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Introduction to Analytical Chemistry

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Deals with the study of laws and principles have to do with the processes of determining the composition and identification of the material. Determines the properties of chemical substances, structure, the composition of compounds, and mixtures.

a)

Analytical Chemistry

b)

Organic Chemistry

c)

Inorganic Chemistry

d)

General Chemistry

2.

The process of determination and identification.

a)

Chemical Analysis

b)

Qualitative Analysis

c)

Quantitative Analysis

d)

Radiochemistry

3.

Identifies or determines the various types of elements and compounds that are in a substance.

a)

Chemical Analysis

b)

Qualitative Analysis

c)

Quantitative Analysis

d)

Radiochemistry

4.

Measures and determines the amount or quantity of the different chemicals or components in the substances being analyzed.

a)

Chemical Analysis

b)

Qualitative Analysis

c)

Quantitative Analysis

d)

Radiochemistry

5.

Involves the identification and production of radioactive elements and their use in the study of chemical processes.

a)

Chemical Analysis

b)

Qualitative Analysis

c)

Quantitative Analysis

d)

Radiochemistry

6.

The components of a sample that are to be determined.

a)

Anal

b)

Analytes

c)

Anallyte

d)

Analight

7.

Utilizes volumes of solutions ranging from 5 to 100 mL or more.

a)

Macro (ordinary) Analysis

b)

Semi-micro Analysis

8.

Volumes used range from 1 drop to approximately 1mL

a)

Macro (ordinary) Analysis

b)

Semi-micro Analysis

9.

True or False: In semi-micro qualitative analysis, small volumes in small test tubes are used. Small volumes of liquids are conveniently removed from centrifuged solids with capillary pipets.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

True or False: Liquid reagents are added with medicine droppers.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

True or False: All equipment is washed thoroughly with dishwashing liquid, rinsed thoroughly with tap water, and finally rinsed with distilled water.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Grade chemicals conform to the minimum standards set forth by the Reagent Committee of the American Chemical Society (ACS) and are used wherever possible in analytical work.

a)

Reagent Grade

b)

Primary Standard Grade

c)

Special-purpose Grade

13.

Standard reagents have been carefully analyzed by the supplier, and the assay is printed on the container label.

a)

Reagent Grade

b)

Primary Standard Grade

c)

Special-purpose Grade

14.

Chemicals that have been prepared for a specific application are also available. Included among these are solvents for spectrophotometry and high–performance liquid chromatography (HPLC).

a)

Reagent Grade

b)

Primary Standard Grade

c)

Special-purpose Grade

15.

True or False: Select the best grade of chemical available for analytical work. Whenever possible, pick the smallest bottle that will supply the desired quantity.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

True or False: Replace the top of every container immediately after removal of the reagent; please rely on someone else to do this.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

True or False: Hold the stoppers of reagent bottles between your fingers; never set a stopper on a desktop.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True or False: Unless specifically directed otherwise, return any excess reagent to a bottle.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Select Multiple: May be effective in removing grease films

a)

Benzene

b)

Acetone

c)

Water

d)

Oil

20.

Can be used for marking for porcelain\ surfaces.

a)

Saturated Ferric Chloride solution

b)

Benzene solution

c)

Ethyl Acetate solution

d)

Potassium Chromate solution

21.

Are necessary to decrease the volume of a solution that contains a nonvolatile solute.

a)

Evaporating Liquids

b)

Ribbed Cover Glass

c)

Glass Hooks

d)

Bumping

22.

Permits the vapors to escape; protects the remaining solution from accidental contamination.

a)

Evaporating Liquids

b)

Ribbed Cover Glass

c)

Glass Hooks

d)

Bumping

23.

Provide space between the rim of the beaker and ribbed cover glass.

a)

Evaporating Liquids

b)

Ribbed Cover Glass

c)

Glass Hooks

d)

Bumping

24.

Sudden, often violent boiling that tends to spatter solution out of its container.

a)

Evaporating Liquids

b)

Ribbed Cover Glass

c)

Glass Hooks

d)

Bumping

25.

True or False: Chlorine and Nitrate can be removed from a solution by adding sulfuric acid and evaporating until copious white fumes of sulfur trioxide are observed.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

True or False: Ammonia is effective in removing nitrate ions and nitrogen oxides from acidic solutions.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

True or False: Ammonium ion is rapidly oxidized upon heating; the solution is then evaporated to dryness.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Oxidation of the organic constituents of a sample with oxidizing reagents. E.g. HNO3, H2SO4, H2O2

a)

Wet Ashing

b)

Dry Ashing

29.

In most analyses, an analytical balance must be used to obtain highly accurate masses. Less accurate laboratory balances are also employed in the analytical laboratory for mass measurements where the demands for reliability are not critical.

a)

Measuring Mass

b)

Measuring Tape

c)

Measuring Cups

d)

Measuring Spoons

30.

Weighing instrument with a maximum capacity that ranges from 1g to several kilograms and a precision at maximum capacity of at least 1 part in 105.

a)

Analytical Balance

b)

Macrobalance

c)

Semimicroanalytical Balance

d)

Microanalytical Balance

31.

Most common type of balance. It has a maximum load of 160 to 200g and a precision of 0.1 mg.

a)

Analytical Balance

b)

Macrobalance

c)

Semimicroanalytical Balance

d)

Microanalytical Balance

32.

Have a maximum load of 1 to 3 g and a precision of 0.001 mg or 1 microgram.

a)

Analytical Balance

b)

Macrobalance

c)

Semimicroanalytical Balance

d)

Microanalytical Balance

33.

Have a maximum load of 10 to 30g with a precision of 0.01 mg.

a)

Analytical Balance

b)

Macrobalance

c)

Semimicroanalytical Balance

d)

Microanalytical Balance

34.

Have a maximum load of 1 to 3 g and a precision of 0.001 mg or 1 microgram.

a)

Analytical Balance

b)

Macrobalance

c)

Semimicroanalytical Balance

d)

Microanalytical Balance

35.

The mass of an empty sample container.

a)

Tare

b)

Taring

c)

Electronic Analytical Balance

d)

Single-pan Mechanical Analytical Balance

36.

Process of setting a balance to read zero with the tare on the pan.

a)

Tare

b)

Taring

c)

Electronic Analytical Balance

d)

Single-pan Mechanical Analytical Balance

37.

Advantage: Automatic taring control feature; Faster Reading.

Disadvantage: Stay breezes will cause significant fluctuations in the weight (sensitive); Electricity dependent;

a)

Tare

b)

Taring

c)

Electronic Analytical Balance

d)

Single-pan Mechanical Analytical Balance

38.

Advantages: Direct Reading; Air control feature

Disadvantages: Sensitive

a)

Tare

b)

Taring

c)

Electronic Analytical Balance

d)

Single-pan Mechanical Analytical Balance

39.

Useful for the removal of spilled material or dust.

a)

Paint Brush

b)

Hair Brush

c)

Make-up Brush

d)

Camel's Hair Brush

40.

True or False: The sample must be cooled before weighing.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Recur in a constant manner in each of a series of determination. Controllable or it can be reduced; Affects accuracy quantified by the difference between the mean and the true value.

a)

Determinate Error or Systematic

b)

Indeterminate Error or Random

42.

Slight variations in a series of observations made by the same observer under identical conditions; Affects the precision quantified by standard deviation; Difficult to detect.

a)

Determinate Error or Systematic

b)

Indeterminate Error or Random

43.

Due to inattention, carelessness, or personal limitations of the analyst. This error can be corrected by self-discipline.

a)

Personal Error or Operative Error

b)

Methodological Error

c)

Instrumental Error

d)

Buoyancy Error

44.

Due to non-ideal behavior or reagents or reactions. It can be corrected by blank determination.

a)

Personal Error or Operative Error

b)

Methodological Error

c)

Instrumental Error

d)

Buoyancy Error

45.

Due to imperfections in measuring devices. Due to inappropriate use of devices corrected by calibration.

a)

Personal Error or Operative Error

b)

Methodological Error

c)

Instrumental Error

d)

Buoyancy Error

46.

Weighing error that develops when the object being weighed has a significantly different density than the weights.

a)

Personal Error or Operative Error

b)

Methodological Error

c)

Instrumental Error

d)

Buoyancy Error

47.

For weighing that does not require great accuracy.

Advantages: Speed, ruggedness, large capacity, and convenience. They should be used whenever high sensitivity is not required.

a)

Auxiliary Laboratory Balances

b)

Top-loading Auxiliary Balances

c)

Triple Beam Balance

48.

Convenient (150-200g)

a)

Auxiliary Laboratory Balances

b)

Top-loading Auxiliary Balances

c)

Triple Beam Balance

49.

Simple, durable, and low cost.

a)

Auxiliary Laboratory Balances

b)

Top-loading Auxiliary Balances

c)

Triple Beam Balance

50.

Uses: Storage and Weighing.

a)

Weighing Bottles

b)

Dessicator

51.

A device used for storing and drying substances or objects to minimize the uptake of moisture.

a)

Weighing Bottles

b)

Dessicator

52.

Which of the choices is not a chemical drying agent?

a)

Anhydrous calcium chloride

b)

Calcium sulfate

c)

Anhydrous magnesium perchlorate/phosphorus pentoxide

d)

Sodium Dichromate

53.

Indicates group 1 cations

a)

White Precipitates

b)

Yellow Precipitates

c)

Gray Precipitates

d)

Black Precipitates

54.

Indicates lead

a)

White Precipitates

b)

Yellow Precipitates

c)

Gray Precipitates

d)

Black Precipitates

55.

Confirmatory agent.

a)

Potassium Chromate

b)

Potassium Dichromate

c)

Ammonium

d)

Ammonia

56.

Which of these is not under titration analysis.

a)

Volumetry

b)

Precipimetry

c)

Compleximetry

d)

Oxidation Reaction

57.

How many drops do you need to complete .50mL?

where: 1mL=20 gtts or 20 drops

a)

10 gtts

b)

1000 gtts

c)

100 gtts

d)

1 gtts

58.

Active Ingridients; USP. USP means?

a)

United States Pharmacopeia

b)

United States Pharmacists

c)

United States Pharmacy

59.

Inactive Ingridients/Excipients; NF. NF means?

a)

National Formulary

b)

National Formula

c)

Natural Formulation

d)

Natural Formula

60.

NISP means?

a)

National Institute of Standards and Technology

b)

National Information of Standards and Technology

c)

National Institue of Science and Technology

d)

National Information of Science and Technology

61.

HPLC means?

a)

High-performance Liquid Chromatography

b)

High-performer Liquid Chromatography