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R276 Image Production Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The air gap technique can replace the effects of a low-ratio grid.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Which of the following projections results in a "natural" air gap

a)

AP Lumbar

b)

Lateral C-spine

c)

Lateral ankle

d)

Decubitus abdomen

3.

Which of the following are true about the Air Gap Technique? (select all that apply)

a)

Uses Increased OID

b)

Allows for scatter radiation to travel in divergent paths and miss the image receptor

c)

Eliminates the need for a grid

d)

You should always use the air gap technique with a 10:1 grid

4.

The number of bits per pixel, which identifies grayscale values

a)

Pixel pitch

b)

Histogram

c)

Bit depth

d)

Voxel

5.

A bit is a unit of digital information. It takes ___# of bits to create a byte

a)

8

b)

4

c)

2

d)

10

6.

A bit is considered the smallest unit of computer data

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Number of pixels in an XY direction making up a digital image

a)

Voxtel

b)

Matrix

c)

Bit Depth

d)

FOV

8.

In many cases, digital fluoroscopy eliminates which of the following?

a)

The need for a radiographer

b)

Postprocedure "overhead" images

c)

Image acquisition

d)

Accurate positioning

9.

In digital fluoroscopy, the image must be turned into digital form by what device?

a)

Digital-to-analog converter

b)

Flux capacitor

c)

Analog-to-digital converter

d)

DVD-ROM

10.

What is atomic mass?

a)

The number of protons plus the number of neutrons

b)

The number of photons

c)

The number of electrons

d)

The number of protons plus the number of electrons

11.

The law stating that the outer shell of an atom can contain no more than eight electrons is called

a)

Ohm's law

b)

Octet Rule

c)

Octagon rule

d)

Electron binding energy

12.

As distance decreases, the intensity of the x-ray beam

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

13.

Types of particulate radiation (select all that apply)

a)

Xrays

b)

Helium nuclei

c)

Beta particles

d)

Gamma Ray

e)

Electrons

14.

Self-induction is used in the operation of what device?

a)

Step up transformer

b)

Autotransformer

c)

Step down transformer

d)

Electronic time

15.

Electricity is supplied to the imaging department by

a)

Motor

b)

Rectifier

c)

Generator

d)

Voltmeter

16.

The electricity provided to the radiology department operates at

a)

120 pulses per second

b)

60 pulses per second

c)

110 pulses per second

d)

220 pulses per second

17.

A variable transformer that is used to select kVp for the Xray circuit is the

a)

Step-up transformer

b)

Autotransformer

c)

Step down transformer

d)

Rectifier

18.

Mathematical codes used to generate the digital image are called?

a)

Binary codes

b)

Algorithms

c)

Binary digits

d)

Bytes

19.

The space from the center of a pixel to the center of the adjacent pixel is called

a)

Pixel Density

b)

Bit Depth

c)

Pixel Pitch

d)

Matrix Depth

20.

The best scatter cleanup is achieved with the use of

a)

Air gap technique

b)

Focused grids

c)

Crosshatch grids

d)

Parallel grides

21.

In digital radiography, inappropriate collimation causes

a)

A fogged image

b)

pixel unresponsiveness

c)

DICOM incompatibility

d)

Histogram analysis error

22.

To reduce patient dose, exposure technique in digital imaging should be adjusted by

a)

Lowering kVp

b)

Increase mAs

c)

Shortening SID

d)

Increasing kVp

23.

What organization mandates a quality control program

a)

The Joint Commission

b)

OSHA

c)

FDA

d)

State Health Department

24.

The collimator/light field to radiation field alignment must be accurate to within __% of the SID

a)

2

b)

4

c)

1

d)

10

25.

The Effective focal spot size should be within ___% of the size state in the equipment specification

a)

10

b)

20

c)

60

d)

50

26.

The kVp must be accurate to within __% of the kVp indicated

a)

10

b)

20

c)

50

d)

15

27.

Exposure linearity: Adjacent mA stations should be within ___% of one another

a)

10

b)

20

c)

50

d)

5

28.

The fluoroscopy exposure rate: Tested with a digital dosimeter; dose should not be more than ___mGy per minute

a)

100

b)

200

c)

50

d)

500

29.

The range of exposures that may be captured by a dector

a)

Dynamic Range

b)

Exposure latitude

c)

Subject Contrast

30.

A CR plate should be erased at least every

a)

12 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

72 hours

31.

How often should a CR reader be calibrated?

a)

Monthy

b)

Yearly

c)

Daily

d)

Every 6 months

32.

Histogram of pixel values from image acquisition that can be used to correct or enhance luminance values

a)

The look up table (LUT)

b)

Spatial frequency

c)

Subtraction panel

d)

Exposure reproducibility

33.

As window level increases, image brightness ____

a)

increases

b)

decreases

34.

As window width narrows, contrast ____?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

35.

Vertical or horizontal lines across a CR image may be due to?

a)

A crack or bend in the CR plate

b)

Inadequate erasure of the image receptor

c)

Fog on the CR plate

d)

Malfunctioning rollers in the the CR pate reader

36.

A light area on an CR image may be caused by?

a)

Hair, dust, or adhesive on the surface of the IR or plate reader rollers

b)

A bend or crack in the imaging plate

c)

Malfunctioning rollers in the CR plate reader

37.

Incorrectly oriented grides may cause ____on the image.

a)

A moire pattern

b)

misalignment of the exposure field

c)

Histogram error

d)

Loss of information

38.

Occupational Exposure: Annual effective dose limit

a)

50 mSv

b)

150 mSv

c)

5 mSv

d)

.5 mSv

39.

Occupational exposure: Lens of the eye

a)

.5 mSv

b)

150 mSv

c)

50 mSv

d)

5 mSv

40.

Occupational Exposure: Annual equivalent dose for skin, hands, & feet

a)

5 mSv

b)

50 mSv

c)

150 mSv

d)

500 mSv

41.

Students older than the age of 18- Annual effective dose limit

a)

.5 mSv

b)

150 mSv

c)

50 mSv

d)

500 mSv

42.

General public - Annual effective dose limit for frequent exposure

a)

1 mSv

b)

1.5 mSv

c)

.5 mSv

d)

150 mSv

43.

Level of negligible risk

a)

.1 mSv

b)

.01 mSv

c)

.001 mSv

d)

1 mSv

44.

Who publishes the annual dose limits?

a)

NCRP

b)

NNCA

c)

Joint Commission

d)

FDA

e)

ARRT

45.

Effective dose limit for the embryo or fetus for all of gestation

a)

150 mSv

b)

.5 mSv

c)

5.0 mSv

d)

1 mSv

46.

Embryo-fetus- equivalent dose limit per month

a)

.5 mSv

b)

5 mSv

c)

.05 mSv

d)

1 mSv

47.

Can randomly occur in nature

a)

Stochastic effects

b)

NonStochastic effects

48.

Become more severe at high levels of radiation but do not occur below a certain threshold dose

a)

Nonstochastic effects

b)

Deterministic effects

c)

Stochastic effects

49.

A lead apron of at least ___mm lead equivalent must be worn during exposure to scatter radiation

a)

.25 mm

b)

.05 mm

c)

.75 mm

d)

3mm

50.

If the exposure is 5 mGy at a distance of 3 feet, stepping back to a distance of 6 feet causes the exposure to decrease to?

a)

10 mGy

b)

1 mGy

c)

1.5 mGy

d)

1.25 mGy

51.

Fixed Fluoroscopes must maintain a minimum of ___inches Source to tabletop

a)

12

b)

15

c)

10

d)

24

52.

In portable radiography, the source to skin distance must be a minimum of

a)

12 inches

b)

15 inches

c)

24 inches

d)

72 inches

53.

The fluoroscopy timer must sound an alarm after ___ mins of beam-on time

a)

7

b)

3

c)

2

d)

5

54.

Which of the following is known as coherent scattering?

a)

Photoelectric

b)

Compton

c)

Classical

d)

Pair production

55.

Which of the following is responsible for creating the conditions for contrast on the image

a)

Photoelectric

b)

Compton

c)

Coherent

d)

Pair production

56.

Which of the following produces scatter radiation that exits the patient and may fog the image?

a)

Photoelectric

b)

Compton

c)

Coherent

d)

Pair production

57.

Which of the following primarily involves loosely bound outer-shell electrons?

a)

Photoelectric

b)

Compton

c)

Coherent

d)

Pair production

58.

Which of the following may result in occupational exposure for a radiographer?

a)

Photoelectric

b)

Compton

c)

Coherent

d)

Pair production

59.

which of the following sets of exposure factors would result in the lowest dose to the patient

a)

High mAs, low kVp

b)

Low mAs, high kVp

c)

Low mAs, high kVp, small focal spot

d)

Low mAs, high kVp, large focal spot

60.

Lead aprons used in fluoroscopy must be at least

a)

.5 mm lead

b)

.025 mm lead

c)

.25 mm lead

d)

.25 mm lead equivalent

61.

The lowest intensity of scatter radiation from the patient is located

a)

At the head of the table

b)

At a 90 degree angle from the patient

c)

At a 180 degree angle from the patient

d)

At the foot of the table

62.

Dropping a CR Cassette could cause (select all that apply)

a)

Large areas of signal loss

b)

Speckled radiopaque spots

c)

Fogged Image

d)

Horizontal and vertical lines on the image

63.

All of the following are parts of the Image Intensifier (select all that apply)

a)

Photocathode

b)

Electrostatic focusing lens

c)

Accelerating anode

d)

Output screen

64.

Changing alternating current to direct current

a)

Rectification

b)

Electromagnetism

c)

Line voltage compensation

d)

Mutal induction

65.

With changes in SID, the _____ is used to calculate a new mAs

a)

Inverse Square Law

b)

Exposure maintenance formula

c)

The 15% Rule