.

Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they

a)

express different genes.

b)

contain different genes.

c)

use different genetic codes.

d)

have unique ribosomes

37.

The lac operon genes only become expressed if:

a)

lactose binds to repressor

b)

glucose binds to repressor

c)

repressor binds to operator

d)

lactose binds to operator

38.

Which of the following can serve as an "off" switch in eukaryotic organisms?

a)

Histone acetylation

b)

DNA methylation

c)

Operator

d)

Repressor

39.

Alternative RNA splicing involves

a)

removing introns and splicing the same exons together

b)

removing exons and splicing the same introns together

c)

removing introns and splicing different exons together

d)

removing exons and splicing different introns together

40.
Which of the follwoing best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?
a)
it is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor
b)
it sets the reading frame of the mRNA
c)
it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding
d)
it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene
41.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
42.
In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 
a)
the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
b)
several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
c)
the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
d)
the DNA introns are removed from the template.
43.

Observe the results above. What gene is present in the engineered plasmid?

a)

kanamycin resistant gene

b)

ampicillin resistant gene

c)

tetracycline resistant gene

d)

No plasmid is necessary to grow on plate 3.

44.

The host range of the virus is determined by ____.

a)

whether or not its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA

b)

the proteins on the surface and that of the host

c)

the enzymes carried by the virus

d)

the protein's in the hosts cytoplasm

45.

Viruses _____.

a)

use the host cell to copy themselves and then viruses to synthesize their own proteins

b)

metabolize food to produce their own ATP

c)

use the host cell to copy themselves and make viral proteins

d)

manufacture their own ATP, proteins, and nucleic acids

46.

What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?

a)

inducible

b)

repressible

c)

positive control

d)

promotor

47.

Which of the following is a medical application of genetic engineering?

a)

Inserting human DNA into bacterial DNA for insulin production

b)

Manipulating of DNA to produce glowing monkeys

c)

Engineering crops for greater nutritional content

d)

Modifying genes to achieve a desirable phenotype

48.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
49.

What is 2 in the diagram?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Inducer

c)

Repressor

d)

Operator

50.

Why do scientists consider HIV to be an emerging virus?

a)

HIV is now starting to cause diseases other than AIDS, such as rare types of cancer and pneumonia

b)

HIV infected humans long before the 80's, but it has now mutated to a more deadly form

c)

HIV mutates rapidly making the virus very different from HIV in the early 80's

d)

HIV suddenly became more apparent and widespread in the 80's

51.

Bacterial DNA that is often circular or in the shape of a ring is called a:

a)

Clone

b)

Plasmid

c)

Fragment

d)

Recombinant DNA

52.

What are prions?

a)

tiny circular molecules of RNA that can infect plants

b)

misfolded versions of normal proteins that can causes disease

c)

viral DNA that attaches itself to the host cell genome and cause disease

d)

mobile segments of DNA

53.

Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle?

a)

the viral genome replicates without destroying the host

b)

Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome

c)

a large number of phages are released at a time

d)

the virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations

54.

Which viruses have single stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis?

a)

viroids

b)

bacteriophages

c)

retroviruses

d)

proviruses

55.

Which of the following can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans?

a)

taking antibiotics

b)

taking vitamins

c)

taking drugs that inhibit transcription

d)

getting vaccinated

56.

LB containing ampicillin (2nd plate) is inoculated with the E. coli bacteria that contains ampicillin resistant gene. The bacteria will;

a)

Grow on the agar plate

b)

Will not grow on the agar plate.

c)

will only grow after the plate has been incubated at 45C

d)

will only grow after the plate has been placed in a warm water bath for 2 minutes.

57.

The envelope of an enveloped virus

a)

helps the virus enter the cell

b)

is coded for by viral genes

c)

helps the virus insert its DNA into the host cell genome

d)

accounts for viruses resistant to antibiotics

58.
Which of the following is an enzymatic protein that acts as DNA glue?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
59.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage
60.
Which of the following is a protein that acts as DNA scissors?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
61.
The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as
a)
sticky end.
b)
base sequence.
c)
single strands.
d)
restriction fragments.
62.
What does PCR stand for?
a)
Polymerase Chronic Reagent
b)
Principle Chorionic Reliability
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
d)
Probably Cannot React
63.

What is transformation?

a)

The use of viruses to transform or genetically engineer cells.

b)

The measure of how well cells are transformed in a new phenotype.

c)

The insertion of a plasmid with a foreign gene into a bacterial cell which results in new acquired traits.

d)

Genetic engineering or transformation of mammalian cells.

64.

Examine the results for group 4. Why would this group see growth without RFP in the third plate?

a)

The bacteria cells did not transform.

b)

The bacteria cells transformed, but did not incorporate the plasmid containing the RFP gene.

c)

The bacteria cells transformed, but did not incorporate the plasmid with the arabinose gene.

d)

Group 4 did not observe growth in the third plate.

65.

Which of the following supports the argument that viruses are nonliving?

a)

Their DNA does not encode proteins

b)

They have RNA rather than DNA

c)

They are not cellular

d)

They do not evolve

66.

Which of the following terms describes the process of the uptake of recombinant plasmids into bacteria cells?

a)

amplification

b)

insertion

c)

transformation

d)

screening

67.

Which of the following statement is true concerning transformation;

a)

Bacterial transformation involves the transfer of genetic material that results in the acquisition of a new trait that is stable but not inheritable.

b)

There are no bacterial species that go thru the transformation process naturally.

c)

Transformation efficiencies are a way to determine how many cells were transformed per microgram of plasmid DNA used.

d)

The promoter is the region at the end of the gene .

68.
Recombinant DNA are currently used to produce____.
a)
clothing dye, cheese, and laundry products
b)
human antibiotics and vaccines
c)
crops that taste better and stay fresh longer
d)
all of these
69.

DNA can be cut with

a)

ligase

b)

helicase

c)

restriction enzymes

d)

DNA scissors

70.

When fragments of DNA are connected from different sources, this creates:

a)

A plasmid

b)

A clone

c)

Recombinant DNA

d)

Fragmented DNA

71.

What type of cut is this photo?

a)

Blunt

b)

sticky

72.
In bacteria, restriction enzymes are used for defense. They cut up the DNA of a virus that infects bacteria.
a)
True
b)
False
73.
In order to insert a human gene into plasmid, both must 
a)
code for the same gene product.
b)
be cut by the same restriction enzyme.
c)
originate from the same type of cell.
d)
have identical sequences.
74.

What are the steps of bacterial transformation in order?

a)

cut insulin gene and plasmid with same restriction enzyme, wait for insulin gene to start making insulin, put the plasmid into the bacteria cell

b)

cut insulin gene and plasmid with same restriction enzyme,isolate insulin gene, , combine insulin gene and plasmid at sticky ends to make a recombinant plasmid, insert the recombinant plasmid into a bacteria cell

c)

isolate insulin gene, cut insulin gene and plasmid with same restriction enzyme, combine insulin gene and plasmid at sticky ends to make a recombinant plasmid, insert the recombinant plasmid into a bacteria cell

d)

isolate plasmid, cut insulin gene and plasmid with same restriction enzyme, wait for insulin gene to start making isulin,combine insulin gene and plasmid at sticky ends to make a recombinant plasmid